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Glaucoma Worksheet Questions (Grade 13)

Total questions: 20

Worksheet time: 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 70-year-old lady comes to emergency at midnight for the complaint of painful, blurred and red right eye for three hours.
The provisional diagnosis is

a)

Primary open-angle glaucoma

b)

Primary angle-closure glaucoma

c)

Normal-tension glaucoma

d)

Secondary glaucoma

2.

What is the most common risk factor for developing primary open-angle glaucoma?

a)

Increased intraocular pressure

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Hyperopia

d)

Age under 30 years

3.

Which structure is primarily affected by increased intraocular pressure in glaucoma?

a)

Retina

b)

Optic nerve head (optic disc)

c)

Cornea

d)

Lens

4.

What is the hallmark optic nerve finding in glaucoma?

a)

Optic disc swelling

b)

Optic disc hemorrhage

c)

Increased cup-to-disc ratio

d)

Retinal detachment

5.

Which of the following medications is a first-line topical treatment for lowering intraocular pressure in glaucoma?

a)

Topical corticosteroids

b)

Prostaglandin analogues

c)

Beta-blockers

d)

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

6.

Which glaucoma type often presents with normal intraocular pressure but progressive optic nerve damage?

a)

Primary open-angle glaucoma

b)

Normal-tension glaucoma

c)

Secondary glaucoma from uveitis

d)

Congenital glaucoma

7.

In primary angle-closure glaucoma, what is the underlying pathophysiology?

a)

Trabecular meshwork blockage by pigment

b)

Narrow or closed anterior chamber angle preventing aqueous outflow

c)

Optic nerve ischemia

d)

Increased aqueous humor production

8.

What is the primary diagnostic test for assessing glaucomatous optic nerve damage?

a)

Visual field testing (perimetry)

b)

Optical coherence tomography (OCT) of the retina

c)

Fundus photography

d)

Fluorescein angiography

9.

Which systemic medication can increase intraocular pressure and risk for glaucoma exacerbation?

a)

Beta-blockers

b)

Oral corticosteroids

c)

ACE inhibitors

d)

Calcium channel blockers

10.

What visual field defect is classically seen in early glaucoma?

a)

Central scotoma

b)

Bitemporal hemianopia

c)

Paracentral scotoma

d)

Homonymous hemianopia

11.

What anatomical feature distinguishes congenital glaucoma?

a)

Increased corneal diameter (buphthalmos)

b)

Normal intraocular pressure at birth

c)

Presence of iris neovascularization

d)

Posterior synechiae

12.

The best medication for acute attack of angle closure glaucoma is

a)

Betablocker

b)

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

c)

Prostagladin analogues

d)

Alpha 2 agonist

13.

A patient complains with visual field defect in upper and nasal quadrant of the right eye (displayed).
Which part of retina is damaged for her right eye?

a)

Macular

b)

Upper temporal

c)

Lower temporal

d)

Lower temporal

14.

Which of the following features is NOT typical in normal-tension glaucoma?

a)

Optic nerve cupping similar to open-angle glaucoma

b)

Normal range intraocular pressure

c)

Rapid progression despite treatment

d)

Increased susceptibility to vascular dysregulation

15.

What is the main goal of glaucoma treatment?

a)

Reduce optic nerve inflammation

b)

Stabilize blood glucose levels

c)

Lower intraocular pressure to prevent optic nerve damage

d)

Increase retinal perfusion pressure

16.

Which test can directly measure the intraocular pressure?

a)

Tonometry

b)

Perimetry

c)

Slit lamp examination

d)

Fundoscopy

17.

Which part of the eye produces aqueous humor that contributes to intraocular pressure?

a)

Ciliary body

b)

Cornea

c)

Iris

d)

Retina

18.

What characteristic finding may develop in the cornea of an eye with chronic glaucoma?

a)

Corneal edema and striae

b)

Keratic precipitates

c)

Neovascularization of the cornea

d)

Corneal pannus

19.

Which condition can cause secondary angle closure glaucoma?

a)

Diabetic retinopathy

b)

Uveitis

c)

Age-related macular degeneration

d)

Cataract

20.

Which diagnostic imaging modality is most useful to evaluate the anterior chamber angle in glaucoma?

a)

biomicroscopy

b)

MRI orbit

c)

Fundus fluorescein angiography

d)

CT orbit