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JV Study Guide Health & Safety 2024-25

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Meningococcal vaccine: ________

a)

16-23 year olds

b)

2-5 year olds

c)

30-40 year olds

d)

50-65 year olds

2.

What is the body’s largest organ?

a)

Skin

b)

Liver

c)

Heart

d)

Lung

3.

Warning systems are in place to warn American citizens about tsunamis. Which of these states has such a system?

a)

Hawaii

b)

Nevada

c)

Kansas

d)

Arizona

4.

A waxy, fat-like substance found in all cells in the body, it makes hormones, Vitamin D, and digestive fluids: ________

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Glucose

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Keratin

5.

Vitamins A, D, E, and K are: ________

a)

Fat-soluble vitamins

b)

Water-soluble vitamins

c)

Essential amino acids

d)

Macronutrients

6.

The CPSC requires that which of these products be sold in child-resistant packaging?

a)

Both Over the counter AND Dietary supplements containing iron

b)

Only Over the counter medications

c)

Only Dietary supplements containing iron

d)

Neither Over the counter nor Dietary supplements containing iron

7.

An emotional disorder characterized by an obsessive desire to lose weight by refusing to eat: ________

a)

Anorexia

b)

Bulimia

c)

Depression

d)

Schizophrenia

8.

Which of these conditions is NOT best treated by a stimulant?

a)

PTSD

b)

ADHD

c)

Narcolepsy

d)

Hypersomnia

9.

What is the permanent and painful shortening of a muscle called?

a)

Contracture

b)

Sprain

c)

Strain

d)

Atrophy

10.

What is gingivitis?

a)

A mild form of gum disease prevented by daily brushing and flossing

b)

A type of tooth decay caused by eating sweets

c)

A viral infection affecting the tongue

d)

A genetic disorder causing tooth loss

11.

FSIS is the food safety regulatory division of which federal agency?

a)

USDA - United States Department of Agriculture

b)

FDA - Food and Drug Administration

c)

EPA - Environmental Protection Agency

d)

CDC - Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

12.

The American Heart Association recommends no more than 2,300 milligrams of this in your diet per day: ________

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Calcium

d)

Sugar

13.

Which of these illnesses should be treated with antibiotics?

a)

Strep throat

b)

Common cold

c)

Influenza (flu)

d)

Chickenpox

14.

Which of the following is characterized as a chronic neurological disorder involving the loss of the brain’s ability to regulate sleep-wake cycles normally?

a)

Narcolepsy

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Parkinson's disease

d)

Multiple sclerosis

15.

Melatonin is a natural hormone that affects which life process?

a)

Sleeping

b)

Digestion

c)

Respiration

d)

Circulation

16.

A Social Phobia can best be described as ________

a)

A persistent fear of being watched or judged by others

b)

A strong desire to be alone at all times

c)

An inability to recognize familiar faces

d)

A tendency to forget recent events

17.

This class of drugs includes both illegal drugs such as heroin and pain relievers such as oxycodone: ________

a)

Opioids

b)

Stimulants

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Antidepressants

18.

What does OTC stand for? ________

a)

Over-the-counter

b)

On-the-clock

c)

Order to Cash

d)

Official Trade Certificate

19.

Recommended daily teen fiber intake: ________

a)

20-30 grams

b)

5-10 grams

c)

40-50 grams

d)

10-15 grams

20.

The 2 sleep states are: ________

a)

REM and non-REM

b)

Alpha and Beta

c)

Delta and Theta

d)

Light and Deep

21.

Although extremely rare, a serious reaction to the flu vaccine may result in the development of this disease that causes muscle weakness and paralysis: ________

a)

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

b)

Multiple Sclerosis

c)

Parkinson's Disease

d)

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

22.

Dyslexia is a learning disability that primarily affects a person’s ability to do what task?

a)

Read

b)

Write

c)

Calculate

d)

Speak

23.

A unit of food energy: ________

a)

Calorie

b)

Joule

c)

Gram

d)

Watt

24.

What part of the body makes red blood cells?

a)

Bone Marrow

b)

Liver

c)

Heart

d)

Lungs

25.

What disease might one contract by eating undercooked chicken?

a)

Salmonella

b)

Malaria

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Measles

26.

According to the Affordable Care Act (ACA), a parent may add or keep a child on a parent’s health insurance policy until the child turns what age?

a)

26 years old

b)

18 years old

c)

21 years old

d)

30 years old

27.

How often should you replace your carbon monoxide detector?

a)

Every 7-10 years

b)

Every year

c)

Every 2-3 years

d)

Every 15-20 years

28.

If you get a nose bleed. Do all of these except:

a)

Lie Down

b)

Pinch your nose and lean forward

c)

Apply a cold compress to your nose

d)

Stay calm and breathe through your mouth

29.

FSIS is the food safety regulatory division of which federal agency?

a)

USDA- United States Department of Agriculture

b)

FDA- Food and Drug Administration

c)

EPA- Environmental Protection Agency

d)

CDC- Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

30.

In the US most deaths due to unintentional injury are caused by:

a)

Motor vehicle crashes

b)

Drowning

c)

Fires

d)

Poisoning

31.

The injection of a killed or weakened infectious organism in order to prevent catching the infection is called a:

a)

Vaccination

b)

Antibiotic therapy

c)

Surgery

d)

Transfusion

32.

Teens should sleep this many hours per night?

a)

Eight to ten

b)

Five to six

c)

Ten to twelve

d)

Six to seven

33.

The Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans recommends how many minutes per day of moderate to vigorous physical activity for teens?

a)

60 minutes

b)

30 minutes

c)

90 minutes

d)

120 minutes

34.

The acronym “ADA” stands for what federal law?

a)

Americans with Disabilities Act

b)

Affordable Care Act

c)

Age Discrimination Act

d)

Animal Defense Act

35.

Under normal storage conditions, cosmetic products are generally formulated and tested for a shelf life of:

a)

1-3 years

b)

6-9 months

c)

5-7 years

d)

10-12 years

36.

You want to put safety first, and you know that this type of lightbulb operates at a much higher temperature, so you may choose to avoid it: ________

a)

Halogen

b)

LED

c)

Fluorescent

d)

Incandescent

37.

In prescription drug advertisements, the description of a drug's risks and effectiveness is called: ________

a)

The brief summary

b)

The product monograph

c)

The patient insert

d)

The clinical overview

38.

Some of the health problems that can result from a tattoo include: ________

a)

Infections and allergic reactions

b)

Improved eyesight

c)

Increased intelligence

d)

Faster hair growth

39.

Anabolic steroids are an artificial version of: ________

a)

Testosterone

b)

Estrogen

c)

Insulin

d)

Adrenaline

40.

The amount of tar and nicotine you get from a cigarette depends on: ________

a)

How you smoke it

b)

The color of the cigarette pack

c)

The price of the cigarette

d)

The length of the filter

41.

How does this reduce the time to escape?

a)

Five minutes to two minutes

b)

Ten minutes to eight minutes

c)

Seven minutes to five minutes

d)

Four minutes to three minutes

42.

Most bacteria: ________

a)

Are harmless and even beneficial

b)

Cause deadly diseases in all living things

c)

Can only survive in extreme environments

d)

Are visible to the naked eye

43.

Shin splints are most common in: ________

a)

Runners

b)

Swimmers

c)

Cyclists

d)

Weightlifters

44.

What best describes a parasite: ________

a)

A microorganism that needs a host to survive

b)

A non-living thing that causes disease

c)

A chemical used to kill bacteria

d)

A cell that produces its own food

45.

What is an antiemetic?

a)

A drug that prevents or reduces nausea and vomiting.

b)

A drug that increases blood pressure.

c)

A drug that treats bacterial infections.

d)

A drug that relieves pain.

46.

Which type of burn affects both the outer and underlying layer of skin, causing pain, redness, swelling, and blistering?

a)

Second-degree burns

b)

First-degree burns

c)

Third-degree burns

d)

Thermal burns

47.

Which type of burn affects only the top layer of skin, the epidermis, and does not cause blisters?

a)

First-degree burn

b)

Second-degree burn

c)

Third-degree burn

d)

Chemical burn

48.

Which type of burn involves all layers of skin and sometimes the fat and muscle tissue under the skin, often requiring skin grafts to close the wound?

a)

Third-degree burns

b)

First-degree burns

c)

Second-degree burns

d)

Superficial burns

49.

What is the waxy, fat-like substance found in your blood that is essential for building healthy cells but can increase the risk of heart disease if levels are too high?

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Glucose

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Insulin

50.

__________ refers to food that is quickly prepared and served, often at restaurants or from take-out counters, and is typically high in calories, fat, and sodium.

a)

Fast Food

b)

Organic Food

c)

Home-cooked Food

d)

Gourmet Food

51.

Which nutritional guide created by the USDA illustrates the five food groups that are the building blocks for a healthy diet using a plate icon?

a)

MyPlate

b)

Food Pyramid

c)

Eatwell Plate

d)

Healthy Plate Guide

52.

What type of immunity develops after exposure to a disease or through vaccination, resulting in the production of antibodies?

a)

Active immunity

b)

Passive immunity

c)

Innate immunity

d)

Cell-mediated immunity

53.

What type of medication is used to treat viral infections by inhibiting the development of the pathogen inside the host?

a)

Antiviral

b)

Antibiotic

c)

Antifungal

d)

Analgesic

54.

A(n) __________ contains a weakened form of the live virus or bacteria that causes a disease, prompting an immune response without causing the full-blown illness.

a)

Attenuated vaccine

b)

Inactivated toxin

c)

Antibiotic

d)

Antiserum

55.

What is an additional dose of a vaccine given periodically to maintain or enhance the immune response initially provided by the primary series?

a)

Booster

b)

Antibiotic

c)

Antigen

d)

Placebo

56.

Which term describes diseases that can be spread from one person or animal to another, either directly or indirectly?

a)

Communicable

b)

Non-communicable

c)

Chronic

d)

Genetic

57.

What biological preparation provides active acquired immunity to a particular infectious disease?

a)

Vaccine

b)

Antibiotic

c)

Antiseptic

d)

Analgesic

58.

What type of vaccine contains viruses or bacteria that have been killed or inactivated, preventing them from causing disease but still prompting an immune response?

a)

Inactivated vaccine

b)

Live attenuated vaccine

c)

Subunit vaccine

d)

Toxoid vaccine

59.

What is the practice of using drugs or other home remedies without professional guidance to treat self-diagnosed conditions?

a)

Self-medicated

b)

Prescription therapy

c)

Clinical trial

d)

Medical consultation

60.

A _________ is an outbreak of a disease that occurs on a global scale, affecting a large number of people across multiple countries or continents.

a)

Pandemic

b)

Epidemic

c)

Endemic

d)

Outbreak

61.

What term refers to the spread of an illness within a community where the source of the infection is not immediately known?

a)

Community spread

b)

Contact tracing

c)

Index case

d)

Quarantine

62.

Which public health practice involves maintaining physical distance from others to prevent the spread of contagious diseases?

a)

Social distancing

b)

Hand washing

c)

Vaccination

d)

Wearing masks

63.

What is the form of indirect protection from infectious disease that occurs when a significant percentage of a population becomes immune, reducing the likelihood of disease spread?

a)

Herd immunity

b)

Direct transmission

c)

Vector control

d)

Antibiotic resistance

64.

__________ includes items like masks, gloves, and gowns that are used to protect individuals from exposure to infectious agents and other hazards.

a)

PPE

b)

CPR

c)

MRI

d)

IVF

65.

What term describes the unintended or secondary effects that can occur with the use of a drug or treatment?

a)

Side effects

b)

Dosage

c)

Prescription

d)

Efficacy

66.

Which piece of U.S. legislation aims to make healthcare more affordable and accessible by expanding insurance coverage and reducing costs for individuals?

a)

Affordable Care Act

b)

No Child Left Behind Act

c)

Patriot Act

d)

Dodd-Frank Act

67.

What is the fixed amount a patient pays for a covered healthcare service, usually when receiving the service?

a)

Copayment

b)

Premium

c)

Deductible

d)

Coinsurance

68.

__________ is the percentage of costs a patient shares with their insurance company after the deductible has been met.

a)

Coinsurance

b)

Premium

c)

Copayment

d)

Out-of-pocket maximum

69.

What is used to measure the correct amount of liquid medication, ensuring accurate dosing?

a)

Dosing device

b)

Spoon

c)

Cupboard

d)

Scale

70.

A __________ is any substance that causes a change in an organism's physiology or psychology when consumed.

a)

Drug

b)

Vitamin

c)

Mineral

d)

Enzyme

71.

Which term describes the incorrect use of a medication, whether by taking the wrong dose, using it at the wrong time, or for the wrong reason?

a)

Medicine misuse

b)

Medicine adherence

c)

Medicine tolerance

d)

Medicine compliance

72.

What type of medicine can be purchased without a prescription and is used to treat common health issues?

a)

OTC (Over-the-Counter) medicine

b)

Prescription medicine

c)

Herbal supplements

d)

Vaccines

73.

The ________ provides important information about the active ingredients, uses, warnings, and directions for a medicine.

a)

Drug Facts Label

b)

Nutrition Facts Label

c)

Prescription Slip

d)

Medical History Form

74.

What occurs when a person takes more than the medically recommended amount of a substance, leading to harmful effects?

a)

Overdose

b)

Withdrawal

c)

Tolerance

d)

Allergy

75.

John often feels overwhelmed by his emotions and is looking for strategies to control his temper. What type of program might help him?

a)

Anger management

b)

Cooking class

c)

Math tutoring

d)

Dance workshop

76.

Which term describes a feeling of worry, nervousness, or unease about an upcoming event or something with an uncertain outcome?

a)

Anxiety

b)

Excitement

c)

Confidence

d)

Happiness

77.

What is a condition characterized by abnormal or disturbed eating habits that negatively affect a person's health?

a)

Eating disorder

b)

Diabetes

c)

Hypertension

d)

Asthma

78.

A ________ is a type of mental health disorder characterized by enduring patterns of behavior, cognition, and inner experience that deviate from cultural expectations.

a)

Personality disorder

b)

Mood disorder

c)

Anxiety disorder

d)

Psychotic disorder

79.

Which term refers to an intense, irrational fear of a specific object, situation, or activity that poses little or no actual danger?

a)

Phobia

b)

Euphoria

c)

Delirium

d)

Obsession

80.

A(n) ________ is a type of mental disorder characterized by disturbances in mood, such as depression or bipolar disorder.

a)

Affective disorder

b)

Anxiety disorder

c)

Personality disorder

d)

Psychotic disorder

81.

What term describes a serious disagreement or argument, typically a protracted one, between individuals or groups?

a)

Conflict

b)

Harmony

c)

Agreement

d)

Friendship

82.

Which type of health coverage is provided by an employer as part of an employee's benefits package?

a)

Employer-based insurance

b)

Medicaid

c)

Medicare

d)

Individual health insurance

83.

What is an account that allows employees to set aside pre-tax dollars for qualified medical expenses, reducing taxable income?

a)

Flexible Spending Account (FSA)

b)

Health Savings Bond (HSB)

c)

Retirement Savings Account (RSA)

d)

Taxable Expense Account (TEA)

84.

The ________ is a service available in every state that helps people shop for and enroll in affordable health insurance plans.

a)

Health insurance marketplace

b)

Medicare office

c)

Social Security Administration

d)

State tax board

85.

Which term describes a chronic, relapsing disorder characterized by compulsive drug seeking, continued use despite harmful consequences, and long-lasting changes in the brain?

a)

Addiction

b)

Tolerance

c)

Withdrawal

d)

Dependence

86.

What type of drug increases the activity of the central nervous system, leading to increased alertness, attention, and energy?

a)

Stimulant

b)

Depressant

c)

Hallucinogen

d)

Narcotic

87.

________ are synthetic substances similar to the male hormone testosterone, often used to build muscle and enhance performance.

a)

Anabolic steroids

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Vitamins

d)

Painkillers

88.

What term describes substances that produce chemical vapors intended to induce a mind-altering effect?

a)

Inhalant

b)

Antibiotic

c)

Stimulant

d)

Sedative

89.

Which type of drug slows down the function of the central nervous system and is often used to relieve anxiety or induce sleep?

a)

Depressant

b)

Stimulant

c)

Hallucinogen

d)

Steroid

90.

What term describes the symptoms that occur after stopping or reducing the intake of a drug that the body has become dependent on?

a)

Withdrawal

b)

Tolerance

c)

Overdose

d)

Relapse

91.

________ is a medical condition characterized by the inability to abstain from opioids, leading to significant impairment or distress.

a)

Opioid Use Disorder

b)

Diabetes Mellitus

c)

Hypertension

d)

Asthma

92.

What are the medications called that are used to treat opioid dependence by reducing cravings and withdrawal symptoms?

a)

Medications for Opioid Use Disorder

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Antidepressants

d)

Antihistamines

93.

Which term refers to a drug or device that is being tested in clinical trials but has not yet been approved for general use?

a)

Investigational product

b)

Marketed product

c)

Generic product

d)

Placebo

94.

What is the study of the uses and effects of drugs in large populations to understand their impact on public health?

a)

Pharmacoepidemiology

b)

Pharmacogenomics

c)

Pharmacokinetics

d)

Pharmacodynamics

95.

The __________ refers to the weighing of a medication's positive effects against its potential adverse effects to determine its overall value in treatment.

a)

Benefit-risk balance

b)

Therapeutic index

c)

Dosage regimen

d)

Pharmacokinetics

96.

The monitoring of a drug’s safety and effectiveness after it has been released on the market is known as:

a)

Pharmacovigilance

b)

Clinical trials

c)

Drug formulation

d)

Prescription analysis

97.

Which term indicates a warning issued to the public when the level of ultraviolet radiation is expected to be unusually high, advising protective measures?

a)

UV Alert

b)

Heat Advisory

c)

Air Quality Warning

d)

Flood Warning

98.

The system used to measure the effectiveness of fabric in blocking ultraviolet radiation, providing information on sun protection offered by clothing, is known as:

a)

SPF (Sun Protection Factor)

b)

UPF (Ultraviolet Protection Factor)

c)

GSM (Grams per Square Meter)

d)

LUX (Illuminance Measurement)

99.

What type of clothing is designed to protect the skin from harmful ultraviolet rays, often labeled with a UPF rating?

a)

Rainwear

b)

Swimwear

c)

UV-protective clothing

d)

Winter coats

100.

__________ rays are a type of ultraviolet radiation from the sun that can penetrate deep into the skin, leading to premature aging and skin cancer.

a)

UVA

b)

UVB

c)

Gamma

d)

Infrared