wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

CPR 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Fill in the blank: The term for severe bleeding is _________.

a)

hemorrhage

b)

anemia

c)

edema

d)

thrombosis

2.

Fill in the blank: The condition of abnormally low body temperature is called _________.

a)

hypothermia

b)

hypertension

c)

hyperthermia

d)

hypoglycemia

3.

Fill in the blank: A cut or wound made by a sharp instrument is called an _________.

a)

incision

b)

abrasion

c)

contusion

d)

laceration

4.

Fill in the blank: The invasion of the body by harmful microorganisms is known as _________

a)

infection

b)

digestion

c)

respiration

d)

excretion

5.

Fill in the blank: A condition caused by insufficient blood flow to the organs is called _________.

a)

insulin shock

b)

hypertension

c)

hyperglycemia

d)

hypothermia

6.

Fill in the blank: A torn or jagged wound is called a _________.

a)

laceration

b)

abrasion

c)

contusion

d)

incision

7.

Fill in the blank: The harmful effect caused by swallowing or exposure to toxic substances is called _________.

a)

poisoning

b)

digestion

c)

infection

d)

allergy

8.

Fill in the blank: A small hole made by a sharp object is called a _________.

a)

puncture

b)

fracture

c)

bruise

d)

scratch

9.

Fill in the blank: A sudden drop in blood flow throughout the body is called _________.

a)

shock

b)

stroke

c)

seizure

d)

hypertension

10.

Fill in the blank: An injury to a ligament caused by twisting is called a _________

a)

sprain

b)

fracture

c)

dislocation

d)

bruise

11.

Fill in the blank: An injury caused by overstretching or tearing a muscle or tendon is called a _________.

a)

strain

b)

sprain

c)

fracture

d)

dislocation

12.

Fill in the blank: A sudden interruption in the blood supply to the brain is called a _________

a)

stroke

b)

migraine

c)

seizure

d)

tumor

13.

Fill in the blank: The process of sorting patients based on the severity of their condition is called _________.

a)

triage

b)

diagnosis

c)

referral

d)

discharge

14.

Fill in the blank: An injury where the skin is cut or broken is called a _________

a)

wound

b)

bruise

c)

sprain

d)

fracture

15.

Fill in the blank: A person who responds first at the scene of an emergency is called a _________

a)

First Responder

b)

Bystander

c)

Paramedic

d)

Spectator

16.

Fill in the blank: A medical professional who specializes in emergency medicine is called an _________.

a)

Emergency Medicine Physician

b)

Cardiologist

c)

Radiologist

d)

Pediatrician

17.

Fill in the blank: A specialist in disaster medicine is called a _________.

a)

Disaster Medicine Specialist

b)

Trauma Surgeon

c)

Epidemiologist

d)

Paramedic

18.

Fill in the blank: A person trained to provide emergency medical care and transport is called an _________.

a)

Emergency Medical Technician

b)

Paramedic

c)

Firefighter

d)

Police Officer

19.

Fill in the blank: A healthcare professional who provides advanced emergency care is called a _________

a)

Paramedic

b)

Nurse

c)

Pharmacist

d)

Radiologist

20.

Which of the following is a basic principle of first aid?

a)

Panic and act quickly

b)

Remain calm and evaluate the situation

c)

Ignore the environment

d)

Provide treatment without reason

21.

According to the passage, what should you do before checking any accident victim?

a)

Call EMS immediately

b)

Check the scene and make sure it is safe to approach

c)

Move the victim to a safe area

d)

Start CPR

22.

When should you call emergency medical services (EMS) immediately before providing any care?

a)

For a conscious adult

b)

For an unconscious adult

c)

For a child with a minor injury

d)

For a victim with a small cut

23.

Fill in the blank: Never move an injured victim unless the victim is in a dangerous area such as an area filled with ________ or smoke, flood waters, or carbon monoxide or poisonous fumes.

a)

fire

b)

sand

c)

water

d)

dust

24.

Which of the following information should you provide to EMS when calling for help?

a)

Only your name

b)

Actions taken, exact location, telephone number from which you are calling, assistance required, number of people involved, and condition of the victim(s)

c)

Just the location

d)

Only the condition of the victim

25.

If the victim is unconscious, confused, or seriously ill and unable to consent to care, and no other relative is available to give permission, you can assume that you have permission to provide care.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Fill in the blank: If no one arrives to call EMS, continue providing care by giving five cycles of CPR (approximately ______ minutes).

a)

2

b)

5

c)

10

d)

1

27.

Which of the following is NOT a situation where you should call EMS immediately before providing any care?

a)

An unconscious adult

b)

An unconscious child who has reached puberty

c)

A conscious adult with a minor cut

d)

Any victim for whom you witness a sudden cardiac arrest

28.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a life-threatening emergency that must be treated first according to triage principles?

a)

A) No breathing or difficulty in breathing

b)

B) Persistent pain in the chest or abdomen

c)

C) Minor cuts and scrapes

d)

D) Severe bleeding

29.

Fill in the blank: Triage is a method of prioritizing _______.

a)

treatment

b)

transportation

c)

diagnosis

d)

documentation

30.

Which of the following should you do when examining a victim according to first aid procedures?

a)

A) Ask the victim about pain or discomfort

b)

B) Ignore abnormal signs or symptoms

c)

C) Avoid checking vital signs

d)

D) Skip checking the pupils of the eyes

31.

When providing first aid, you should avoid giving an unconscious or vomiting victim anything to eat or drink.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Fill in the blank: When providing first aid, it is important to protect the victim from cold or ________, but avoid overheating the victim.

a)

chilling

b)

burning

c)

sweating

d)

drowning

33.

Which of the following is a general principle of care when first aid is necessary?

a)

Obtain qualified assistance as soon as possible

b)

Move the victim unnecessarily

c)

Discuss the victim's condition with all observers

d)

Provide treatment you are not qualified to provide

34.

Fill in the blank: The information provided in the section on CPR is not CPR for health care providers according to American Heart Association standards. The information provided is not intended to take the place of an approved _______ course.

a)

certification

b)

training

c)

lecture

d)

seminar

35.

It is essential to maintain confidentiality and protect the victim's right to privacy while providing treatment.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Which of the following should be reported to emergency medical services when they arrive at the scene?

a)

A) Abnormalities noted during examination

b)

B) Only the victim's name

c)

C) Only the time of the accident

d)

D) None of the above

37.

What does CPR stand for?

a)

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

b)

Central Pulse Recovery

c)

Critical Pressure Response

d)

Cardiac Pulmonary Reaction

38.

What is the main purpose of administering CPR?

a)

To keep oxygenated blood flowing to the brain and other vital body organs until the heart and lungs start working again, or until medical help is available.

b)

To increase the patient's heart rate rapidly.

c)

To cure all types of injuries instantly.

d)

To prevent the patient from feeling any pain.

39.

Clinical death occurs when the heart stops beating and the victim stops breathing. Biological death refers to the death of the body cells.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the CABD sequence used in CPR?

a)

Circulation

b)

Airway

c)

Breathing

d)

Digestion

41.

C stands for ________ in the CABD sequence of CPR.

a)

circulation

b)

compression

c)

consciousness

d)

cardiac

42.

A stands for ________ in the CABD sequence of CPR.

a)

airway

b)

breathing

c)

circulation

d)

defibrillation

43.

B stands for ________ in the CABD sequence of CPR.

a)

breathing

b)

bleeding

c)

bones

d)

balance

44.

D stands for ________ in the CABD sequence of CPR.

a)

defibrillation

b)

decompression

c)

diagnosis

d)

dilation

45.

Figure 17-3 shows the method used to open the victim's airway. What is this method called?

a)

head-tilt/chin-lift method

b)

jaw-thrust maneuver

c)

mouth-to-mouth method

d)

bag-valve-mask technique

46.

What is the purpose of using a CPR barrier mask while giving respirations?

a)

To prevent transmission of disease while giving respirations.

b)

To increase the oxygen concentration in the air delivered.

c)

To make the process faster and easier.

d)

To reduce the need for chest compressions.

47.

When cardiac arrest occurs, what device can be used to analyze the electrical rhythm of the heart and apply a shock to try to restore the normal heart rhythm?

a)

Automated External Defibrillator (AED)

b)

Pacemaker

c)

Oxygen mask

d)

CPR barrier mask

48.

The pediatric dose for AED is recommended for any child from 1-8 years of age.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Which of the following should be assessed first before starting CPR?

a)

A) Responsiveness and breathing

b)

B) Heart rate

c)

C) Blood pressure

d)

D) Temperature

50.

List one situation when you should call for help and start CPR if you are alone.

a)

An unconscious infant or child from 1 year of age to puberty.

b)

A conscious adult with a minor injury.

c)

A person who is coughing and talking.

d)

A person who is breathing normally but feeling dizzy.

51.

CPR should be used until an AED is available.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

In a two-person adult rescue, what is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio when performing CPR?

a)

30:2

b)

15:2

c)

20:2

d)

10:2

53.

When performing chest compressions on an adult during CPR, the sternum should be compressed at least 2 inches (5.0 cm) but not more than 2.4 inches (6 cm).

a)

True

b)

False

54.

For infants, which pulse site is used to check for a pulse during CPR?

a)

Brachial pulse site in the arm

b)

Carotid pulse site in the neck

c)

Radial pulse site in the wrist

d)

Femoral pulse site in the groin

55.

When giving compressions to an infant, the sternum should be compressed to what depth?

a)

About 1.5 inches or 4 centimeters, at least half the depth of the chest.

b)

About 0.5 inches or 1 centimeter, just a slight press.

c)

About 3 inches or 8 centimeters, almost the full depth of the chest.

d)

About 2 inches or 5 centimeters, more than half the depth of the chest.

56.

What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for two rescuers performing CPR on an infant?

a)

15:2

b)

30:2

c)

20:2

d)

10:2

57.

For children, the initial steps of CPR are the same as for adults, except that the head is not tilted as far back when the airway is opened.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

What is the most effective method of expelling an object from the airway if the victim is conscious and able to cough?

a)

Abdominal thrusts

b)

Coughing

c)

Back blows

d)

Chest compressions

59.

If a choking victim is conscious but not able to talk, make noise, breathe, or cough, what immediate action must be taken?

a)

Abdominal thrusts must be given to provide a force of air to push the object out of the airway.

b)

Give the victim water to drink to help clear the airway.

c)

Lay the victim down and wait for them to recover.

d)

Pat the victim gently on the back and encourage them to cough.

60.

When should chest compressions be started for a choking victim?

a)

If the victim is conscious

b)

If the victim is unconscious and has an obstructed airway

c)

If the victim is able to cough

d)

If the victim is talking

61.

A finger sweep of the mouth is performed only if the object can be seen in the mouth.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

If the victim is pregnant or obese, what type of thrusts should be performed?

a)

Chest thrusts

b)

Abdominal thrusts

c)

Back thrusts

d)

Head thrusts

63.

Once CPR is started, it must be continued unless one of the following situations occurs. Which of the following is NOT a reason to discontinue CPR?

a)

The victim recovers and starts to breathe

b)

The rescuer is so physically exhausted, CPR can no longer be continued

c)

The scene suddenly becomes unsafe

d)

The victim is still unconscious after 2 minutes

64.

What is the sequence of steps used to remove an obstruction for an infant (birth to 1 year old)?

a)

Five back blows, five chest thrusts, a check of the mouth, a finger sweep if the object is seen, and an attempt to ventilate.

b)

Five abdominal thrusts, five chest compressions, a check of the mouth, and an attempt to ventilate.

c)

Five chest thrusts, five abdominal thrusts, a check of the mouth, and a finger sweep regardless of visibility.

d)

Five back blows, five abdominal thrusts, a check of the mouth, and immediate CPR.

65.

According to PROCEDURE 17-2A: Performing CPR—One-Person Adult Rescue, what equipment and supplies are needed to practice this procedure?

a)

CPR manikin, barrier device, alcohol or disinfecting solution, gauze sponges

b)

AED, oxygen tank, gloves

c)

Bandages, splint, ice pack

d)

Stethoscope, thermometer, blood pressure cuff

66.

Safety Caution: Only a CPR training manikin should be used to practice this procedure.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

If the victim does not respond, what should you do next?

a)

Activate EMS immediately. Follow the 'call first, call fast' priority. Get an AED if available.

b)

Check for minor injuries and wait for the victim to wake up.

c)

Give the victim water and monitor for 10 minutes.

d)

Move the victim to a comfortable position and observe.

68.

When palpating the carotid pulse, how long should you take to feel for the pulse?

a)

At least 2 seconds but not more than 5 seconds

b)

At least 5 seconds but not more than 10 seconds

c)

At least 10 seconds but not more than 20 seconds

d)

At least 1 second but not more than 3 seconds

69.

If the victim has a pulse but is not breathing, what should you do according to the procedure?

a)

Provide chest compressions

b)

Provide rescue breaths every 5–6 seconds

c)

Wait for EMS to arrive

d)

Give water to the victim

70.

If the victim does not have a pulse, or you are not sure if they have a pulse, what is the next step according to the procedure?

a)

Administer chest compressions.

b)

Check for breathing again.

c)

Call for help and wait.

d)

Give the victim water.

71.

Which of the above are valid reasons to stop CPR?

a)

You are so physically exhausted, you cannot continue

b)

The victim recovers

c)

The scene suddenly becomes unsafe

d)

A physician or other legally qualified person orders you to discontinue the attempt

e)

Qualified medical help arrives to take over and give CPR and/or apply an AED

72.

What is the recommended percentage of alcohol solution for cleaning the manikin?

a)

70-percent alcohol solution.

b)

30-percent alcohol solution.

c)

50-percent alcohol solution.

d)

90-percent alcohol solution.

73.

CAUTION: Only a CPR training manikin should be used to practice this procedure. Never practice CPR on another person.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Equipment and Supplies for Performing CPR—Two-Person Adult Rescue include: Which of the following is NOT listed as equipment or supplies for this procedure?

a)

CPR manikin

b)

Barrier device

c)

Alcohol or disinfecting solution

d)

Gauze sponges

75.

After ___ minutes of CPR, most AEDs will prompt you to reanalyze the rhythm.

a)

2 minutes

b)

1 minute

c)

3 minutes

d)

5 minutes

76.

According to Procedure 17:2B, what should you do first when checking for consciousness and breathing?

a)

Start CPR immediately

b)

Gently shake the victim and ask, 'Are you OK?'

c)

Call emergency services

d)

Give two breaths

77.

If the victim is unconscious and not breathing normally, what is the first action the rescuer should take according to Procedure 17:2B?

a)

The first rescuer starts CPR.

b)

Check for a pulse.

c)

Call for help and wait for instructions.

d)

Place the victim in the recovery position.

78.

How long should you feel for the carotid pulse according to Procedure 17:2B?

a)

At least 5 seconds and not more than 10 seconds

b)

At least 10 seconds and not more than 20 seconds

c)

At least 2 seconds and not more than 5 seconds

d)

At least 1 minute

79.

According to Procedure 17:2B, when the victim is not breathing, how many compressions should be given for every 2 breaths in a one-person rescue?

a)

30 compressions for every 2 breaths.

b)

15 compressions for every 2 breaths.

c)

20 compressions for every 2 breaths.

d)

10 compressions for every 2 breaths.

80.

According to Procedure 17:2B, a CPR pocket face mask with a one-way valve should be used to provide a barrier and prevent the transmission of disease.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

According to Procedure 17:2B, after every five cycles of CPR (approximately 2 minutes), what should the rescuers do?

a)

The rescuers should change positions.

b)

The rescuers should stop CPR and check for a pulse.

c)

The rescuers should administer medication.

d)

The rescuers should call for additional help.

82.

If an AED is available, what should one rescuer do while the other is giving cycles of CPR according to Procedure 17:2B?

a)

One rescuer should set up the AED while the other rescuer is giving cycles of CPR.

b)

Both rescuers should stop CPR and wait for medical professionals to arrive.

c)

One rescuer should leave to call for help while the other continues CPR.

d)

Both rescuers should alternate giving CPR every 30 seconds.

83.

According to Procedure 17:2B, when should CPR be discontinued?

a)

CPR should be discontinued when qualified medical help arrives, the victim recovers, a physician or other legally qualified person orders CPR discontinued, the scene suddenly becomes unsafe, or a legally valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order is presented.

b)

CPR should be discontinued only after 30 minutes regardless of the situation.

c)

CPR should be discontinued when the victim's family requests it, even if the victim has not recovered.

d)

CPR should be discontinued immediately if the rescuer feels tired.

84.

After the practice session, what solution can be used to clean the manikin's face and mouth area?

a)

70-percent alcohol

b)

10-percent bleach disinfecting solution

c)

Both A and B

d)

Water

85.

A 10-percent bleach solution is more effective than alcohol for disinfecting manikins.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

What should be done if the mouthpiece of the manikin is discarded after use? Fill in the blank: The remainder of the face should still be ________.

a)

disinfected

b)

washed with water only

c)

left untouched

d)

covered with a cloth

87.

What is the final step after completing the disinfection procedure for the manikin?

a)

Replace all equipment used. Wash hands.

b)

Store the manikin in a sealed container.

c)

Apply moisturizer to the manikin's surface.

d)

Leave the manikin exposed to air for 24 hours.

88.

CPR should be practiced on a human infant during training.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

For CPR techniques, infants are usually considered to be under ______ year old.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

90.

If the infant is unconscious and not breathing, what should you do after calling for help?

a)

Wait for EMS

b)

Begin CPR

c)

Give water

d)

Shake the infant

91.

If the infant is known to have a high risk for heart problems or a sudden collapse was witnessed, what should be activated before beginning CPR?

a)

EMS (Emergency Medical Services)

b)

Fire Department

c)

Poison Control Center

d)

Animal Control

92.

When checking the pulse on an infant, where should you place your fingertips?

a)

On the inside of the upper arm and halfway between the elbow and shoulder.

b)

On the side of the neck, just below the jawline.

c)

On the wrist, below the thumb.

d)

On the back of the knee.

93.

If a pulse is present but the infant is not breathing, how often should you provide ventilations?

a)

Every 3 seconds (approximately 20 breaths per minute)

b)

Every 5 seconds (approximately 12 breaths per minute)

c)

Every 10 seconds (approximately 6 breaths per minute)

d)

Every 1 second (approximately 60 breaths per minute)

94.

If no pulse is present or the heart rate is below 60 beats per minute with signs of poor circulation, what should be administered?

a)

Cardiac compressions

b)

Oxygen therapy

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Intravenous fluids

95.

How deep should compressions be given on an infant's chest during CPR?

a)

At least 1½ inches (4 cm)

b)

At least 3 inches (8 cm)

c)

At least ½ inch (1 cm)

d)

At least 2½ inches (6 cm)

96.

Tipping the infant's head too far will cause an obstruction of the infant's airway.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

According to Procedure 17:2C, if there is no breathing, how many breaths should you give to an infant, and how long should each breath last?

a)

Give 2 breaths, each breath lasting approximately 1 second.

b)

Give 1 breath, each breath lasting approximately 2 seconds.

c)

Give 3 breaths, each breath lasting approximately 1 second.

d)

Give 2 breaths, each breath lasting approximately 3 seconds.

98.

What should you use to provide a barrier and prevent the transmission of disease when giving breaths to an infant during CPR?

a)

A CPR pocket face mask with a one-way valve.

b)

A cloth handkerchief.

c)

Your bare hands.

d)

A regular surgical mask.

99.

After 2 breaths are given to an infant during CPR, what is the next step?

a)

Administer 30 chest compressions.

b)

Check for a pulse.

c)

Call emergency services.

d)

Remove any airway obstruction.

100.

To establish the correct rate for chest compressions during infant CPR, what should you count out loud?

a)

One, two, three, four, five . . . .

b)

A, B, C, D, E . . . .

c)

Ten, twenty, thirty, forty, fifty . . . .

d)

Red, blue, green, yellow, orange . . . .