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BIOL 1014 FINAL EXAM

Total questions: 185

Worksheet time: 2hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

the positive subatomic particle is the

a)

quark

b)

proton

c)

positron

d)

neutron

2.

which event occurs during interphase

a)

protein synthesis is halted

b)

the cell doubles it cytoplasmic contents

c)

the nucleus divides

d)

the nuclear envelope disassembles

3.


An oncogene is a _____

a)

mutated gene that results in tumor growth

b)

normal gene that promotes mitosis

c)

gene that codes for a growth factor that stimulates cell division

d)

mutated gene that results in cell cycle arrest

4.


According to cell theory, ____

a)

all cells are approximately the same size

b)

proteins are the genetic material of cells

c)

all organisms are multicellular

d)

all cells come from preexisting cells

5.

The spindle apparatus appears during _____

a)

metaphase

b)

interphase

c)

telophase

d)

prophase

6.

The spread of cancer cells from one site to others in the body is known as _____

a)

mutational slippage

b)

cleavage

c)

benign transfer

d)

metastasis

7.

Nuclear envelopes reform during _____

a)

telophase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

interphase

8.

Chromosomes are aligned at the middle of the cell during _____

a)

prophase

b)

telophase

c)

interphase

d)

metaphase

9.


____ are long whip like cellular structures that act like propellers to move a cell through fluid environments

a)

microvilli

b)

cilia

c)

microfilaments

d)

flagella

10.

The nucleus of an atom contains ____.

a)

protons and electrons

b)

electrons only

c)

neutrons only

d)

protons and neutrons

11.

One of the generalizations of cell theory is that ____

a)

all cells divide by meiosis

b)

cells arise through spontaneous generation

c)

all cells have a nucleus

d)

all living organisms are made up of cells

12.


During S phase, _____.

a)

DNA is replicated

b)

chromosomes condense

c)

the cell produces proteins in a preparation for mitosis

d)

the cytoplasm begins to divide

13.


Ribosomes are ____

a)

membrane-enclosed organelles

b)

involved in protein synthesis

c)

involved in the transport of molecules

d)

required for DNA synthesis

14.

Which is not a feasible measure to protect oneself from carcinogens?

a)

awareness of surrounding industry

b)

filtration mechanisms

c)

absolute avoidance

d)

consumption moderation

15.

Which of the following treatment methods are not currently being utilized in cancer treatment?

a)

surgery

b)

chemotherapy

c)

immunotherapy

d)

radiation

16.

Chromosomes are unduplicated during which phase of cell cycle?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

prophase

d)

metaphase

17.


Which cell feature is absent in bacterial cells?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

nucleus

c)

DNA

d)

ribosomes

18.


Immortal cell lineages _____

a)

have limited research applications

b)

are derived from normal body cells

c)

are unable to grow outside the body

d)

are derived from cancerous cells

19.

Which of the following risk factors for cancer are beyond an individuals control?

a)

exposure to known carcinogenic chemicals

b)

diet

c)

exposure to uv radiation

d)

exposure to air pollution

20.

The neutral subatomic particle is the ____.

a)

neutron

b)

electron

c)

proton

d)

quark

21.

Abnormal cell division that does not pose a threat to surrounding tissues is termed _____.

a)

benign

b)

metastatic

c)

carcinogenic

d)

malignant

22.


Which cellular feature is found in all cell types?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

nucleus

c)

mitochondria

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

23.

Nucleotides are monomers of ____.

a)

nucleic acids

b)

cellulose

c)

complex lipids

d)

polysaccharides

24.


Which cellular component is considered an organelle?

a)

cell wall

b)

ribosome

c)

plasma membrane

d)

DNA

25.

Cell shape is reinforced by ____

a)

cytoskeletal filaments

b)

ribosomes

c)

transport proteins

d)

DNA

26.

Which bond is weakest?

a)

non polar covalent

b)

double covalent

c)

polar covalent

d)

hydrogen

27.

In what phase of the cell cycle does a typical cell spend most of its life?

a)

telophase

b)

interphase

c)

prophase

d)

anaphase

28.

Which of the following occurs in prophase?

a)

DNA replicates

b)

chromosomes align in the middle of the cell

c)

sister chromatids separate

d)

the spindle apparatus begins to form

29.

An example of a biofilm is ____

a)

oral bacteria living on teeth

b)

elongated pili

c)

a bacterial capsule

d)

an oil slick

30.

A uniform mixture is called a ____

a)

solvent

b)

solute

c)

solution

d)

salt

31.


Tumor suppressor genes _____.

a)

will turn into cancer genes

b)

are cancer genes that back mutate into normal genes

c)

promote mitosis

d)

inhibit mitosis

32.

The negative subatomic particle is the ____

a)

proton

b)

quark

c)

neutron

d)

electron

33.

A parent cell with 12 chromosomes will produce daughter cells with _____ chromosomes by mitosis

a)

6

b)

12

c)

24

d)

3

34.

The bond in table salt (Na+Cl-) is ____

a)

ionic

b)

nonpolar

c)

polar

d)

covalent

35.

Eukaryotic cells have their DNA enclosed in the _____.

a)

nucleoid

b)

nucleus

c)

plasma membrane

d)

nuclear envelope

36.

The organelle that acts like UPS by pinching off portions of its membrane to form a vesicle used for storage or transport is the ____.

a)

chloroplast

b)

mitochondrion

c)

nucleus

d)

Golgi body

37.


Which phases comprise interphase?

a)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase

b)

G1, S, & G2

c)

G1 & S

d)

G1 & G2

38.

The main enzyme produced in the saliva acts on ____

a)

fats

b)

nucleic acids

c)

proteins

d)

carbohydrates

39.

Substances that enter a reaction are termed ____

a)

enzymes

b)

products

c)

reactants

d)

energy carriers

40.


Glycogen is a polysaccharide used for energy storage by ____

a)

plants

b)

archaea

c)

animals

d)

bacteria

41.


During inhalation, the diaphragm moves _____ and the intercostal muscles move the rib cage _____.

a)

downward; outward

b)

downward; downward

c)

outward; outward

d)

outward; downward

42.


Fermentation reactions occur in the ____

a)

thylakoid membrane

b)

chloroplast outer membrane

c)

cytoplasm

d)

mitochondria

43.

Glycolysis converts glucose into ____.

a)

pyruvates

b)

pigments

c)

heat energy

d)

electrons and protons

44.


ATP contains ____.

a)

alanine

b)

phosphate

c)

tyrosine

d)

glucose

45.

The energy in chemical bonds is what type of energy?

a)

kinetic

b)

nuclear

c)

potential

d)

thermal

46.

Which organic molecule is a carbohydrate monomer?

a)

fatty acid

b)

monosaccharide

c)

triglyceride

d)

nucleotide

47.

Which food product would likely contain the largest amount of unsaturated fat?

a)

cream

b)

lard

c)

olives

d)

cheese

48.


The sodium–potassium pump is an example of ____.

a)

active transport

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

bulk flow

d)

osmosis

49.

A(n) ____ is a protein monomer

a)

monosaccharide

b)

nucleotide

c)

simple sugar

d)

amino acid

50.

Anemia is an oxygen depletion that could be to which of the following?

a)

a form of leukemia

b)

too few or abnormal red blood cells

c)

too many or abnormal white blood cells

d)

too few or abnormal white blood cells

51.

Wilting of a plant (shriveling of the cells) occurs ____.

a)

if the plant is placed in an isotonic solution

b)

if there is a rise in turgor pressure

c)

if the plant is placed in a hypertonic solution

d)

if the plant is placed in a hypotonic solution

52.


A typical fat molecule has ____ fatty acid tails.

a)

five

b)

four

c)

three

d)

one

53.

In alcoholic fermentation, the final product is ____.

a)

lactate

b)

ethanol

c)

acetaldehyde

d)

pyruvate

54.


ATP is formed when ____ the inner mitochondrial membrane.

a)

hydrogen ions leave

b)

electrons enter

c)

hydrogen ions enter

d)

water is split into

55.

The ____ contain(s) oxygen-poor blood

a)

pulmonary veins

b)

pulmonary arteries

c)

aorta

d)

left ventricle

56.


The longest segment of the gut is the____.

a)

cecum

b)

colon

c)

small intestine

d)

esophagus

57.

Nucleotides are monomers of ____

a)

polysaccharides

b)

proteins

c)

complex lipids

d)

nucleic acids

58.

Energy is defined as ____

a)

capacity to store sugar

b)

movement of electrons

c)

the movement of atoms and molecules

d)

the capacity to do work

59.

Over working the heart by having too much blood volume, making it more difficult to push blood forward in the system is which of the following conditions?

a)

atherosclerosis

b)

hypertension

c)

anemia

d)

asthma

60.


The minimum amount of energy needed to get a chemical reaction started is called the ____ energy.

a)

activation

b)

chemical

c)

enzymatic

d)

reaction

61.

Breathing is under _____ control.

a)

voluntary

b)

voluntary and involuntary

c)

oxygen-mediated

d)

involuntary

62.

The second law of thermodynamics states that ____.

a)

energy transformation create a more orderly universe

b)

when energy is transferred from one source to another a small amount of energy is released into the surroundings as heat

c)

the energy of the universe is a constant

d)

energy can be neither created or destroyed

63.

ADH____

a)

increases water reabsorption

b)

increases secretion of digestive enzymes

c)

increases glucose reabsorption

d)

decreases amino acid reabsorption

64.


The driving force for blood circulation is ____.

a)

opening of the AV valves

b)

contraction of the atria

c)

contraction of the ventricles

d)

closing of the aortic valve

65.

Our primary source of energy is obtained from ____

a)

fatty acids

b)

carbohydrates

c)

protein

d)

triglycerides

66.


An individual who does not produce bile has the most trouble digesting ____.

a)

fats

b)

essential vitamins

c)

nucleic acids

d)

carbohydrates

67.

Most enzymes are composed of ____.

a)

RNA only

b)

substrate only

c)

protein only

d)

RNA and protein

68.

Blood pumped from the left ventricle goes to ____

a)

arteries that feed the body

b)

pulmonary artery

c)

right ventricle

d)

left atrium

69.

Blood pressure is lowest when ventricles are _____; this is known as _____.

a)

fully relaxed; diastolic pressure

b)

contracting; diastolic pressure

c)

fully relaxed; systolic pressure

d)

contracting; systolic pressure

70.


If you were to consume too much vitamin C, _____.

a)

you would metabolize it for energy

b)

it would be stored in your adipose tissue

c)

it will become toxic

d)

you would eliminate it in your urine

71.


Cellular respiration that requires oxygen is called ____.

a)

aerobic respiration

b)

mitochondrial respiration

c)

electron respiration

d)

anaerobic respiration

72.

The primary role of bile salts during digestion is ____.

a)

to drive the enzymatic digestion of fats

b)

to kill bacteria that may have been consumed

c)

to drive the enzymatic digestion of proteins

d)

to coat fat droplets and separate them into droplets

73.

Osmosis is an example of ____.

a)

endocytosis

b)

exocytosis

c)

active transport

d)

passive transport

74.

The three main categories of energy-producing foods are ____.

a)

fats, carbohydrates, and proteins

b)

fats, vitamins, and proteins

c)

carbohydrates, vitamins, and proteins

d)

fats, carbohydrates, and vitamins

75.

Which structure is responsible for keeping the fetus from slipping out of the uterus prematurely?

a)

cervix

b)

placenta

c)

endometrium

d)

vagina

76.

DNA molecules contain protein-coding sequences called _____

a)

nucleotides

b)

genotypes

c)

genomes

d)

genes

77.

An allele is ____ if its effect masks that of a ____ allele paired with it

a)

incompletely recessive; dominant

b)

dominant; recessive

c)

codominant; recessive

d)

recessive; dominant

78.

An autosomal recessive disorder ____.

a)

requires the both parents are carriers

b)

displays its symptoms in heterozygotes

c)

requires that only one parent be a carrier

d)

is more frequent in males than females

79.

Frameshift mutations may involve _____

a)

the insertion or deletion of base pairs

b)

mutations in the promoter

c)

the substitution of codons

d)

the substitution of nucleotides

80.

When two alleles of the same gene are different, the individual carrying those alleles is said to be ____

a)

phenotypic

b)

homozygous

c)

somatic

d)

heterozygous

81.


Mammals nourish their embryos by means of a(n) ____

a)

amnion

b)

placenta

c)

blastocyst

d)

yolk sac

82.

During a human pregnancy, implantation occurs at which stage?

a)

fertilization

b)

zygote

c)

blastocyst

d)

fetus

83.


The organ at letter _____is the male counterpart to the female ovary.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

84.


The organ at letter ____ is a structure that contributes fluid to the semen mixture during ejaculation

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

85.


Sperm are stored to allow for maturation in the structure at letter ____

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

86.

The vas deferens are represented by letter ____.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

87.

Which base pairs with adenine in a DNA molecule?

a)

thymine

b)

cytosine

c)

uracil

d)

adenosine

88.

Meiosis in a diploid organism typically produces _____

a)

four diploid cells

b)

four haploid cells

c)

one triploid cell

d)

two haploid cells

89.

Which extraembryonic tissue burrows into, and thus attaches to, maternal tissues?

a)

the blastocyst protein coat

b)

the amnion

c)

the chorion

d)

the yolk sac

90.


In codominance, ____

a)

the intermediate phenotype may be the result of enzyme insufficiency

b)

two alleles may be equally expressed

c)

the heterozygous phenotype is intermediate to the homozygous phenotypes

d)

one allele is dominant to another allele

91.

An individual’s ____ determines its observable ____

a)

genotype; phenotype

b)

heterozygote; homozygote

c)

gene location; allele

d)

homozygote; heterozygote

92.

How many nucleotides comprise one codon?

a)

16

b)

2

c)

6

d)

3

93.

When two alleles of the same gene are identical, the individual carrying those alleles is said to be ____

a)

homozygous

b)

genotypical

c)

recessive

d)

heterozygous

94.

Meiosis is the basis for _____.

a)

sexual and asexual reproduction

b)

distribution of cytoplasm

c)

cellular division

d)

sexual reproduction

95.


In the human males, sperm are produced in the ____

a)

prostate

b)

bulbourethral glands

c)

seminiferous tubules

d)

epididymis

96.

Different expression options for the same gene are called ____

a)

genotypes

b)

somatic

c)

recessive

d)

alleles

97.


The first cell of a new individual is the ____

a)

blastula

b)

zygote

c)

gamete

d)

gastrula

98.

What is the function of the prostate secretions?

a)

to stimulate the release of LH

b)

to provide sperm with energy

c)

sperm maturation

d)

to protect sperm from vaginal acidity

99.

____ conveys sperm outside of the body.

a)

ejaculatory duct

b)

vas deferens

c)

urethra

d)

epididymis

100.


In which organ does the embryo develop?

a)

vagina

b)

uterus

c)

ovary

d)

oviduct

101.

The organ at letter ____ is lined with endometrium

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

102.


The organ that produces eggs and sex hormones is at letter ____.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

103.

Which letter indicates the oviduct?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

104.


Which letter indicates female erectile tissue that contains a large nerve bundle?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

105.


Fertilization in humans occurs in the ____

a)

uterus

b)

vagina

c)

oviduct

d)

follicle

106.


If tall (D) is dominant to dwarf (d), and two homozygous varieties DD and dd are crossed, the progeny produced will be____

a)

all tall

b)

all dwarf

c)

all intermediate forms

d)

1/2 tall and 1/2 dwarf

107.


In humans, skin color is controlled by several genes. Thus, skin color is a(n) ____ characteristic.

a)

codominant

b)

dominant

c)

recessive

d)

polygenic

108.

Human females form their eggs during which part of their lifecycle?

a)

shortly after birth

b)

before birth

c)

at fertilization

d)

at puberty

109.

Which membrane is referenced in the expression my water broke?

a)

placenta

b)

chorion

c)

amnion

d)

yolk sac

110.


Menstrual flow results in the discharge of ____

a)

blood from the blood vessels on the outer surface of the uterus

b)

the corpus luteum

c)

the endometrial lining of the uterus

d)

the follicle

111.

In a Punnett square, the letters on top of the square and on the side of the square represent ____

a)

parental phenotypes

b)

parental gametes

c)

offsprings genotypes

d)

offspring phenotypes

112.

Which immune cells provide "memory" that can be used as defense for many years?

a)

natural killer cells

b)

macrophages

c)

t-cells

d)

b-cells

113.

Passive immunization ____.

a)

results in memory cell formation

b)

is an innate immune response

c)

involves receiving antibodies from a non-self source

d)

involves exposure to antigens

114.


The process of speciation always includes ____ isolation.

a)

behavioral

b)

geographic

c)

reproductive

d)

ecological

115.

Natural killer cells, or cytotoxic T cells, are capable of ____.

a)

killing bacteria in the interstitial fluid

b)

shutting down adaptive immune responses

c)

destroying infected body cells

d)

stimulating T cell memory

116.

Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune condition?

a)

anaphylactic shock

b)

type 1 diabetes

c)

multiple sclerosis

d)

rheumatoid arthritis

117.


____ is the study of body plans and structures across different organisms.

a)

evolution

b)

biogeography

c)

comparative genetics

d)

comparative morphology

118.


In ____ immunity, the response is immediate, nonspecific, and preprogramed in every individual

a)

cell-mediated

b)

antibody-mediated

c)

innate

d)

adaptive

119.

Which type of organisms contain pathogens that have eukaryotic cells and are all aquatic?

a)

bacteria

b)

protists

c)

fungi

d)

archaea

120.

The adaptive immunity response is based on what?

a)

fever mechanisms

b)

nonspecificity

c)

self-recognition

d)

reliance on surface barriers

121.

What is the best definition of a population?

a)

a group of interbreeding individuals from different geographical regions

b)

a collection of different species living in the same area at the same time

c)

a group of individuals of two different species that interact with each other

d)

a group of interbreeding individuals of the same species in a given area

122.

Occurs when two separate populations can no longer successfully interbreed

a)

reproductive isolation

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

directional selection

d)

founder effect

123.

The changes in peppered moths in London during the industrial revolution are an example of what?

a)

reproductive isolation

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

directional selection

d)

founder effect

124.

When a new population is developed from a few individuals that carry allele frequencies that differ from the original population

a)

reproductive isolation

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

directional selection

d)

founder effect

125.


Occurs when the heterozygous, or intermediate, phenotypes are favored over the extremes.

a)

reproductive isolation

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

directional selection

d)

founder effect

126.

____ selection occurs when individuals choose mates with a particular desirable trait

a)

sexual

b)

asexual

c)

artificial

d)

stabilizing

127.


All of the alleles in a population make up the ____

a)

species abundance

b)

genome

c)

gene pool

d)

species diversity

128.


Individuals with adaptive traits tend to survive longer and produce more offspring, leading to ___ of the species

a)

artificial selection

b)

extinction

c)

evolution

d)

a decrease in fitness

129.


Breast feeding a newborn baby is important because it gives the baby what?

a)

passive immunity

b)

vaccination

c)

active immunity

d)

herd immunity

130.


The ability of the adaptive immune response to tailor its response to a particular antigen is referred to as ____.

a)

specificity

b)

memory

c)

inflammation

d)

diversity

131.


What is the original source of new alleles?

a)

independent assortment

b)

mutation

c)

crossing over

d)

fertilization

132.

The goal of immunization is to ____

a)

enable infected individuals to recover from specific diseases

b)

expose individuals to a disease so they can "schedule" sick time

c)

induce herd immunity to disease without risk of actual infection

d)

limit the amount of time a person is ill with a disease

133.

Biogeography is the study of the ____

a)

patterns in the geographical distribution of species

b)

distribution of landmasses

c)

patterns of species dispersal

d)

patterns of population demographics

134.


Autoimmune disorders are caused by ____

a)

impaired innate immunity function

b)

inability to activate T cells

c)

the inability to make antibodies

d)

immune cells that target self-cells

135.

The similar body shape and color of dolphins and sharks is an example of ____

a)

variations in alleles

b)

morphological convergence

c)

morphological divergence

d)

homologous structures

136.

A ____ mutation changes the DNA sequence but has no impact on the fitness of the individual.

a)

lethal

b)

neutral

c)

fitness increasing

d)

beneficial

137.

Vaccinations were originally designed to help us develop adaptive immunity to which type of pathogen?

a)

viral

b)

bacterial

c)

archaea

d)

protozoan

138.

Which viral pathogen results in immunodeficiency in humans?

a)

HIV

b)

chicken pox

c)

herpes

d)

ebola

139.


Hind leg bones in whales are an example of ____ structures.

a)

analogous

b)

vestigial

c)

adaptive

d)

homologous

140.

Process of evolution where allele frequencies shift in a population over short periods of time.

a)

microevolution

b)

marcoevolution

c)

artificial selection

d)

natural selection

e)

sexual selection

141.

Process of evolution driven by reproductive competition.

a)

microevolution

b)

marcoevolution

c)

artificial selection

d)

natural selection

e)

sexual selection

142.

Process of evolution where the inheritance of "fit" traits is driven by environmental pressure and survival.

a)

microevolution

b)

marcoevolution

c)

artificial selection

d)

natural selection

e)

sexual selection

143.

Process of evolution where humans choose certain organisms for breeding to drive the expression of desirable traits in the offspring

a)

microevolution

b)

marcoevolution

c)

artificial selection

d)

natural selection

e)

sexual selection

144.


Process of evolution where mutation accumulation results in the creation of a new species.

a)

microevolution

b)

marcoevolution

c)

artificial selection

d)

natural selection

e)

sexual selection

145.


____ is the degree of adaptation to a specific environment.

a)

adaptation

b)

fertility

c)

natural selection

d)

fitness

146.


Active immunization ____

a)

results in memory cell formation

b)

utilizes the inflammation response

c)

is given only to children

d)

involves receiving antibodies from another individual

147.

The normal flora that inhabit our body surfaces ____

a)

produce vitamin C

b)

competitively exclude more harmful species

c)

become even more beneficial if they invade tissues

d)

are harmful

148.

Innate immunity begins with the first line of defense that involves which of the following?

a)

vaccines

b)

cell-mediated response

c)

mechanical and chemical barriers

d)

inflammatory response

149.


Due to biological magnification, which would have the highest concentration of a plastic?

a)

grass - the dominant primary producer

b)

hawk - predators of mice

c)

mice - predators of butterflies

d)

grasshoppers - an herbivore

150.


Desertification is mainly caused by ____

a)

deforestation

b)

erosion

c)

poor agricultural practices

d)

lack of rain

151.


What happens to air as it is warmed?

a)

it rises

b)

it sinks

c)

it moves along a pressure gradient

d)

it moves toward higher latitudes

152.

A(n) ____ species resides where it evolved and is found nowhere else on Earth

a)

endangered

b)

persistent

c)

endemic

d)

native

153.


Which is a density-independent factor?

a)

parasitism

b)

earthquakes

c)

predation

d)

disease

154.

Consumers that digests the remains of various organisms down into inorganic building blocks.

a)

decomposer

b)

herbivore

c)

carnivore

d)

detritivore

155.


Consumers that feed on small bits of broken up organic material

a)

decomposer

b)

herbivore

c)

carnivore

d)

detritivore

156.


Consumers that mainly eats producers.

a)

decomposer

b)

herbivore

c)

carnivore

d)

detritivore

157.


Consumers that mainly eats the flesh of other animals.

a)

decomposer

b)

herbivore

c)

carnivore

d)

detritivore

158.


Which country has the biggest ecological footprint?

a)

united states

b)

canada

c)

china

d)

france

159.

From this age structure diagram for India, it is likely that India’s population will ____

a)

have a larger proportion of older individuals

b)

remain stable

c)

increase

d)

crash

160.

An interaction that benefits both species is ____

a)

mutualism

b)

parasitism

c)

a neutral relationship

d)

commensalism

161.


If the death rate of a population exceeds the birth rate of a population, ____

a)

an exponential growth curve will result

b)

the growth rate will remain static

c)

the environment will become overexploited

d)

the population will decrease in size

162.


Photosynthesis converts the energy of light into ____.

a)

chemical bond energy

b)

pigments

c)

heat energy

d)

electrons and protons

163.


The warming action on Earth’s atmosphere is referred to as ____

a)

the smog problem

b)

ozone depletion

c)

the blanket phenomenon

d)

the greenhouse effect

164.

Which is an example of a detritivore?

a)

fungi

b)

plants

c)

bacteria

d)

earthworm

165.


In the simplified prairie food chain illustrated by the following pictures, the letter C represents a ____.

a)

third trophic level

b)

secondary consumer

c)

tertiary consumer

d)

first trophic level

166.

What characterizes a biome?

a)

its plant life and mountain ranges

b)

its temperature and main type of vegetation

c)

its climate and main type of vegetation

d)

its humidity and temperature

167.

The maximum number of individuals of a species that a given environment can sustain indefinitely defines ____.

a)

exponential growth

b)

the carrying capacity of the environment

c)

density-independent factors

d)

density-dependent factors

168.

A population that is growing exponentially in the absence of limiting factors can be illustrated by which shaped curve?

a)

o-shaped

b)

skewed

c)

s-shaped

d)

j-shaped

169.

An epidemic facilitated by a high, dense population is an example of a(n) ____ factor

a)

logistic

b)

density-dependent

c)

biotic

d)

density-independent

170.

A(n) ____ is an observed consequence of global climate change.

a)

increase in earthquakes

b)

decrease in the ozone layer

c)

rise in sea level

d)

acid rain

171.

A community refers to ____.

a)

the interaction between species and their environment

b)

the interaction between populations and their environment

c)

the nonliving components of an area

d)

all species that live and interact in a specific area

172.

Energy flows in one direction in an ecosystem slowly depleting; Nutrients ____ through an ecosystem.

a)

are constantly created

b)

are always recycled

c)

are destroyed when an organism dies

d)

create the energy flow

173.


The greatest concentration of nitrogen on Earth is found in ____.

a)

fossil fuels

b)

the atmosphere

c)

rocks and sediments

d)

living organisms

174.

Acid rain is the result of ____

a)

the greenhouse effect

b)

desertification

c)

deforestation

d)

the burning of fossil fuels

175.


An example of a one-way relationship in which one species benefits and another is directly hurt is ____

a)

mutualism

b)

scramble competition

c)

interspecific competition

d)

parasitism

176.


In contrast to predation, a parasite usually ____.

a)

does not kill its host

b)

its larger than its host

c)

always kills its host

d)

is a short-term visitor

177.


Has a disproportionate effect on the biodiversity of an ecosystem.

a)

endemic species

b)

exotic species

c)

keystone species

d)

indicator species

178.


Evolved in one place and is found nowhere else in the world.

a)

endemic species

b)

exotic species

c)

keystone species

d)

indicator species

179.


Introduced to a new habitat and became established there with time

a)

endemic species

b)

exotic species

c)

keystone species

d)

indicator species

180.

Are particularly sensitive to environmental changes and will thereby flag when shifts occur.

a)

endemic species

b)

exotic species

c)

keystone species

d)

indicator species

181.


A group of organisms of the same species that live in a specific location is called a(n) ____.

a)

community

b)

biome

c)

species

d)

population

182.

In a natural community, the primary consumers are ____.

a)

carnivores

b)

herbivores

c)

detritivores

d)

producers

183.

What is the main function of the ozone layer?

a)

to provide cloud cover for protection of polar regions

b)

to block most of the sun's damaging rays from reaching Earth

c)

to provide a source of oxygen for photosynthesis

d)

to trap a carbon dioxide and warm the planet

184.

Ultimately, what is the greatest threat to biodiversity?

a)

plant pathogens

b)

mineral and energy use

c)

unthinking humans

d)

conservation efforts

185.

The number of individuals of the same species in some specified area or volume of habitat is the ____.

a)

population birth rate

b)

population growth

c)

carrying capacity

d)

population density

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