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UNIT 5 MCQ QUESTIONS - Cryptography and Network Security

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes the primary goal of web security?

a)

Preventing server crashes

b)

Ensuring SEO optimization

c)

Protecting confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data

d)

Speeding up webpage rendering

2.

Which component ensures identity verification in secure web transactions?

a)

Digital certificate

b)

Firewall

c)

IDS

d)

Proxy server

3.

Match the following web security mechanisms with their purpose:

a)

I-d, II-b, III-c, IV-a

b)

I-a, II-c, III-b, IV-d

c)

I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b

d)

I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c

e)

Malware filtering

4.

You're designing a secure e-commerce website. Which of the following protocols should you implement to ensure secure transactions between customer and payment gateway?

a)

FTP

b)

HTTP

c)

SSL/TLS

d)

DNS

5.

Which of the following is NOT a common feature of web security standards?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Compression

c)

Authentication

d)

Integrity

6.

Which among the following ensures end-to-end data protection on a web browser while using HTTPS?

a)

Host-based Firewall

b)

TLS

c)

IDS

d)

Packet Sniffer

7.

A web application is vulnerable to data interception. Which web security standard is best suited to mitigate this?

a)

FTP

b)

TLS

c)

Telnet

d)

SMTP

8.

An organization wants to detect real-time intrusions and take preventive action. Which combination of web security tools is best for this scenario?

a)

Antivirus and HTTP

b)

Firewall and FTP

c)

IDS and IPS

d)

DNS and SMTP

9.

Which of the following is the first step in the SSL handshake process?

a)

Client sends "Finished" message

b)

Server sends a certificate

c)

ClientHello is sent

d)

Key exchange is initiated

10.

Given the following SSL record header: 16 03 01 00 4a, identify the record type.

a)

Alert

b)

Handshake

c)

Change Cipher Spec

d)

Application Data

11.

You are debugging an SSL handshake failure. The log shows "Unknown CA." What is the most probable cause?

a)

Cipher suite mismatch

b)

Expired client certificate

c)

Server certificate not signed by a trusted CA

d)

Protocol version conflict

12.

Which cipher suite component in TLS_ECDHE_RSA_WITH_AES_256_GCM_SHA384 provides forward secrecy?

a)

ECDHE

b)

RSA

c)

AES_256_GCM

d)

SHA384

13.

An SSL-enabled server requires client authentication. Which element must the client provide during handshake?

a)

ClientHello

b)

Digital Signature

c)

Public key

d)

Client Certificate

14.

Which OpenSSL command is used to verify an SSL certificate?

a)

openssl ca

b)

openssl x509 -noout -text

c)

openssl verify cert.pem

d)

openssl enc

15.

SSL operates between which OSI layers?

a)

Application and Transport

b)

Network and Transport

c)

Session and Presentation

d)

Transport and Session

16.

You are configuring a server with multiple domains using SSL. What extension supports this?

a)

CRL

b)

OCSP

c)

SNI

d)

SAN

17.

A certificate signed using SHA-1 is flagged by a browser. What is the cause?

a)

Expired key pair

b)

Weak hash algorithm

c)

Cipher mismatch

d)

Unused extension

18.

To generate a self-signed certificate valid for 365 days using RSA and OpenSSL, which command is correct?

a)

openssl req -x509 -nodes -newkey rsa:2048 -keyout key.pem -out cert.pem -days 365

b)

openssl rsa -genkey

c)

openssl req -new -x509

d)

openssl enc -aes256

19.

SSL session resumption helps optimize performance by:

a)

Skipping key exchange

b)

Reusing cipher suite

c)

Reusing session key

d)

Avoiding digital signatures

20.

Which of the following is not part of the SSL Record Protocol?

a)

Compression

b)

Fragmentation

c)

Key Generation

d)

MAC

21.

A TLS alert 20 is received during handshake. What does it represent?

a)

Close Notify

b)

Bad Certificate

c)

Handshake Failure

d)

Change Cipher Spec

22.

What vulnerability does SSLv3 suffer from, making it obsolete?

a)

BEAST

b)

BROWN

c)

POODLE

d)

CRIME

23.

Which of the following ensures integrity in SSL records?

a)

Diffie-Hellman

b)

Hash function (e.g., HMAC-SHA256)

c)

RSA encryption

d)

Digital certificates

24.

You want to disable weak ciphers in an Apache SSL config. Which directive is used?

a)

SSLProxyProtocol

b)

SSLPassPhraseDialog

c)

SSLCipherSuite

d)

SSLEngine

25.

Why is the ClientHello message critical in SSL?

a)

It requests certificate revocation

b)

It initiates symmetric key exchange

c)

It proposes cipher suites and compression

d)

It confirms client IP

26.

Which of the following TLS versions deprecated SSLv3 due to the POODLE vulnerability?

a)

TLS 1.0

b)

TLS 1.1

c)

TLS 1.2

d)

TLS 1.3

27.

Which field in the TLS record header specifies the protocol version?

a)

Content Type

b)

Version

c)

Length

d)

MAC

28.

You are debugging a TLS 1.2 handshake and notice the client rejects the certificate. What is the most likely cause?

a)

No ClientHello received

b)

Unsupported cipher

c)

Self-signed or untrusted certificate authority

d)

Missing Finished message

29.

Which of the following changes in TLS 1.3 improves performance compared to TLS 1.2?

a)

Removal of MAC

b)

Removal of RSA

c)

Zero round-trip time (0-RTT) resumption

d)

Stronger MACs

30.

You are configuring a server for TLS 1.3. Which key exchange mechanism is not supported?

a)

ECDHE

b)

DHE

c)

RSA key exchange

d)

PSK

31.

Which cryptographic primitive is used in TLS for verifying the authenticity of handshake messages?

a)

HMAC

b)

SHA-1

c)

AES

d)

ECDSA

32.

TLS replaces which insecure protocol in modern web applications?

a)

FTP

b)

HTTP

c)

Telnet

d)

SSL

33.

You need to enable forward secrecy. Which cipher suite should you select?

a)

TLS_RSA_WITH_AES_256_CBC_SHA

b)

TLS_ECDHE_RSA_WITH_AES_128_GCM_SHA256

c)

TLS_RSA_WITH_3DES_EDE_CBC_SHA

d)

TLS_NULL_WITH_NULL_NULL

34.

TLS achieves confidentiality using which mechanism during session?

a)

Public key encryption

b)

Block cipher modes like CBC

c)

Symmetric encryption with session key

d)

Digital signatures

35.

Which of the following remains encrypted in a TLS connection?

a)

Source IP

b)

TCP port

c)

HTTP payload

d)

Server certificate

36.

TLS handshake fails with the error 'Handshake Failure.' Which debug method is most effective?

a)

Inspect firewall rules

b)

Check DNS records

c)

Use Wireshark to analyze handshake packets

d)

Reboot the client system

37.

Which Python module is used to establish a TLS-encrypted socket?

a)

socket

b)

ssl

c)

crypto

d)

http.server

38.

To ensure your server only supports TLS 1.2 and above, which setting should you update in nginx.conf?

a)

ssl_ciphers

b)

ssl_protocols

c)

ssl_engine

d)

ssl_session_cache

39.

In TLS, Perfect Forward Secrecy ensures:

a)

Faster handshakes

b)

Server authentication only

c)

Compromised keys do not affect past sessions

d)

Encryption of headers

40.

Which of the following is true about session resumption in TLS?

a)

It increases handshake duration

b)

It uses the same symmetric key for all clients

c)

It helps reuse previous session keys

d)

It disables mutual authentication

41.

TLS alert code 21 indicates:

a)

Decryption failure

b)

Fatal error

c)

Warning

d)

Unknown certificate

42.

TLS 1.3 removes which legacy algorithms?

a)

AES-GCM and ChaCha20

b)

ECDHE and PSK

c)

RSA key exchange and CBC

d)

HMAC and SHA-256

43.

Which of the following is not a TLS record type?

a)

Handshake

b)

Application Data

c)

Key Exchange

d)

Alert

44.

In SET, who is responsible for verifying both cardholder and merchant identities?

a)

Payment Gateway

b)

Certificate Authority

c)

Acquirer Bank

d)

Card Issuer

45.

Which cryptographic algorithm is used in SET for digital signatures?

a)

AES

b)

RSA

c)

SHA-1

d)

Diffie-Hellman

46.

A user submits a purchase request, but the SET protocol fails to authenticate the digital certificate. What should be checked first?

a)

Merchant’s bank status

b)

Time validity of certificate

c)

Payment gateway availability

d)

SSL session timeout

47.

SET uses dual signatures to:

a)

Encrypt payment only

b)

Authenticate server identity

c)

Separate order and payment information

d)

Enable multi-bank routing

48.

Which party in SET is responsible for processing the transaction with the card issuer?

a)

Merchant

b)

Cardholder

c)

Acquirer

d)

Certificate Authority

49.

In the SET protocol, what is the function of the digital wallet?

a)

Issue certificates

b)

Store the symmetric key

c)

Manage user credentials and initiate transactions

d)

Encrypt the entire message

50.

SET protocol was primarily developed by:

a)

Microsoft and Visa

b)

Visa and MasterCard

c)

IBM and PayPal

d)

Google and Amazon

51.

The merchant in a SET system cannot verify the dual signature. Which of the following is likely missing?

a)

A. Cardholder’s public key

b)

B. SSL certificate

c)

C. Hash of payment instruction

d)

D. Order details

52.

SET provides non-repudiation by using:

a)

Message Authentication Code (MAC)

b)

IP address verification

c)

Public-key digital signatures

d)

Time-based session keys

53.

Which of the following components is NOT part of the SET infrastructure?

a)

Merchant Certificate Authority

b)

Payment Gateway

c)

Personal Firewall

d)

Digital Wallet

54.

Which feature of SET helps ensure that the merchant does not modify the payment instructions?

a)

Certificate revocation

b)

Session timeout

c)

Message digest and dual signature

d)

Transport layer authentication

55.

Which two entities are directly involved in the initial exchange of certificates in SET?

a)

Cardholder and Acquirer

b)

Merchant and Certificate Authority

c)

Cardholder and Merchant

d)

Cardholder and Issuer

56.

In a SET transaction, which key is used to encrypt the order information?

a)

Merchant’s public key

b)

Issuer’s public key

c)

Cardholder’s private key

d)

Symmetric session key

57.

Which of the following Java libraries can simulate encryption similar to what is done in SET protocol?

a)

javax.crypto

b)

org.set.core

c)

java.tls

d)

javax.setauth

58.

Why was SET protocol not widely adopted in e-commerce?

a)

Lack of RSA support

b)

Poor user interface

c)

Complexity and overhead of infrastructure

d)

Unavailability of symmetric encryption

59.

Which certificate format is commonly used in SET?

a)

X.500

b)

PEM

c)

X.509

d)

PGP

60.

In SET, what is the purpose of hashing the PI and OI before signing?

a)

Speed up encryption

b)

Ensure confidentiality

c)

Provide message integrity

d)

Convert message to binary

61.

Which statement is true about the dual signature in SET?

a)

It uses two private keys

b)

It encrypts order and payment with the same key

c)

It binds order and payment information without revealing both to the same party

d)

It digitally signs only the payment

62.

SET secures confidentiality of payment info using:

a)

Server authentication

b)

Symmetric encryption with the payment gateway’s key

c)

Client-side hashing

d)

MAC-based integrity

63.

A user added their public key to the remote server’s ~/.ssh/authorized_keys file but still gets prompted for a password. What is the most likely cause?

a)

Private key mismatch

b)

Wrong username

c)

Server firewall

d)

Network latency

64.

Which method offers better security in SSH login?

a)

Password login

b)

Key-based login

c)

OTP-based SSH

d)

CAPTCHA SSH

65.

In SSH key-based authentication, what is stored in the remote server to validate the login?

a)

Private key

b)

Public key

c)

Encrypted username

d)

Symmetric key

66.

What is the function of the known_hosts file in SSH?

a)

Lists all open ports on the server

b)

Stores encrypted passwords

c)

Verifies server identities

d)

Logs all SSH commands

67.

Which of the following is a common security risk if SSH keys are not protected properly?

a)

Denial of Service

b)

Brute-force attack

c)

Key theft leading to unauthorized access

d)

Certificate expiry

68.

A user is using SSH but wants to enable automatic login without entering a passphrase every time. What is a secure solution?

a)

Use passwordless login

b)

Brute-force attacks

c)

Key theft leading to unauthorized access

d)

Certificate expiry

69.

SSH provides protection against which of the following attacks?

a)

IP spoofing

b)

Session hijacking

c)

ARP poisoning

d)

All of the above

70.

A developer wants to encrypt data before uploading to AWS S3. Which AWS service or SDK feature is best suited?

a)

S3 Server-Side Encryption (SSE)

b)

AWS KMS (Key Management Service)

c)

Client-side encryption with AWS SDK

d)

EC2 Security Groups

71.

In cloud identity management, which protocol is commonly used for single sign-on (SSO)?

a)

OAuth 2.0

b)

FTP

c)

SMTP

d)

DNS

72.

Which cloud service model exposes the most security responsibilities to the customer?

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

DaaS

73.

What is the main function of a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)?

a)

Manage cloud storage costs

b)

Provide policy enforcement between cloud users and providers

c)

Backup cloud data automatically

d)

Manage network firewalls

74.

Which cloud security principle ensures data remains accessible and unaltered except by authorized users?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Availability

c)

Integrity

d)

Auditability

75.

Which Kubernetes object is used to manage secrets securely?

a)

ConfigMap

b)

Secret

c)

Pod

d)

ServiceAccount

76.

How can cloud customers ensure compliance with data protection regulations like GDPR?

a)

Ignore data residency requirements

b)

Use region-specific data centers and encryption

c)

Disable audit logs

d)

Remove user consent forms

77.

During a penetration test on a cloud app, lateral movement was possible between VMs. What cloud feature could prevent this?

a)

Security Groups and Network ACLs

b)

SSL Certificates

c)

CloudFront CDN

d)

IAM roles

78.

Which AWS service provides DDoS protection?

a)

AWS Shield

b)

AWS Inspector

c)

AWS Macie

d)

AWS Lambda

79.

Which encryption method is best suited for protecting data at rest in cloud?

a)

Symmetric encryption with AES-256

b)

SSL/TLS

c)

Hashing with MD5

d)

Base64 encoding

80.

You want to detect a worm spreading through your network by monitoring unusual traffic spikes. Which tool can you script to automate traffic analysis?

a)

tcpdump

b)

ping

c)

nslokup

d)

traceroute

81.

A Trojan disguised as legitimate software is causing system slowdowns. What immediate action should be taken?

a)

Disconnect from the network and run a full malware scan

b)

Ignore it

c)

Reboot the system

d)

Update software only

82.

Which type of firewall examines the state of active connections to decide whether to allow traffic?

a)

Packet-filtering firewall

b)

Stateful inspection firewall

c)

Proxy firewall

d)

Circuit-level gateway

83.

Which firewall type acts as an intermediary between internal users and the internet by inspecting and forwarding requests?

a)

Packet-filtering firewall

b)

Proxy firewall

c)

Stateful firewall

d)

NAT firewall

84.

After updating firewall rules, users report inability to access a web application on port 443. What is a possible cause?

a)

Port 80 is closed

b)

Port 443 is blocked in firewall rules

c)

SSL certificate expired

d)

Network cable unplugged

85.

Which type of malware requires user interaction to activate, often disguised as a useful program?

a)

Virus

b)

Worm

c)

Trojan

d)

Ransomware

86.

What is the key difference between a worm and a virus?

a)

Worms require a host file to replicate

b)

Viruses self-replicate through networks

c)

Worms self-replicate without user intervention

d)

Viruses spread only through email

87.

Which firewall technology uses application-layer inspection to control traffic?

a)

Packet-filtering firewall

b)

Proxy firewall

c)

Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW)

d)

Circuit-level gateway

88.

Which malware type primarily spreads over networks without user intervention?

a)

Trojan

b)

Virus

c)

Worm

d)

Rootkit

89.

Which of the following best describes a rootkit?

a)

Software that encrypts data for ransom

b)

Malware that hides deep in the system to maintain access

c)

Worm that spreads email attachments

d)

Firewall misconfiguration

90.

Which IDS type analyzes network traffic patterns to identify deviations from normal behavior?

a)

Signature-based IDS

b)

Anomaly-based IDS

c)

Hybrid IDS

d)

Host-based IDS

91.

An IDS produces many false positives. Which tuning method can help reduce false alerts?

a)

Modify or disable irrelevant rules

b)

Disable the IDS completely

c)

Ignore alerts

d)

Increase logging verbosity

92.

Which IPS action is automatic and blocks traffic when an attack is detected?

a)

Alert only

b)

Passive monitoring

c)

Active prevention

d)

Logging only

93.

Which IDS component is responsible for capturing and inspecting packets?

a)

Sensor

b)

Management console

c)

Logger

d)

Analyzer

94.

What is the main disadvantage of signature-based IDS?

a)

High false positives

b)

Cannot detect new or unknown attacks

c)

High resource consumption

d)

Requires manual configuration

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