wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Cell Division Review Worksheet (Meiosis & Mitosis)

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which diagram represents metaphase II of meiosis?

a)

I

b)

III

c)

IV

d)

VI

2.

Which diagram represents anaphase II of meiosis?

a)

I

b)

III

c)

IV

d)

VI

3.

Which drawing represents a stage of meiosis in which independent assortment of chromosomes occurs?

a)

II

b)

III

c)

IV

d)

VI

4.

In sexually reproducing organisms, an important source of genetic variation is:

a)

Prophase I genetic recombination

b)

Prophase II

c)

Prophase fertilization

d)

all of these

5.

Two nuclei with identical chromosome content are produced.

a)

The statement is true for mitosis only.

b)

The statement is true for meiosis only.

c)

The statement is true for both mitosis and meiosis.

d)

The statement is true for neither mitosis nor meiosis.

6.

Results when a cell divides to form two cells that are genetically identical.

a)

The statement is true for mitosis only.

b)

The statement is true for meiosis only.

c)

The statement is true for both mitosis and meiosis.

d)

The statement is true for neither mitosis nor meiosis.

7.

For the following situations, match the key event of mitosis or interphase with the appropriate stage: I. Prophase II II. Metaphase II III. Anaphase II IV. Interphase V. Prophase I VI. Metaphase I VII. Anaphase I VIII. Interphase IX. Prophase II X. Metaphase II XI. Anaphase II The nuclear envelope assembly forms to enclose the chromosomes in place.

a)

I

b)

IV

c)

V

d)

VI

e)

VII

8.

For the following situations, match the key event of mitosis or interphase with the appropriate stage: I. Prophase II II. Metaphase II III. Anaphase II IV. Interphase V. Prophase I VI. Metaphase I VII. Anaphase I VIII. Interphase IX. Prophase II X. Metaphase II XI. Anaphase II. Centrosomes of sister chromatids separate and chromatids disperse.

a)

II

b)

VI

c)

VII

d)

VIII

e)

IX

9.

Synapsis of homologous pairs occurs; crossing over may occur.

a)

I

b)

II

c)

IV

d)

VI

e)

VII

10.

Nuclear envelope fragments; chromosomes attach to spindle microtubules.

a)

II

b)

IV

c)

V

d)

VI

e)

VIII

11.

Centrosomes of sister chromatids separate and chromatids disperse.

a)

II

b)

VI

c)

VII

d)

VIII

e)

VIII

12.

From the list above, which sequence correctly describes the order of nuclear events in meiosis?

a)

5, 2, 4, 1, 3

b)

5, 2, 4, 3, 1

c)

5, 2, 4, 1, 3

d)

5, 2, 4, 3, 1

e)

5, 2, 4, 1, 3

13.

Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that prevents

a)

nuclear envelope breakdown.

b)

shortening of microtubules.

c)

formation of a cleavage furrow.

d)

elongation of microtubules.

e)

formation of kinetochores.

14.

If mammalian cells receive a go-ahead signal at the G1 checkpoint, they will

a)

move directly into telophase.

b)

complete the cycle and divide.

c)

exit the cycle and switch to a nondividing state.

d)

show a drop in MPF concentration.

e)

complete cytokinesis and form new cell walls.

15.

Cells that are in a nondividing state are in which phase?

a)

G0

b)

G2

c)

S

d)

G1

e)

M

16.

Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If cells completed mitosis but not cytokinesis, what would be the result?

a)

a cell with a single large nucleus

b)

a cell with two nuclei but with half the amount of DNA

c)

a cell with two abnormally small nuclei

d)

a cell with two nuclei but with the amount of DNA

e)

a cell with two nuclei but with twice the amount of DNA

17.

Measuring the amount of DNA per nucleus found that cells had 3 picograms of DNA at the end of G1, and 6 picograms of DNA at the end of G2. When would a cell contain 6 picograms of DNA?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

S

d)

G2

18.

What causes the changes in cyclin concentration during the cell cycle?

a)

The cell increases its production once the previous phase is completed.

b)

The cell destroys the cyclin once it is used.

c)

The cell imports cyclin from outside the cell.

d)

The cell exports cyclin to the cytoplasm by exocytosis.

e)

The cell uses PCR to recombine the cyclin gene.

19.

The following question consists of five phrases or sentences. For each phrase or sentence, select the term that is most closely related to it. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Released by platelets in the vicinity of an injury.

a)

MPF

b)

PDGF

c)

Protein kinases

d)

Cyclins

e)

Cdk

20.

Enzymes that activate other proteins by transferring phosphate groups to them are called:

a)

kinases

b)

cyclins

c)

ATPases

d)

phosphatases

21.

A protein synthesized through the cell cycle that associates with a kinase to form active enzymes is called:

a)

cyclin

b)

Cdk

c)

MPF

d)

ATPase

22.

Triggers the cell's Passage past the G2 checkpoint into mitosis:

a)

cyclin

b)

Cdk

c)

MPF

d)

ATPase

23.

Which number represents DNA is replicated at this time of the cell cycle?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

e)

V

24.

The cell plate is destroyed toward the end of this phase.

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

e)

V

25.

Passage through which checkpoint triggers the cell's entry into mitosis?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

S

d)

G2

e)

M

26.

The shortest part of the cell cycle is:

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

S

d)

G2

e)

M

27.

Which number represents G1?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

e)

V

28.

Which number represents DNA synthesis?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

e)

V

29.

What are enzymes called that control the cell cycle by phosphorylating other proteins?

a)

Proteases

b)

Protein kinases

c)

ATPases

d)

Synthases

e)

Transferases

30.

A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms would you expect to find at the end of S phase and after cytokinesis?

a)

8, 8

b)

8, 16

c)

16, 8

d)

16, 16

e)

12, 16

31.

At what stage do they line up at the center of the cell?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Cytokinesis

32.

What triggers the separation of chromatids at the beginning of anaphase?

a)

The degradation of proteins holding sister chromatids together

b)

The synthesis of new DNA

c)

The activation of cyclin-dependent kinases

d)

The formation of the Golgi apparatus

e)

The release of growth factor from the cell

33.

Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, whose concentration changes cyclically during the cell cycle, are called:

a)

Mitotic spindle proteins

b)

Centrioles

c)

Antibodies

d)

Ion pumps

e)

Cyclins

34.

Which number represents G2?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

e)

V

35.

Use the following information to answer the questions below. The centromere is a region in which:

a)

chromatids remain attached to one another until anaphase.

b)

metaphase chromosomes become aligned at the equator of the cell.

c)

chromosomes are grouped during telophase.

d)

the nucleus is located prior to mitosis.

36.

All of the following statements about centromeres are true except:

a)

Markedly heterochromatic

b)

Mitotic spindle fibers attach to centromeres

c)

Centromeres are required for chromosome segregation

d)

Are composed of euchromatin

37.

The centromere is required for:

a)

Mitotic spindle attachment

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

DNA replication

d)

Cell wall formation

38.

At metaphase of mitosis, which diagram represents the chromosomes arranged at the center of the cell?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

39.

A possible daughter cell of mitosis is represented by which diagram?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

40.

Two centrosomes are arranged at opposite poles of the cell.

a)

A. Interphase

b)

B. Prophase

c)

C. Metaphase

d)

D. Anaphase

e)

E. Telophase

41.

Which of the following is (are) primarily responsible for cytokinesis in plant cells?

a)

Golgi-derived vesicles

b)

Centrioles

c)

Actin and myosin microfilaments

d)

Cyclin-dependent kinases

42.

The cell whose nuclear material is shown in the figure has just completed which of the following processes?

a)

metaphase

b)

prophase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

e)

synthesis of chromatids

43.

Centrioles begin to move apart in animal cells.

a)

anaphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

e)

synthesis of chromatids

44.

This is the longest of the mitotic stages.

a)

anaphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

e)

synthesis of chromatids

45.

Centromeres uncouple, sister chromatids are separated, and the two new chromosomes move to opposite poles of the cell.

a)

anaphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

e)

synthesis of chromatids

46.

If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the functioning of the mitotic spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?

a)

anaphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

e)

interphase

47.

All of the following occur during mitosis except:

a)

the centrioles move toward opposite poles of the cell

b)

the nucleolus can no longer be seen

c)

the nuclear envelope disappears

d)

chromosomes are replicated

e)

the spindle is organized

48.

If there are 20 centromeres in a cell, how many chromosomes are there?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

40

e)

80

49.

Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?

a)

condensation of the chromosomes

b)

replication of the DNA

c)

separation of sister chromatids

d)

separation of the centrosomes

e)

spindle formation

50.

The phase of mitosis that precedes the phase in which the chromosomes move to opposite poles is

a)

Prophase I and prophase II

b)

Metaphase I and metaphase II

c)

Anaphase I and anaphase II

d)

Prophase I and metaphase I

e)

Metaphase I and prophase II

51.

Which of the following items belongs least with the others?

a)

synapsis

b)

bivalent

c)

tetrad

d)

chiasma

e)

crossing over

52.

Which of the following items belongs least with the others?

a)

synapsis

b)

bivalent

c)

tetrad

d)

chiasma

e)

crossing over

53.

A red blood cell (RBC) that has a life span of 120 days, if the energy for producing each ATP is 7 kcal, how many molecules of ATP must be produced to provide enough energy for the entire life span of the RBC?

a)

36,000

b)

24,000

c)

6,000

d)

30,000,000

e)

30,000,000,000

54.

The cells of MPF at the end of mitosis are

a)

protein kinase

b)

cyclin

c)

cyclin-dependent kinase

d)

degradation of cyclin

e)

phosphorylation of cyclin

55.

In mitosis, the plant cell structure that functions in cytokinesis is the

a)

cell plate

b)

centromere

c)

cell wall

d)

spindle apparatus

e)

cell cycle

56.

In some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in

a)

cells with more than one nucleus

b)

cells lacking nuclei

c)

cells lacking chromosomes

d)

cells lacking an S phase

e)

cell cycles lacking an S phase

57.

What is a phenotype?

a)

the genotype of an individual

b)

the physical appearance of an individual

c)

a method of identifying gametes

d)

a type of gene

58.

Which of the following is the term for a cell that contains 2n chromosomes?

a)

an animal cell

b)

an embryonic cell

c)

a gamete

d)

Both A and B are correct.

59.

In animals, meiosis results in gametes, and mitosis results in:

a)

proteins.

b)

somatic cells.

c)

zygotes.

d)

clones.

60.

What is a genome?

a)

the entire set of polypeptides produced by a cell

b)

the complete set of polygenes in a breeding cell

c)

a threadlike molecule of DNA that contains genetic information

d)

the complete set of DNA in a single cell of an organism, including genes and noncoding sequences

61.

If the liver cells of an animal have 24 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would you expect to find in a gamete from this animal?

a)

6

b)

12

c)

24

d)

48

62.

Which of the following is true of a species that has a diploid number of 32?

a)

This species has 16 pairs of homologous chromosomes in each somatic cell.

b)

There are 16 chromosomes in an egg cell of this species.

c)

A typical sperm cell of this species has 8 chromosomes.

d)

Both A and B are correct.

63.

Referring to a plant sexual life cycle which includes alternation of generations, the gametophyte produces gametes by:

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

fertilization

d)

syngamy

64.

The X and the Y chromosomes are called:

a)

sex chromosomes

b)

autosomes

c)

homologous chromosomes

d)

non-homologous chromosomes

65.

At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes photographed in the preparation of a karyotype?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

interphase

66.

Syngamy occurs between:

a)

two gametes

b)

two zygotes

c)

two spores

d)

two chromosomes

67.

All of the following are functions of meiosis except:

a)

reduction of chromosome number by half

b)

crossing over and recombination of homologous chromosomes

c)

production of identical daughter cells

d)

production of gametes

68.

Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Among the following, which two processes are always involved?

a)

I and II

b)

II and IV

c)

I and III

d)

III and IV

e)

All of the above

69.

Haploid cells are produced only as a result of:

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

fertilization

d)

syngamy

70.

Only when cells are haploid and only during fertilization do chromosomes come together in pairs. This statement is true for:

a)

animals only

b)

plants only

c)

fungi only

d)

all organisms

71.

Which of the life cycles is typical for plants?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II

e)

II and III

72.

Which of the life cycles is typical for animals?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II

e)

II and III

73.

Which of these statements about homologous chromosomes is correct?

a)

They have identical DNA sequences.

b)

They pair up during meiosis.

c)

They are found in gametes.

d)

They are found in haploid cells.

e)

They are found in prokaryotic cells.

74.

Recombinant chromosomes are the result of

a)

crossing over.

b)

independent assortment.

c)

random fertilization.

d)

mutation.

e)

separation of homologous chromosomes.

75.

The immediate products of meiosis in plants are

a)

spores.

b)

gametes.

c)

zygotes.

d)

eggs.

e)

sperm.

76.

Multicellular haploid organisms

a)

produce new cells for growth by mitosis.

b)

produce gametes by mitosis.

c)

produce gametes by meiosis.

d)

form only from zygotes.

e)

are the direct result of syngamy.

77.

Which of the following is missing from the life cycle of the typical angiosperm: sporophyte—meiosis—haploid spores—gametophyte—gametes—zygote—sporophyte?

a)

mitosis

b)

fertilization

c)

meiosis

d)

mitosis and fertilization

78.

In plants, which cells result from mitotic division?

a)

spores

b)

gametes

c)

diploid cells

d)

haploid cells

79.

When does the synaptonemal complex disappear?

a)

late prophase of meiosis I

b)

early prophase of meiosis I

c)

after crossing over

d)

mid-prophase of meiosis II

80.

What is the life cycle typical for many fungi and some protists?

a)

DNA

b)

embryo

c)

zygote

d)

I and III

81.

In which group of organisms does the mature, multicellular organism grow from a haploid cell?

a)

animals

b)

plants

c)

fungi

d)

humans

82.

How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their DNA and are just about to begin meiosis?

a)

They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.

b)

They have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.

c)

They have half the number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA.

d)

They have half the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.

83.

At the end of meiosis I, the two daughter cells

a)

are diploid and have identical DNA.

b)

are haploid and have identical DNA.

c)

are diploid and have different DNA.

d)

are haploid and have different DNA.

84.

Which of the following statements about crossing over is true?

a)

It occurs during prophase I of meiosis.

b)

It increases genetic variation.

c)

It involves exchange of DNA between homologous chromosomes.

d)

All of the above.

85.

Figure 13.4 shows a diploid cell with four chromosomes (two long and two short). The cell is undergoing meiosis. At this time, homologous chromosomes are paired and crossing over is occurring. Now, choose the correct position of the centromeres in a daughter cell at the completion of meiosis II.

a)

A)

b)

B)

c)

C)

d)

D)

86.

Which of the following events occurs during which phase of meiosis? Crossing over

a)

prophase I

b)

telophase I

c)

prophase II

d)

telophase II

e)

metaphase II

87.

When comparing prophase I of meiosis with prophase of mitosis, which of the following occurs only in meiosis?

a)

A) Chromosomes condense

b)

B) Chromosomes form tetrads

c)

C) Nuclear envelope breaks down

d)

D) Chromosomes attach to spindle fibers

e)

E) Chromatids separate

88.

The chromosome makeup of a daughter cell at the completion of meiosis II is

a)

diploid, and the chromosomes are composed of chromatids

b)

diploid, and the chromosomes are composed of a single chromatid

c)

haploid, and the chromosomes are composed of chromatids

d)

haploid, and the chromosomes are composed of a single chromatid

89.

Which of the following events increases genetic variation in a population?

a)

independent assortment

b)

crossing over

c)

random fertilization

d)

all of the above

e)

A, B, and C are correct

90.

Which of the following events occurs during meiosis but not mitosis?

a)

A) condensation of chromosomes

b)

B) crossing over of homologous pairs

c)

C) separation of sister chromatids

d)

D) production of daughter cells

e)

E) replication of DNA

91.

Which of the following terms belongs with haploid, gametes, and fertilization?

a)

mitosis

b)

chromosomes

c)

meiosis

d)

centromere

e)

fertilization

92.

Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not mitosis?

a)

replication of DNA

b)

synapsis and crossing over

c)

production of daughter cells

d)

alignment of chromosomes at the equator

e)

separation of sister chromatids

93.

Density-dependent inhibition is explained by which of the following?

a)

As cells become more numerous, they begin to squeeze against each other, restricting their size and ability to produce mitotic promoting factors.

b)

As cells become more numerous, the protein kinases they produce begin to compete with each other, such that the kinases produced by one cell can inhibit the kinases produced by another cell.

c)

As cells become more numerous, the amount of required growth factors and nutrients is insufficient to allow for cell growth.

d)

As cells become more numerous, they begin to squeeze against each other, restricting their size and ability to maintain adequate energy and nutrient levels.

e)

As cells become more numerous, the level of waste products increases, eventually slowing down metabolism.

94.

Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?

a)

They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.

b)

When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle.

c)

They are not subject to cell cycle controls.

d)

B and C are true.

e)

A, B, and C are true.

95.

Dynein ATP protein complex turns itself off by:

a)

Catalyzing an enzyme that destroys the cyclin.

b)

Adding a phosphate group to the cyclin.

c)

Activating a protein kinase.

d)

Entering the G0 phase.

e)

Activating the metaphase-promoting complex.

96.

Recent research has indicated that cancer cells:

a)

Have a normal number of chromosomes.

b)

Do not complete the cell cycle.

c)

Are unable to enter the G0 phase.

d)

Enter but fail to exit the G0 phase.

e)

Enter but fail to exit the S phase.

97.

A mutation results in a protein that no longer can attach to microtubules at the kinetochores. Which of the following would likely happen?

a)

The cell would never leave metaphase.

b)

The cell would never enter prophase.

c)

The cell would never enter mitosis but fail to enter the normal G1.

d)

The cell would never leave anaphase.

e)

The cell would never leave telophase.

Similar Resources on Wayground

pai bab 10

100 questions

pai bab 10

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Grade 12 Midterm Review - Artificial Intelligence (AI)

97 questions

Grade 12 Midterm Review - Artificial Intelligence (AI)

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade

untitled

100 questions

untitled

quiz

Worksheet

•

2nd Grade - University

Studies in islam Mid Term for Grade 5

100 questions

Studies in islam Mid Term for Grade 5

quiz

Worksheet

•

5th Grade - University