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Module Content Overview: Purpose, Aim & Skills

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the module content overview, which concept is presented as a way to segment the supplier base and categorize items by supply risk and profit impact?

a)

The Pareto principle (80:20)

b)

The Kraljic matrix

c)

Traditional purchasing procedures

d)

Account management cycle

2.

A buyer wants to determine what kinds of supply relationships and sourcing approaches to develop. Which concept from the overview directly guides this positioning decision?

a)

Supply positioning

b)

Supplier performance adjustments

c)

Strategic items negotiation

d)

Category implementation

3.

Which statement best differentiates account management from category management as described in the overview?

a)

Account management focuses on short-term transactions, while category management builds long-term client relationships.

b)

Account management seeks long-term client relationships and ensures procurement demands are met; category management follows an 8-step cycle to define, assess, strategize, implement, and review categories.

c)

Account management is primarily about cost reduction through the 80:20 rule, while category management exclusively manages supplier accounts.

d)

Account management devises tactics and implementation plans, while category management is limited to supplier performance monitoring.

4.

Which sequence correctly reflects the category management 8-step cycle outlined in the module?

a)

Define the category; Assess performance; Set objectives; Devise overall strategy; Devise specific tactics; Implementation; Review; Define supplier roles

b)

Define the category; Define the category role within the retailer; Assess current performance; Set objectives and targets; Devise an overall strategy; Devise specific tactics; Implementation; Review (back to step 1)

c)

Assess current performance; Define the category; Define category role; Devise overall strategy; Set objectives and targets; Implementation; Devise specific tactics; Review

d)

Define supplier roles; Define the category; Assess performance; Implementation; Devise overall strategy; Set targets; Devise tactics; Review

5.

According to the module’s assessment details, which statement best defines Guided Learning Hours (GLH)?

a)

Time allocated for independent reading and practice outside scheduled sessions

b)

Hours spent in scheduled, tutor-led activities within the module

c)

Total time including assessment marking and administrative tasks

d)

Optional enrichment hours that do not count toward module completion

6.

The module specifies a Self-Study Requirement (SSR). Given the assessment format and pass mark are fixed for the module, which planning choice most appropriately applies the SSR concept to support meeting the pass threshold?

a)

Rely solely on guided sessions and ignore independent tasks to avoid conflicting advice

b)

Distribute independent study evenly across the module weeks to reinforce concepts assessed

c)

Schedule all self-study in the final week to focus only on revision

d)

Replace self-study with peer discussion so no individual practice is needed

7.

The module has a defined assessment format and a specific pass mark. Which option reflects a sound strategy to prepare for this assessment using the provided learning time structure?

a)

Focus exclusively on case studies and skip exercises since GLH covers all needed practice

b)

Balance attendance in GLH activities with consistent SSR that targets assessed criteria

c)

Use SSR to explore unrelated topics, trusting the pass mark will adjust to effort

d)

Depend on short case studies alone because the format favors minimal preparation

8.

According to the module overview, which statement best describes the purpose of category management within an organisation?

a)

It segments the main areas of organisational spend to manage them strategically

b)

It replaces procurement strategy with supplier-driven contracting

c)

It focuses exclusively on low-value, transactional purchasing

d)

It eliminates the need for flexibility in the supply base

9.

Which step is NOT part of AT Kearney’s seven-step strategic sourcing model (2001) as outlined: Profile the category; Select sourcing strategy; Generate supplier profile; Select implementation path; Negotiate and select suppliers; Integrate suppliers; Benchmarking and tracking results?

a)

Generate supplier profile

b)

Integrate suppliers

c)

Benchmarking and tracking results

d)

Develop category strategy

10.

The IBM Institute for Business Value approach lists seven steps. Which step focuses on assessing spending patterns to inform sourcing decisions?

a)

Conduct market analysis

b)

Conduct spend analysis

c)

Manage supplier performance

d)

Select suppliers and negotiate

11.

Within the IACCM model’s sourcing continuum, which grouping includes Preferred provider and Performance-based/managed services?

a)

Transactional models

b)

Relational models

c)

Investment models

d)

Outcome-based models

12.

Which activity is identified first in the CIPS Procurement and Supply Model’s procurement cycle?

a)

Develop a strategy/plan

b)

Market/commodity and options assessment (including make-or-buy)

c)

Understand the need and develop a high-level specification

d)

Pre-procurement/market test and market engagement

13.

According to the risk protocol outlined, which sequence correctly orders the core steps?

a)

Identify → Assess → Implement → Control → Monitor

b)

Identify → Control → Assess → Implement → Monitor

c)

Identify → Assess → Control → Implement → Monitor

d)

Assess → Identify → Control → Implement → Monitor

14.

Which activity immediately follows the issue of an invitation to tender/request for quotation (ITT/RFQ) within the procurement cycle listed?

a)

Supplier relationship management and development

b)

Bid/tender evaluation and validation

c)

Warehouse logistics and receipt

d)

Contract performance review and continuous improvement

15.

Within the CIPS category management process described as a four-phase process with six key activity steps, which pair of consecutive steps focuses on scoping opportunities before strategy preparation?

a)

Step 1 Kick off; Step 3 Prepare and present the category strategy

b)

Step 2A Identifying opportunities; Step 2B Prioritising opportunities

c)

Step 4 Implement category strategy/change recommendations; Step 5 Maintain

d)

Step 5 Maintain; Step 6 Improve and enhance

16.

Which of the following is listed as an 'Other consideration in the procurement cycle' alongside stakeholder engagement and sustainability?

a)

Warehouse logistics and receipt

b)

eCommerce/systems

c)

Contract award and implementation

d)

Asset management/end of life and lessons learned

17.

Which example falls under 'Outsourcing category management' as provided in the material?

a)

Supplier audit services

b)

Facilities management

c)

Raw material sourcing

d)

Capital equipment procurement

18.

Which trend is identified as influencing outsourcing in category management?

a)

Decentralisation of procurement teams

b)

Increasing role of technology

c)

Reduction in supplier collaboration

d)

Elimination of risk assessment protocols

19.

In analyzing models, which comparison dimension is explicitly used to contrast category management with strategic sourcing?

a)

Budget size

b)

Objective, frequency, approach, and results

c)

Geographic location of suppliers

d)

Legal compliance requirements

20.

Which statement best reflects the expected session outcome regarding models and frameworks?

a)

Students will memorize supplier names used in case studies.

b)

Students will understand different models for strategic procurement, strategic sourcing, and category management and how these apply within their organization and business environment.

c)

Students will design a new procurement system without reference to existing models.

d)

Students will only study the seven-step process and ignore category management.

21.

Which statement best captures the blend of skills required for successful procurement category management?

a)

Primarily technical expertise with minimal behavioural attributes

b)

A mix of technical/functional expertise and behavioural attributes

c)

Mostly behavioural attributes since technical work is outsourced

d)

Exclusive reliance on negotiation skills within a single function

22.

In implementing a new category management process, what specific focus is highlighted to make the most of the opportunity?

a)

Automating purchase orders and invoices

b)

Stakeholder communication and change management

c)

Benchmarking only within domestic markets

d)

Reducing the number of suppliers to a single source

23.

Which situation calls for additional respect for language challenges and cross‑cultural issues in category management?

a)

Local category structures within one region

b)

Global category structures spanning multiple regions

c)

Single‑supplier arrangements in small firms

d)

Short‑term transactional sourcing

24.

Some organisations refer to category groups, including sub‑categories. What alternative terminology do others use for sub‑categories?

a)

Commodities

b)

Bundles

c)

Portfolios

d)

Segments

25.

Which technical competency is explicitly listed as required for effective category management?

a)

Understanding the category

b)

Mastery of sales forecasting models only

c)

Exclusive focus on supplier audits

d)

Delegating all analysis to external consultants

26.

Strategic thinking and creative problem solving in category management includes which element?

a)

A narrow view confined to departmental priorities

b)

A clear understanding of the strategic and integrated vision of the overall business

c)

Avoidance of conflicting priorities by postponing decisions

d)

Limiting curiosity to internal operations

27.

Which set belongs under analytical skills in category management technical skills?

a)

Supply chain analysis, financial management and cost analysis, total cost of ownership (TCO)

b)

Brand management, advertising spend, social media analytics

c)

Human resource planning, payroll processing, talent acquisition

d)

Software coding, network security, data warehousing

28.

Which action is listed as a way to identify and limit possible risk and damage in category management?

a)

Increasing dependence on one supplier to over 50% of external spend

b)

Avoiding news about key suppliers to reduce bias

c)

Setting up alerts about news on key suppliers

d)

Eliminating contingency plans to streamline operations

29.

Which action is emphasized as part of stakeholder management guidance in category management?

a)

Rely solely on email updates to avoid face-to-face interactions

b)

Align procurement activity to business objectives using stakeholder terminology

c)

Limit early engagement to prevent bias in project outcomes

d)

Avoid profiling stakeholders to reduce complexity

30.

High-performing cross-functional teams in procurement are characterized by which combination?

a)

Clearly articulated purpose and endorsement of company leadership

b)

Informal roles and minimal executive visibility

c)

Ad hoc objectives and strong external partnerships

d)

Independent decision-making without leadership input

31.

According to the leadership and skills development notes, what is a key step for managing team capability in category management?

a)

Outsource all complex sourcing decisions to external consultants

b)

Identify and address any skills gap within the team using the 70-20-10 model

c)

Focus exclusively on technical skills and defer soft-skill training

d)

Delay training until after major sourcing events to conserve budget

32.

Which responsibility best defines the category manager role in category management?

a)

Setting tactical purchase orders for individual items

b)

Defining a strategy for the category supported by commercial acumen, data analysis, and communication

c)

Authorizing supplier invoices and processing payments

d)

Maintaining inventory counts in the warehouse

33.

According to the session guidance, which skill is explicitly listed as part of effective category strategy execution?

a)

Advanced coding proficiency

b)

Robust data analysis to inform decisions

c)

Direct sales to end customers

d)

Regulatory auditing of suppliers

34.

In public sector category management, what distinguishes job outlines compared to the private sector?

a)

They focus exclusively on cost-down and cost-out

b)

They are less structured and more informal

c)

The guidelines and regulations are often more onerous

d)

They exclude cross-functional teamwork requirements

35.

Students are expected to leave the session understanding why technical and behavioural skills matter in category management. Which outcome aligns with this expectation?

a)

Memorizing supplier names only

b)

Explaining how skills requirements may differ between public and private sectors

c)

Ignoring sector differences to standardize processes

d)

Focusing solely on price acceptance

36.

Which statement reflects the significance of external third‑party supplier expenditure for organisations?

a)

It is typically negligible and not worth analyzing

b)

It is usually one of the biggest costs irrespective of sector

c)

It only matters in manufacturing industries

d)

It is mainly a concern for public sector bodies

37.

Which benefit is explicitly associated with deploying category management?

a)

Prevents changes in technology from impacting supply

b)

Links customer requirements with supply market capabilities

c)

Eliminates the need for business requirements definition

d)

Removes the need for trust across the value chain

38.

Approaches to reducing costs and increasing value include tactical price management and strategic price management. Which pairing correctly matches elements to each?

a)

Tactical: cost-down, cost-out; Strategic: price acceptance, price management

b)

Tactical: price acceptance, price management; Strategic: cost-down, cost-out

c)

Tactical: supplier trust-building, co-working; Strategic: communications across the value chain

d)

Tactical: technology anticipation; Strategic: risk reduction

39.

Which statement best describes how category management supports supply capability over time?

a)

It develops the right supply capability both for today and tomorrow

b)

It prioritizes only the most obvious supply option

c)

It focuses solely on reducing risk without planning

d)

It limits communications to procurement teams only

40.

Within the CIPS approach to category grouping, which group is typically prioritized for management focus due to its impact and value?

a)

Group 1 (price acceptance)

b)

Group 2 (price management)

c)

Group 3 (cost-down)

d)

Group 4 (cost-out)

41.

Direct costs in procurement and supply are best characterized as which of the following?

a)

Expenses that are difficult to assign to a cost object

b)

Costs directly incurred in manufacturing a product or delivering a service

c)

General overheads associated with running a business

d)

Marketing and supervision expenditures

42.

Which list contains examples that most closely represent direct costs in manufacturing?

a)

Advertising, computing, and security

b)

Raw materials, components, and sub-assemblies

c)

Professional services, insurance, and auxiliary activities

d)

Information and communication services

43.

In the SIC system referenced, which industry group is identified as a secondary activity?

a)

Extractive industries (e.g., mining)

b)

Manufacturing

c)

Services

d)

Agriculture

44.

Bills of Materials (BoM) in category management are described as which of the following?

a)

A high-level list of supplier contracts by category

b)

A complete list of all items needed to assemble a manufactured product

c)

An inventory of indirect expense types for overhead allocation

d)

A coding system used to classify industries

45.

Which set correctly pairs retail SIC sub-divisions cited in the material?

a)

Food stores; apparel and accessories; automobile sales and gasoline service stations

b)

Forestry; fishing, hunting and trapping; agricultural services

c)

Insurance; re-insurance and pension funding; auxiliary activities

d)

Information and communication; administrative and support service activities

46.

Indirect costs, as discussed, are typically associated with which characteristics?

a)

Easily attributed to products produced

b)

Directly incurred in the delivery of a service

c)

Difficult to assign to a specific cost object and linked to overheads

d)

Comprised mainly of raw materials and packaging

47.

Which option best distinguishes direct expenditure from indirect expenditure in the provided framework?

a)

Direct expenditure refers to items supplied by a third party that directly relate to production; indirect expenditure encompasses costs like advertising and supervision not tied to a specific product

b)

Direct expenditure covers overheads and business running costs; indirect expenditure covers raw materials and sub-assemblies

c)

Direct expenditure includes services market segments; indirect expenditure includes SIC manufacturing sub-divisions

d)

Direct expenditure is limited to capital spend; indirect expenditure is limited to maintenance

48.

Recall the rule commonly associated with Pareto analysis that describes the relationship between inputs and outputs in business decisions. Which statement best captures this rule?

a)

20% of inputs are responsible for 80% of the output

b)

50% of inputs determine 50% of the output

c)

10% of inputs are responsible for 90% of the output

d)

80% of inputs guarantee 100% of the output

49.

Which item is listed as an advantage of using Pareto analysis in category management?

a)

Provides complete insight into root causes

b)

Organisational efficiency

c)

Eliminates the need for multiple analyses

d)

Replaces quantitative data with qualitative insights

50.

A category manager is asked to apply Pareto analysis to expenditures. Which initial action aligns with the described application steps?

a)

Negotiate long-term contracts with all suppliers equally

b)

Identify those categories on which most money is spent

c)

Eliminate low-spend categories from the portfolio

d)

Switch entirely to qualitative data for supplier evaluation

51.

Using the Karljic matrix together with Pareto of spend can help identify generic sourcing strategies for different categories of expenditure. Which outcome is specifically noted as useful in the material?

a)

Determining the exact supplier lead times for each SKU

b)

Identifying the profit impact of those categories

c)

Computing the total landed cost including tariffs

d)

Benchmarking service-level agreements across all suppliers

52.

Which statement best describes the purpose of using contextual case studies in this session?

a)

To replace theoretical models with unrelated anecdotes

b)

To enable application of ideas to regions and industries of practical interest and cement concepts through practice

c)

To limit discussion to the organisation’s internal processes only

d)

To avoid using assessment criteria when evaluating learning

53.

In category management, what should students understand about different types of expenditure by the end of the session?

a)

Only how direct costs are recorded in financial statements

b)

How different direct and indirect costs can be attributed across industries and how SIC codes and Pareto analysis might be used

c)

That indirect costs are always negligible compared to direct costs

d)

That expenditure types are identical across all sectors with no need for analysis

54.

Which activity is suggested to highlight key learning aligned with assessment outcomes for the module?

a)

Student exercises

b)

Supplier audits

c)

Executive briefings

d)

Market roadshows

55.

What is the main objective stated under the assessment criteria for Session 5?

a)

Memorise procurement laws from all regions

b)

Understand the concepts, tools and techniques associated with managing expenditure and compare tools to map direct and indirect categories

c)

Design a new global standard for procurement

d)

Eliminate indirect expenditure from the budget

56.

Which statement accurately reflects the role of portfolio tools and cost models in analysing expenditure categories?

a)

They prevent suppliers from competing by fixing prices

b)

They help develop understanding of market structure and supplier competition to target best return for time and effort in category management

c)

They only apply to indirect expenditure and exclude direct spend

d)

They mainly serve to compile historical invoices without analysis

57.

Which characteristic is typical of matrices used to categorise and analyse expenditure?

a)

Matrices are narrative reports with no rows or columns

b)

They are rectangular displays with rows and columns based on meaningful attributes that draw insights from data

c)

They require at least five columns and forty rows to be valid

d)

They can only be used for marketing categories, not procurement

58.

According to the supply positioning matrix (Kraljic, 1983), which combination correctly pairs supply risk and profit impact for strategic items?

a)

Low supply risk, low profit impact

b)

High supply risk, low profit impact

c)

Low supply risk, high profit impact

d)

High supply risk, high profit impact

59.

Which item type in the Kraljic supply positioning matrix is best described as having low supply risk and high profit impact?

a)

Bottleneck items

b)

Strategic items

c)

Non-critical items

d)

Leverage items

60.

Recall: In the strategic positioning matrix discussed in Session 3, which trio of proposed courses of action is identified for category strategies?

a)

Exploit, Diversify, Balance

b)

Standardize, Outsource, Integrate

c)

Reduce, Reuse, Recycle

d)

Collaborate, Compete, Consolidate

61.

Application: A procurement team wants to assess a category’s competitive pressure and ease of substitution to refine their supply positioning. Which tool from Session 3 should they apply first?

a)

Porter’s Five Forces within the refined supply positioning matrix

b)

A generic market share analysis

c)

A supplier satisfaction survey

d)

A total cost of ownership spreadsheet

62.

Strategic thinking: A category manager is mapping the supply chain to improve resilience. According to Session 3, which step best demonstrates Stage 1 (Supply Chain Visibility) practices?

a)

Documenting all suppliers and third parties involved and compiling data on objectives, resources, and handling issues

b)

Auditing social, labour, and working conditions to ensure adherence to regulations

c)

Negotiating long-term contracts to lock in pricing stability

d)

Benchmarking purchasing cost management tools against industry peers

63.

Which statement best defines expenditure analysis within category management processes?

a)

A review of supplier branding to improve market visibility

b)

A structured evaluation of spending patterns to inform sourcing and cost control

c)

A legal audit focused on contract enforceability only

d)

A technical inspection of product specifications without financial context

64.

In procurement, which cost is most likely classified as a direct cost for a manufacturing firm?

a)

Corporate HR salaries supporting multiple plants

b)

Raw materials consumed in production

c)

Annual auditing fees for the parent company

d)

Enterprise-wide software licenses

65.

Which system is commonly referenced for industry classifications when conducting expenditure analysis?

a)

ISO Quality Management System

b)

SIC (Standard Industrial Classification)

c)

GAAP (Generally Accepted Accounting Principles)

d)

ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library)

66.

Which item is a typical example of manufacturing direct costs across industries?

a)

Factory electricity specifically metered to a production line

b)

Corporate governance committee stipends

c)

Marketing campaign development costs

d)

General office rent for headquarters

67.

When segmenting spend by industry categories, which approach aligns with the SIC framework?

a)

Grouping by supplier reputation scores

b)

Mapping suppliers to standardized industry codes for analysis

c)

Classifying by internal budget owner preferences

d)

Sorting by contract expiration dates

68.

Which scenario illustrates effective use of expenditure analysis to manage direct costs?

a)

Tracking only purchase order counts without values

b)

Aggregating raw material spend by SIC-coded supplier groups to identify volume leverage

c)

Excluding transactions from small suppliers to reduce data size

d)

Relying on last year’s prices without benchmarking

69.

In cross-industry direct cost assessment, which factor is most relevant to compare across categories?

a)

Public relations sentiment scores

b)

Unit cost drivers tied to materials, labor, and production processes

c)

Executive travel frequency

d)

Board meeting cadence

70.

Which statement best captures the relationship between industry classification (e.g., SIC) and expenditure analysis for direct costs?

a)

Industry codes are used solely for tax reporting and have no role in spend analysis

b)

Industry classification enables structured grouping of suppliers and commodities to benchmark direct cost drivers

c)

SIC codes replace the need for detailed line-item spend data

d)

Classification systems focus only on services, not manufacturing

71.

Which statement best defines indirect costs in an organisation’s expenditure profile?

a)

Costs directly traceable to a specific product unit, such as raw materials

b)

Overheads and support expenses that are not directly attributable to a single product or service

c)

Capital investments recorded against a single project asset

d)

Variable production costs that change with output volume only

72.

In procurement, which item is most commonly classified as an overhead within indirect costs?

a)

Direct labour used on an assembly line

b)

Specialist components embedded in the product

c)

Facilities maintenance and utilities supporting multiple departments

d)

Per-unit packaging specific to the product

73.

Pareto analysis is often described using the 80:20 rule. What does this imply for spend analysis?

a)

Eighty percent of suppliers account for twenty percent of total defects

b)

Eighty percent of total spend is typically concentrated in about twenty percent of categories or suppliers

c)

Twenty percent of categories have eighty percent of the lowest prices

d)

Eighty percent of contracts are renewed every twenty months

74.

Which is a primary advantage of applying Pareto analysis to indirect expenditures?

a)

It eliminates the need for any supplier performance measurement

b)

It pinpoints the few categories or suppliers that drive most spend, enabling targeted cost-reduction efforts

c)

It guarantees price reductions across all categories

d)

It replaces the need for detailed contract reviews

75.

Which is a realistic limitation of Pareto analysis in procurement spend reviews?

a)

It cannot rank items by spend value at all

b)

It may overlook lower-spend areas that still carry high strategic risk or service criticality

c)

It always misclassifies direct costs as indirect

d)

It cannot be applied to supplier performance data

76.

When seeking cost reduction opportunities within indirect costs, which initial action aligns with a skill/concept application of Pareto analysis?

a)

Randomly selecting suppliers for renegotiation

b)

Grouping spend data by supplier or category and ranking items from highest to lowest spend to identify the vital few

c)

Cutting all overhead budgets by a flat percentage without analysis

d)

Focusing only on direct materials spend

77.

A procurement team observes that 18% of suppliers account for 82% of total indirect spend. How should this be interpreted using Pareto thinking?

a)

The pattern broadly supports an 80:20 distribution, suggesting a focus on that 18% for strategic initiatives

b)

The distribution disproves Pareto and therefore analysis should be abandoned

c)

Indirect spend is evenly distributed across all suppliers

d)

Only direct cost categories should be analysed further

78.

Which action best balances Pareto-driven focus with risk awareness when managing key suppliers in indirect spend?

a)

Concentrate only on high-spend suppliers and ignore low-spend contracts

b)

Apply targeted strategies to high-spend suppliers while separately assessing low-spend but high-risk or critical services

c)

Replace Pareto analysis with random sampling approaches

d)

Exclude service contracts from analysis because they are indirect

79.

Which data source classifies and organises transactions using cost codes and is linked to a chart of accounts?

a)

Line item detail

b)

Ledger code

c)

Keyword tagging

d)

Supplier catalogue entries

80.

Spend analysis typically follows four steps. Which sequence reflects the correct order described: Identify purpose, extract data, cleanse data, then analyse?

a)

Analyse, extract, cleanse, identify

b)

Identify, cleanse, extract, analyse

c)

Identify, extract, cleanse, analyse

d)

Extract, identify, analyse, cleanse

81.

In category management forecasting, which set lists the three types of forecasting that require data?

a)

Demand, supply, price

b)

Quality, delivery, risk

c)

Category, supplier, market

d)

Objective code, subjective code, line item detail

82.

Which statement best explains why understanding demand is important when mapping procurement categories?

a)

It ensures suppliers offer lower prices regardless of market conditions

b)

It helps secure continuity of supply by anticipating volumes over time

c)

It eliminates the need for contracts with existing suppliers

d)

It replaces the need for forecasts in production and sales

83.

In the context of future demand patterns for category groups, which option is NOT listed among the four common patterns?

a)

Growth

b)

Decline

c)

Volatile

d)

Stable

84.

A contract register primarily supports category management by providing which benefit?

a)

A decentralized archive that reduces visibility of supplier agreements

b)

A central repository to store contract data and identify end dates

c)

A tool that replaces KPIs with qualitative narratives

d)

An informal log kept outside e-sourcing IT systems

85.

Which activity is central to contract compliance when reviewing current supplier terms?

a)

Eliminating contracts that exceed budget

b)

Ensuring contracts are applied across the organisation and measuring contract leakage

c)

Allowing departments to bypass approved suppliers

d)

Deferring compliance checks until contract expiry

86.

What does measuring contract leakage aim to identify during the lifetime of a contract?

a)

The benefits achieved that exceed pre-award expectations

b)

The gap between pre-award identified benefits and actual benefits achieved, including reasons and detection methods

c)

Only the reasons for supplier price increases

d)

Unrelated market fluctuations

87.

When reviewing existing relationships and performance, why are scorecards used?

a)

They provide a single KPI to simplify reporting

b)

They include a range of KPIs and require diverse data sources to measure performance

c)

They focus exclusively on supplier pricing data

d)

They replace all qualitative assessments with automated analytics

88.

Which outcome can identifying market trends lead to when mapping categories?

a)

Reduced risk, increased cost savings, and context for supplier positioning

b)

Higher risk and lower savings due to rapid change

c)

Mandatory use of STEEPLED analysis for every category

d)

Elimination of data on past market behaviour

89.

According to the material, which pair correctly matches market phase with descriptor?

a)

Growth trend – bear market; Market in decline – bull market

b)

Growth trend – bull market; Market in decline – bear market

c)

Growth trend – neutral market; Market in decline – volatile market

d)

Growth trend – inflationary market; Market in decline – deflationary market

90.

Which element is NOT typically included in a STEEPLED analysis when scanning the external environment of a market?

a)

Political factors influencing regulation

b)

Technological trends affecting innovation

c)

Internal leadership styles within the firm

d)

Economic indicators such as inflation and GDP

91.

In Porter’s Five Forces model, which force primarily assesses the risk that customers may switch to alternative solutions that satisfy the same need?

a)

Threat of substitutes

b)

Bargaining power of suppliers

c)

Rivalry among existing competitors

d)

Threat of new entrants

92.

A product with high relative market share in a high-growth market is categorized as which quadrant in the BCG matrix?

a)

Dog

b)

Question Mark

c)

Cash Cow

d)

Star

93.

Which pairing correctly matches a SWOT element with an example of what it typically contains during strategic positioning?

a)

Strengths — external economic trends

b)

Weaknesses — internal capability gaps

c)

Opportunities — internal process improvements only

d)

Threats — advantages over rivals

94.

When using historical and forecasted data in category management, which task is most directly supported according to the session goals?

a)

Setting executive compensation schemes

b)

Identifying demand patterns to plan sourcing

c)

Designing brand logos for new products

d)

Determining factory floor layout

95.

Which Five Forces condition would most likely increase supplier power in a market assessment?

a)

Many alternative input sources with low switching costs

b)

High product differentiation among inputs and few qualified suppliers

c)

Strong buyer concentration relative to suppliers

d)

Low barriers to entry for new suppliers

96.

In the BCG matrix, what is the typical strategic implication for a Cash Cow category?

a)

Invest heavily to gain share because growth is high

b)

Harvest profits to fund other categories due to low growth but strong share

c)

Divest immediately because share and growth are both low

d)

Pursue niche differentiation since market growth is volatile

97.

Which statement best distinguishes SWOT analysis from STEEPLED in strategic positioning?

a)

SWOT focuses only on macro-environmental forces, whereas STEEPLED maps internal resources

b)

SWOT integrates internal and external factors into strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats, whereas STEEPLED systematically scans external dimensions like social, economic, and legal

c)

SWOT quantifies market share growth, whereas STEEPLED classifies portfolio units

d)

SWOT is a competitive force model, whereas STEEPLED is a pricing elasticity tool