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Heart and Circulation REVIEW

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best explains why the muscle wall of the left ventricle is about twice as thick as the wall of the right ventricle?

a)

It pumps blood a short distance to the lungs only.

b)

It must generate higher pressure to send blood through the systemic circulation.

c)

It receives oxygenated blood directly from the lungs.

d)

It has more valves than the right ventricle.

2.

Pulmonary circulation is defined in this unit as which pathway?

a)

Blood from the heart to the lungs to be oxygenated and back to the heart.

b)

Blood from the heart muscle to the coronary sinus and into the vena cava.

c)

Blood from the aorta to all body tissues and back via veins.

d)

Blood from the right atrium to the left ventricle through the mitral valve.

3.

Which circulation specifically supplies nutrients and oxygen to the heart muscle itself?

a)

Pulmonary circulation

b)

Systemic circulation

c)

Cardiac circulation

d)

Portal circulation

4.

According to the text, blood from cardiac veins gathers in the coronary sinus and then empties where?

a)

Into the superior vena cava

b)

Directly through separate openings in the right atrium

c)

Into the left atrium via the pulmonary veins

d)

Into the inferior vena cava

5.

Systemic circulation in this unit refers to blood leaving the heart through which vessel to supply the body?

a)

Pulmonary artery

b)

Coronary artery

c)

Aorta

d)

Superior vena cava

6.

Which pair correctly matches a heart valve with its position between chambers?

a)

Tricuspid valve between left atrium and left ventricle

b)

Mitral (bicuspid) valve between right atrium and right ventricle

c)

Tricuspid valve between right atrium and right ventricle

d)

Pulmonary valve between left atrium and left ventricle

7.

Heart valves have small flaps commonly called what?

a)

Cusps

b)

Papillae

c)

Chordae

d)

Septae

8.

Which valves are located between the atria and the ventricles and are held in place by cord-like tissues called chordae tendineae?

a)

Aortic and pulmonary valves

b)

Tricuspid and mitral valves

c)

Mitral and aortic valves

d)

Pulmonary and tricuspid valves

9.

What is another commonly used name for the mitral valve mentioned in the material?

a)

Tricuspid valve

b)

Bicuspid valve

c)

Semilunar valve

d)

Coronary valve

10.

According to the summary, what is the heart’s basic task?

a)

To filter blood plasma

b)

To pump blood to the lungs and then to the rest of the body

c)

To store oxygen for later use

d)

To control nerve impulses to muscles

11.

Blood returning from the body’s systemic circulation enters which heart chamber before passing through the tricuspid valve?

a)

Left atrium

b)

Right atrium

c)

Left ventricle

d)

Right ventricle

12.

After passing through the tricuspid valve from the right atrium, blood moves into which structure and then heads to the lungs to be oxygenated?

a)

Left ventricle and aorta

b)

Right ventricle and pulmonary artery

c)

Left atrium and pulmonary vein

d)

Right ventricle and coronary sinus

13.

Where is the coronary artery located relative to the aortic valve, and why is it described as the freshest blood?

a)

Behind the mitral valve; it has just been filtered by the kidneys

b)

At the location of the aortic valve; it is the first blood vessel that comes off the aorta

c)

Within the pulmonary trunk; it just left the lungs

d)

Inside the right atrium; it mixes with venous blood

14.

Which statement about the aortic and pulmonary valves’ cusps aligns with the material?

a)

They usually have one cusp each.

b)

They usually have two cusps each.

c)

They usually have three cusps each.

d)

They have variable numbers of cusps without a common pattern.

15.

If any branch of a coronary artery becomes blocked, what is the most likely immediate effect on heart muscle supplied by that branch?

a)

The muscle will continue normally due to multiple alternate pathways

b)

The muscle may receive extra blood from the pulmonary arteries

c)

The muscle can become ischemic because the artery is an end artery

d)

The muscle automatically switches to nutrients from lymphatic vessels

16.

Which option correctly identifies the pacemaker of the heart and its location?

a)

Atrioventricular node in the interventricular septum

b)

Bundle of His in the right atrium

c)

Sinoatrial node in the right atrium

d)

Purkinje fibers in the left ventricle

17.

A special branch of the right coronary artery supplies the sinoatrial node. What is this artery commonly called?

a)

SA nodal artery

b)

AV nodal artery

c)

Left marginal artery

d)

Posterior descending artery

18.

Which description best explains the coronary sinus?

a)

A large venous structure in the left atrium that collects cardiac veins and opens to the right atrium

b)

An arterial channel that delivers oxygen-rich blood to the ventricles

c)

A lymphatic duct draining excess fluid from the myocardium into subclavian veins

d)

A valve regulating flow between the left ventricle and aorta

19.

Where does the coronary sinus open into and what structure may guard its opening?

a)

Left atrium; bicuspid valve

b)

Right atrium; Thebesian valve

c)

Right ventricle; tricuspid valve

d)

Pulmonary trunk; semilunar valve

20.

Which statement best distinguishes systole from diastole?

a)

Systole is ventricular contraction and diastole is ventricular relaxation

b)

Systole is atrial filling and diastole is atrial emptying

c)

Systole occurs when valves close and diastole when valves open

d)

Systole is the heart’s rest phase; diastole is the work phase

21.

What is the main role of the atrioventricular (AV) node in the heart’s electrical system?

a)

It initiates the heartbeat and sets the overall pace

b)

It delays the electrical signal before it passes to the ventricles

c)

It contracts the left ventricle directly

d)

It returns deoxygenated blood to the right atrium

22.

Which structure carries the electrical impulse from the AV node into the ventricular septum?

a)

Purkinje fibers

b)

Bundle of His

c)

Coronary sinus

d)

SA nodal artery

23.

Which statement correctly describes Purkinje fibers?

a)

They originate in the right atrium and act as the heart’s pacemaker

b)

They are specialized conduction fibers that distribute impulses through the ventricles

c)

They are venous tributaries draining into the coronary sinus

d)

They are lymphatic vessels that return excess fluid to circulation

24.

Which statement about the lymphatic system aligns with the section’s guidance?

a)

It returns excess tissue fluid to circulation via subclavian veins through main lymphatic ducts

b)

It pumps oxygenated blood to the myocardium through coronary arteries

c)

It stores electrical impulses for the SA node

d)

It drains directly into the coronary sinus

25.

Which layer directly covers the heart muscle and is considered the outermost layer of the heart wall?

a)

Pericardium

b)

Epicardium

c)

Myocardium

d)

Endocardium

26.

What is the primary function of the myocardium in the heart?

a)

Forms a protective sac around the heart

b)

Lines the inner chambers and valves

c)

Provides the muscular contractions that pump blood

d)

Separates the left and right sides of the heart

27.

Which statement best distinguishes the left heart from the right heart?

a)

The left heart pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs; the right heart pumps oxygen-rich blood to the body.

b)

The left heart pumps oxygen-rich blood to the body; the right heart pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.

c)

Both left and right hearts pump the same blood to all tissues.

d)

The left heart only receives blood while the right heart only sends blood.

28.

The endocardium is best described as which of the following?

a)

The muscular wall responsible for contraction

b)

The inner lining of the heart chambers and valves

c)

The outer sac anchoring the heart in the chest

d)

The partition separating atria and ventricles

29.

Which pair correctly matches the septum with the regions it separates?

a)

Interatrial septum separates the ventricles; interventricular septum separates the atria.

b)

Interatrial septum separates the left and right atria; interventricular septum separates the left and right ventricles.

c)

Interatrial septum separates the atria from the ventricles; interventricular septum separates the ventricles from great vessels.

d)

Both septa separate the left heart from the right heart without specifying chambers.

30.

A student claims the epicardium and pericardium are the same structure with the same role. Which is the most accurate evaluation of this claim?

a)

Accurate: both are the inner lining of the heart chambers.

b)

Partly accurate: epicardium is the outer heart wall layer; pericardium is the surrounding sac with protective function.

c)

Inaccurate: epicardium is the muscular pumping layer; pericardium is the inner lining.

d)

Accurate: both are septa that divide the heart.

31.

Which statement best describes the role of the coronary arteries?

a)

They supply oxygenated blood and nutrients to the heart muscle itself.

b)

They carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.

c)

They transport hormones from the adrenal glands to the heart.

d)

They drain blood from the myocardium directly into the aorta.

32.

Which branch is correctly matched with a region it supplies?

a)

Left anterior descending (LAD) — anterior interventricular septum and anterior walls of both ventricles

b)

Right marginal branch — left atrium and pulmonary veins

c)

Circumflex branch — right ventricle outflow tract

d)

Posterior descending artery — left atrial appendage

33.

Which list includes four major coronary artery branches?

a)

Left anterior descending, circumflex, right coronary artery, posterior descending

b)

Superior vena cava, pulmonary trunk, aorta, coronary sinus

c)

Tricuspid, bicuspid, aortic, pulmonary

d)

Papillary, chordae tendineae, septal, marginal veins

34.

Which pairing correctly identifies a major coronary artery?

a)

Left coronary artery and right coronary artery

b)

Pulmonary artery and aorta

c)

Superior vena cava and inferior vena cava

d)

Coronary sinus and pulmonary vein

35.

Which vessels are the major coronary veins that drain the myocardium?

a)

Great cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein, small cardiac vein

b)

Pulmonary veins, superior vena cava, inferior vena cava

c)

Aorta, pulmonary trunk, brachiocephalic vein

d)

Internal jugular vein, subclavian vein, femoral vein

36.

What is the coronary sinus?

a)

A large venous channel on the posterior heart that collects coronary venous blood and empties into the right atrium

b)

A muscular ridge separating the ventricles

c)

An arterial branch that supplies the left atrium

d)

A valve between the left atrium and left ventricle

37.

Which coronary veins flow directly into the coronary sinus?

a)

Great cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein, and small cardiac vein

b)

Pulmonary veins only

c)

Superior and inferior venae cavae

d)

Anterior cardiac veins draining into the right ventricle

38.

When blood leaves the coronary sinus, where does it enter next?

a)

Right atrium

b)

Left atrium

c)

Pulmonary trunk

d)

Left ventricle

39.

Which are the two atria of the heart?

a)

Right atrium and left atrium

b)

Right ventricle and left ventricle

c)

Aorta and pulmonary trunk

d)

Mitral and tricuspid

40.

Where does blood in the right atrium come from just before it enters?

a)

Superior and inferior venae cavae and coronary sinus

b)

Pulmonary veins

c)

Left ventricle via the aortic valve

d)

Pulmonary trunk

41.

Where does blood in the left atrium come from just before it enters?

a)

Pulmonary veins

b)

Inferior vena cava

c)

Coronary sinus

d)

Right ventricle

42.

Name the two ventricles of the heart.

a)

Right ventricle and left ventricle

b)

Right atrium and left atrium

c)

Aorta and pulmonary trunk

d)

Mitral and tricuspid

43.

Where does the right ventricle pump blood to?

a)

Pulmonary trunk leading to the lungs

b)

Aorta supplying systemic circulation

c)

Coronary sinus

d)

Left atrium

44.

Where does the left ventricle pump blood to?

a)

Aorta for systemic circulation

b)

Pulmonary trunk

c)

Coronary sinus

d)

Right atrium

45.

What structure separates the right and left ventricles internally?

a)

Interventricular septum

b)

Chordae tendineae

c)

Coronary sinus

d)

Atrioventricular groove

46.

Which valve controls blood flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle?

a)

Tricuspid valve

b)

Bicuspid (mitral) valve

c)

Aortic semilunar valve

d)

Pulmonary semilunar valve

47.

Which valve controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle?

a)

Bicuspid (mitral) valve

b)

Tricuspid valve

c)

Pulmonary semilunar valve

d)

Coronary valve

48.

Which description best matches the chordae tendineae?

a)

Tendinous cords anchoring atrioventricular valve leaflets to papillary muscles

b)

Muscular ridges separating ventricles

c)

Arterial branches supplying the myocardium

d)

Venous channels draining into the coronary sinus

49.

What is the role of papillary muscles during ventricular contraction?

a)

They tighten the chordae tendineae to prevent AV valve prolapse into the atria.

b)

They open the semilunar valves directly.

c)

They pump blood into the coronary sinus.

d)

They generate electrical impulses of the SA node.

50.

Skill/Concept: An impulse travels from the atria to the ventricles after a brief delay that allows the ventricles to fill. Which structure is primarily responsible for this delay and relay?

a)

Sino-Atrial (SA) Node

b)

Atrio-Ventricular (AV) Node

c)

Purkinje fibers

d)

Aortic semilunar valve

51.

Skill/Concept: After leaving the AV node, the electrical signal moves down the interventricular septum before spreading through the ventricles. Which pathway carries the signal down the septum?

a)

Bundle of His

b)

Pulmonary semilunar valve

c)

Sino-Atrial (SA) Node

d)

Atrial myocardium

52.

Strategic Thinking: A patient’s ECG shows ventricles contracting in an uncoordinated fashion despite normal atrial activity. Which part of the conduction system is most likely failing to distribute the impulse efficiently through the ventricular walls?

a)

Sino-Atrial (SA) Node

b)

Atrio-Ventricular (AV) Node

c)

Bundle of His

d)

Purkinje fibers

53.

Recall: What does an Electrocardiogram (ECG) provide to healthcare providers?

a)

A mechanical measurement of blood pressure only

b)

An electrical readout that reflects how the heart is functioning

c)

A visual image of heart valves opening and closing

d)

A test that directly measures oxygen levels in the blood

54.

Which statement best defines an ECG for a patient? It is a noninvasive method that measures the heart’s electrical activity during the cardiac cycle to assess whether the heart rate is normal or abnormal and whether parts of the heart are overworked.

a)

An invasive test that measures blood flow by inserting a catheter into the heart

b)

A noninvasive test that measures the heart’s electrical activity over time

c)

A scan that uses X-rays to image heart structures only

d)

A breathing test that records lung capacity during exercise

55.

What is a common reason doctors use the results of an ECG? Choose the best answer based on the description.

a)

To determine if the heart’s electrical signals show normal rhythm or signs of overwork

b)

To calculate the exact amount of blood in each heart chamber

c)

To diagnose lung infections by measuring oxygen levels

d)

To measure bone density around the ribcage

56.

Which placement and count correctly describe a modern 12-lead ECG?

a)

12 electrodes placed on the chest to produce 12 views

b)

10 electrodes used to produce 12 different electrical views: six on the chest and one on each limb

c)

8 electrodes used to produce 10 views: four on the chest and four on the limbs

d)

10 electrodes used to produce 10 views: five on the chest and five on the limbs

57.

Which ECG feature represents the initial electrical signal generated at the sinoatrial (SA) node and passing to the atrioventricular (AV) node?

a)

P wave

b)

QRS complex

c)

T wave

d)

ST interval

58.

What does the PR interval specifically measure on an ECG?

a)

Time from the start of the P wave to the start (first deflection) of the QRS complex

b)

Time from the end of the QRS complex to the start of the T wave

c)

Time from the start of the T wave to the next P wave

d)

Time from the end of the P wave to the end of the QRS complex

59.

Which statement best describes the QRS complex?

a)

It is the big spike reflecting electrical signals that lead to ventricular contraction

b)

It represents atrial depolarization and relaxation

c)

It is the period of zero potential between depolarization and repolarization

d)

It shows ventricular repolarization returning to baseline

60.

According to the text, the electrical signal occurs slightly before the actual muscle movement. Which example illustrates this timing?

a)

The P wave appears just before the atria contract to push blood into the ventricles

b)

The T wave appears just before the SA node fires

c)

The ST segment appears just before the AV node receives the signal

d)

The QRS complex appears just before the atria relax

61.

Which pathway correctly traces the electrical signal after reaching the AV node?

a)

AV node → atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His) → bundle fibers → Purkinje fibers

b)

AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibers → bundle of His

c)

AV node → pulmonary artery → Purkinje fibers → ventricles

d)

AV node → aorta → SA node → bundle fibers

62.

Which ECG component corresponds to ventricular repolarization, when electrical activity returns to baseline and the ventricles relax?

a)

T wave

b)

P wave

c)

QRS complex

d)

PR interval

63.

Which pair correctly matches an ECG feature with the cardiac event it reflects?

a)

P wave — signal from SA node leading to atrial contraction

b)

ST interval — atrial contraction and relaxation

c)

QRS complex — atrial repolarization clearly visible

d)

T wave — ventricular depolarization

e)

PR interval — time from end of P wave to end of QRS complex

64.

Which statement best describes the main purpose of an ECG in medical practice?

a)

To measure blood pressure in the arteries

b)

To record the heart’s electrical activity to help diagnose conditions

c)

To check lung capacity during exercise

d)

To determine a person’s body temperature after illness

65.

A patient reports chest pain and shortness of breath. According to the material, which test is commonly used to investigate these symptoms?

a)

MRI of the brain

b)

ECG to assess heart electrical activity

c)

Ultrasound of the abdomen

d)

Vision screening for eye strain

66.

Which consequence is associated with untreated atrial fibrillation?

a)

Greater risk of stroke compared with people without AFib

b)

Improved exercise tolerance

c)

Lower chance of heart-related death

d)

No change in blood flow to the body

67.

Which ECG finding is characteristic of atrial flutter?

a)

Sawtooth appearance of the P waves

b)

Complete absence of QRS complexes

c)

Prolonged flat T waves

d)

Regular, tall P waves before each QRS

68.

Which application of ECG technology beyond diagnosing arrhythmias is mentioned?

a)

Noninvasive detection of hypoglycemia episodes

b)

Measuring bone density in older adults

c)

Testing lung diffusion capacity

d)

Determining hydration level using skin electrodes

69.

Which structure acts as the heart’s primary pacemaker by initiating rhythmic electrical impulses?

a)

Atrioventricular (AV) node

b)

Purkinje fibers

c)

Sinoatrial (SA) node

d)

Bundle of His

70.

If the primary pacemaker is damaged, can other specialized heart cells assume pacemaker duties? Choose the best answer.

a)

No; only the primary pacemaker can generate impulses

b)

Yes; secondary pacemaker regions can take over at slower rates

c)

Yes; skeletal muscle cells can replace cardiac pacemaker cells

d)

No; the heart stops without the primary pacemaker

71.

What is the main advantage of gap junctions in cardiac muscle tissue?

a)

They store calcium for contraction

b)

They electrically couple cells to allow rapid impulse spread

c)

They increase membrane thickness to prevent depolarization

d)

They slow signal transmission to lengthen diastole

72.

In typical skeletal muscle, the resting potential is about −70 mV and threshold is −55 mV. In cardiac cells, there is no true resting potential; instead, the lower cell potential is approximately −60 mV and the threshold potential for cardiac nerve cells is around −40 mV. Based on this information, which pair best represents cardiac values?

a)

Lower potential −70 mV; threshold −55 mV

b)

Lower potential −60 mV; threshold −40 mV

c)

Lower potential −50 mV; threshold −30 mV

d)

Lower potential −80 mV; threshold −60 mV

73.

The sarcoplasmic reticulum in heart tissue is very high in which ion needed to maintain the plateau phase of heart muscle contraction?

a)

Sodium (Na+)

b)

Potassium (K+)

c)

Calcium (Ca2+)

d)

Chloride (Cl−)

74.

Why is the plateau phase of the cardiac action potential critical for the heart’s function?

a)

It shortens contraction so more beats can occur

b)

It prevents synchronized contraction of cells

c)

It sustains contraction long enough for effective pumping

d)

It eliminates the need for calcium influx

75.

The total refractory period for typical skeletal muscle is about 1 millisecond. What is the approximate refractory period for heart muscle tissue?

a)

1 millisecond

b)

5 milliseconds

c)

200 milliseconds

d)

1000 milliseconds

76.

Which statement best defines venipuncture?

a)

Insertion of a needle into an artery to measure pressure

b)

Insertion of a needle into a vein to draw blood or give medication

c)

Compression of a vein to stop bleeding

d)

Surgical removal of a varicose vein

77.

Which term describes a localized bulge in an artery wall caused by weakening of the vessel?

a)

Atherosclerosis

b)

Aneurism

c)

Phlebitis

d)

Ischemia

78.

Arteriosclerosis versus atherosclerosis—what is the most accurate distinction?

a)

Arteriosclerosis is hardening of arteries generally; atherosclerosis is plaque buildup of fats within arterial walls

b)

Arteriosclerosis is venous inflammation; atherosclerosis is arterial spasm

c)

Arteriosclerosis is low blood pressure; atherosclerosis is high blood pressure

d)

Arteriosclerosis is clot formation; atherosclerosis is vessel dilation

79.

Which term refers to abnormally low blood pressure?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Hypotension

c)

Ischemia

d)

Phlebitis

80.

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) most nearly means which of the following?

a)

Inflammation of a superficial vein

b)

Formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, often in the legs

c)

Bursting of an artery with internal bleeding

d)

Spasm of coronary arteries

81.

Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD) primarily involves which system and effect?

a)

Central nervous system and plaque in cerebral arteries

b)

Peripheral circulation with narrowed or blocked vessels reducing blood flow to limbs

c)

Respiratory system and alveolar collapse

d)

Endocrine system and hormone imbalance

82.

Intermittent claudication is most closely associated with which symptom pattern?

a)

Constant chest pain at rest

b)

Cramping pain in a limb during activity that improves with rest due to reduced blood flow

c)

Sudden numbness on one side of the body lasting seconds

d)

Diffuse joint pain unrelated to movement

83.

Phlebitis refers to what condition?

a)

Inflammation of a vein

b)

Inflammation of the heart muscle

c)

Inflammation of an artery

d)

Inflammation of lymph nodes

84.

Which statement correctly describes a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)?

a)

Permanent loss of brain function from prolonged ischemia

b)

Short-term neurological deficits caused by temporary reduced blood flow to the brain

c)

Cardiac event due to coronary plaque rupture

d)

Pulmonary event due to embolism in the lungs only

85.

A cerebrovascular incident (stroke) most directly results from which event?

a)

Overproduction of red blood cells

b)

Interruption of blood supply to brain tissue, either by blockage or bleeding

c)

Infection of the meninges by bacteria

d)

Failure of venous valves in the legs

86.

Ischemia is best defined as which of the following?

a)

Complete absence of oxygen in the blood

b)

Reduced blood flow to tissues leading to oxygen shortage

c)

Excessive blood flow causing hypertension

d)

Inflammation of arterial walls

87.

Which pairing of vessels correctly states the direction of blood flow relative to the heart?

a)

Arteries carry blood toward the heart; veins carry blood away from the heart

b)

Arteries carry blood away from the heart; veins carry blood toward the heart

c)

Both arteries and veins carry blood away from the heart

d)

Capillaries carry blood directly from the heart to the lungs

88.

Normal blood pressure is often approximated as 120/80 mmHg. What do these two numbers represent?

a)

Systolic and diastolic pressures, respectively

b)

Diastolic and systolic pressures, respectively

c)

Pulse pressure and mean arterial pressure

d)

Venous pressure and capillary pressure

89.

Which arteries are the first branches coming off the aorta to supply the heart itself?

a)

Left and right coronary arteries

b)

Left and right carotid arteries

c)

Left and right subclavian arteries

d)

Left and right iliac arteries

90.

Which set lists the typical three major branches of the aortic arch and their general destinations?

a)

Left coronary, right coronary, celiac—heart and abdomen

b)

Brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid, left subclavian—head and upper limbs

c)

Renal, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric—kidneys and intestines

d)

Common iliac, femoral, popliteal—pelvis and leg

91.

From the abdominal aorta, which arteries primarily supply the stomach, spleen, liver, and kidneys?

a)

Coronary arteries supply stomach and spleen; carotids supply kidneys

b)

Celiac trunk branches supply stomach, spleen, and liver; renal arteries supply kidneys

c)

Brachiocephalic trunk supplies liver; femoral arteries supply kidneys

d)

Superior mesenteric supplies liver; inferior mesenteric supplies spleen

92.

Starting at the common iliac arteries, which pathway best describes how blood reaches the feet?

a)

Common iliac → renal → tibial → plantar

b)

Common iliac → external iliac → femoral → popliteal → tibial/plantar arteries

c)

Common iliac → internal carotid → brachial → radial → digital

d)

Common iliac → hepatic → splenic → gastric → pedal

93.

Which major vein returns blood from the lower body to the heart by traveling through the diaphragm into the abdominal cavity?

a)

Inferior vena cava

b)

Superior vena cava

c)

Portal vein

d)

Azygous vein

94.

The inferior vena cava enters the abdominal cavity at the level of which type of vertebra?

a)

Cervical vertebra

b)

Thoracic vertebra

c)

Sacral vertebra

d)

Coccygeal vertebra

95.

Which set of veins primarily returns blood from abdominal organs to the inferior vena cava?

a)

Hepatic, renal, and gonadal veins

b)

Carotid, jugular, and subclavian veins

c)

Pulmonary, coronary, and portal veins

d)

Femoral, popliteal, and tibial veins

96.

Blood from the lower limbs mostly returns via which vein, while blood from the pelvic cavity itself returns via the internal veins of the pelvis?

a)

Femoral vein; internal iliac vein

b)

Great saphenous vein; external iliac vein

c)

Popliteal vein; common iliac vein

d)

Anterior tibial vein; lumbar vein

97.

Which veins drain the kidneys directly into the inferior vena cava?

a)

Renal veins

b)

Hepatic veins

c)

Lumbar veins

d)

Jugular veins

98.

Which statement best describes the gonadal veins?

a)

They drain reproductive organs and empty into larger abdominal veins

b)

They carry oxygenated blood to the gonads

c)

They originate in the thoracic cavity

d)

They connect the heart directly to the pelvic cavity

99.

Below a named ligament near the groin, which artery begins its course down the leg before becoming the popliteal vein behind the knee?

a)

Femoral artery

b)

Tibial artery

c)

Fibular artery

d)

Axillary artery

100.

In the lower leg, which two deep veins return blood from the area around the tibia?

a)

Anterior tibial and posterior tibial veins

b)

Great saphenous and small saphenous veins

c)

Femoral and popliteal veins

d)

Hepatic and renal veins

101.

Which vein returns blood from the fibula region and is named after the associated artery?

a)

Fibular (peroneal) vein

b)

Anterior tibial vein

c)

Posterior tibial vein

d)

Popliteal vein

102.

Which pair of large superficial veins drain the upper and lower leg and are commonly involved in varicose veins?

a)

Greater saphenous and lesser saphenous veins

b)

Femoral and popliteal veins

c)

Anterior tibial and posterior tibial veins

d)

Renal and hepatic veins

103.

Which major vein collects blood from the head, neck, and upper extremities and drains into the heart?

a)

Superior vena cava

b)

Inferior vena cava

c)

Portal vein

d)

Coronary sinus

104.

The left and right brachiocephalic trunks drain directly into which vessel?

a)

Superior vena cava

b)

Inferior vena cava

c)

Aorta

d)

Pulmonary trunk

105.

Which venous system connects lumbar veins to the superior vena cava via the thoracic vertebrae?

a)

Azygous venous system

b)

Portal venous system

c)

Coronary venous system

d)

Pulmonary venous system

106.

As lumbar veins ascend and change names at the thoracic level, which set of veins do they form to drain the thoracic and abdominal cavity walls?

a)

Azygous, hemi-azygous, and accessory-azygous veins

b)

Renal, hepatic, and portal veins

c)

Jugular, subclavian, and vertebral veins

d)

Femoral, popliteal, and tibial veins

107.

Which veins receive blood from the cephalic vein in the arm pit and continue downward as the axillary vein?

a)

Subclavian veins

b)

Jugular veins

c)

Renal veins

d)

Saphenous veins

108.

Which pathway best traces venous return from the upper limb to the heart?

a)

Cephalic vein → subclavian vein → brachiocephalic trunk → superior vena cava

b)

Tibial vein → popliteal vein → femoral vein → inferior vena cava

c)

Hepatic vein → portal vein → aorta → heart

d)

Renal vein → lumbar vein → azygous vein → inferior vena cava

109.

Which system provides a collateral connection between the inferior and superior vena cavae through veins that run alongside the vertebral column?

a)

Azygous venous system

b)

Pulmonary arterial system

c)

Coronary arterial system

d)

Portal hepatic system

110.

Choose the correct responses.

111.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Sinus tachycardia

b)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

c)

Supraventricular Tachycardia

d)

Atrial fibrillation

112.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Sinus Tachycardia

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Atrial flutter

d)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

113.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Ventricular Fibrillation

b)

Ventricular Tachycardia

c)

Pulseless Electrical Activity

d)

Atrial fibrillation

114.

What does the depressed ST wave in the image possibly indicate

a)

A heart block leading to ischemia

b)

Rapid hear beat

c)

low blood pressure

d)

heart attack (myocardial infarction)

115.

What does an elevated ST wave in the image possibly indicate

a)

A heart block leading to ischemia

b)

Rapid hear beat

c)

low blood pressure

d)

heart attack (myocardial infarction)

116.

There are (a)   pulmonary veins that return to the left atrium of the heart.

117.

Look at the image. Why is the line labeled ST flat?

a)

The heart is resting

b)

The atria are repolarizing

c)

The person has damage from a heart attack

d)

They have a heart block

118.

Label the heart

119.

Label the heart

120.

​ Correctly identify the following areas of the heart.

121.
Question Image

Match the following terms to their description

a)

When blood leaves this chamber of the heart, it heads to the lungs.

1.

Right ventricle

b)

The main artery which distributes oxygenated blood to the entire body

2.

Aorta

c)

This blood vessel splits in two (L/R) and sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs to be refreshed.

3.

Pulmonary artery

d)

The chamber in the heart that receives oxygenated blood from the lungs.

4.

Left atrium