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CCNA 2 final exam part 1

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Refer to the exhibit. What will router R1 do with a packet that has a destination IPv6 address of 2001:db8:cafe:5::1?

a)
  • forward the packet out Serial0/0/0

b)

forward the packet out GigabitEthernet0/1

c)

drop the packet

d)

forward the packet out GigabitEthernet0/0

2.

What is a method to launch a VLAN hopping attack?

a)
  • introducing a rogue switch and enabling trunking

b)
  • sending spoofed native VLAN information

c)
  • sending spoofed IP addresses from the attacking host

d)
  • flooding the switch with MAC addresses

3.

Refer to the exhibit. How is a frame sent from PCA forwarded to PCC if the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty?

a)
  • SW1 forwards the frame directly to SW2. SW2 floods the frame to all ports connected to SW2, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.

b)
  • SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, excluding the interconnected port to switch SW2 and the port through which the frame entered the switch.

c)
  • SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.

d)
  • SW1 drops the frame because it does not know the destination MAC address.

4.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has connected two switches together using EtherChannel technology. If STP is running, what will be the end result?

a)
  • STP will block one of the redundant links.

b)
  • The switches will load balance and utilize both EtherChannels to forward packets.

c)
  • The resulting loop will create a broadcast storm.

d)
  • Both port channels will shutdown.

5.

Which wireless encryption method is the most secure?

a)
  • WPA2 with AES

b)
  • WPA2 with TKIP

c)
  • WEP

d)

WPA

6.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

a)
  • Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799Source IP: 10.1.1.10

b)
  • Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
    Source IP: 10.1.1.10

c)
  • Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
    Source IP: 192.168.1.1

d)
  • Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
    Source IP: 10.1.1.1

e)
  • Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
    Source IP: 192.168.1.1

7.

Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

a)
  • They improve netw​ork security.

b)
  • They use fewer router resources.

c)
  • They take less time to converge when the network topology changes.

d)
  • They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.

8.

What is the IPv6 prefix that is used for link-local addresses?


a)
  • FF01::/8

b)
  • FC00::/7

c)
  • 2001::/3

d)
  • FE80::/10

9.

Successful inter-VLAN routing has been operating on a network with multiple VLANs across multiple switches for some time. When an inter-switch trunk link fails and Spanning Tree Protocol brings up a backup trunk link, it is reported that hosts on two VLANs can access some, but not all the network resources that could be accessed previously. Hosts on all other VLANS do not have this problem. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

a)
  • The protected edge port function on the backup trunk interfaces has been disabled.

b)
  • The allowed VLANs on the backup link were not configured correctly.

c)
  • Dynamic Trunking Protocol on the link has failed.

d)
  • Inter-VLAN routing also failed when the trunk link failed.

10.

Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?

a)
  • interface port-channel 2

b)
  • channel-group 1 mode desirable

c)
  • interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5

d)
  • channel-group 2 mode auto

11.

A junior technician was adding a route to a LAN router. A traceroute to a device on the new network revealed a wrong path and unreachable status. What should be done or checked?

a)
  • Verify that there is not a default route in any of the edge router routing tables.

b)
  • Check the configuration of the exit interface on the new static route.

c)
  • Create a floating static route to that network.

d)
  • Check the configuration on the floating static route and adjust the AD.

12.

. A static route has been configured on a router. However, the destination network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table?

a)
  • Remove the route using the no ip route command.

b)
  • The static route will go away on its own.

c)
  • Nothing, The static route will go away on its own.

d)
  • Change the administrative distance for that route.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?​

a)
  • The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.

b)
  • The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.

c)
  • A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.

d)
  • R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.​

14.

What is the common term given to SNMP log messages that are generated by network devices and sent to the SNMP server?

a)
  • traps

b)
  • warnings

c)
  • auditing

d)
  • acknowledgments

15.

A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator change the default DHCP IPv4 addresses on an AP?

a)
  • to reduce outsiders intercepting data or accessing the wireless network by using a well-known address range

b)
  • to reduce the risk of interference by external devices such as microwave ovens

c)
  • to monitor the operation of the wireless network

d)
  • to restrict access to the WLAN by authorized, authenticated users only

16.

Which network attack is mitigated by enabling BPDU guard?

a)
  • rogue switches on a network

b)
  • rogue DHCP servers on a network

c)
  • MAC address spoofing

d)
  • XCAM table overflow attacks

17.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric to forward a data packet with the IPv6 destination address 2001:DB8:ACAD:E:240:BFF:FED4:9DD2?

a)
  • 2682112

b)
  • 3193856

c)
  • 2681856

d)
  • 128

18.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

a)
  • prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70​

b)
  • ipv6 nd other-config-flag​

c)
  • ipv6 dhcp server LAN1​

d)
  • ipv6 unicast-routing

  • dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8​

19.

A company has just switched to a new ISP. The ISP has completed and checked the connection from its site to the company. However, employees at the company are not able to access the internet. What should be done or checked?

a)
  • Verify that the static route to the server is present in the routing table.

b)
  • Ensure that the old default route has been removed from the company edge routers.

c)
  • Check the configuration on the floating static route and adjust the AD.

d)
  • :d

20.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol has been implemented to group multiple physical ports into one logical link?

a)
  • PAgP

b)
  • STP

c)
  • LACP

d)
  • DTP

21.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?

a)
  • Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.

b)
  • Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.

c)
  • Include a router in the topology.

d)
  • Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.

22.

A company security policy requires that all MAC addressing be dynamically learned and added to both the MAC address table and the running configuration on each switch. Which port security configuration will accomplish this?

a)
  • auto secure MAC addresses

b)
  • dynamic secure MAC addresses

c)
  • static secure MAC addresses

d)
  • sticky secure MAC addresses

23.

Refer to the exhibit. Which trunk link will not forward any traffic after the root bridge election process is complete?

a)
  • Trunk1

b)
  • Trunk3

c)
  • Trunk4

d)
  • Trunk2

24.

Which mitigation technique would prevent rogue servers from providing false IP configuration parameters to clients?

a)
  • implementing port security

b)
  • implementing port-security on edge ports

c)
  • turning on DHCP snooping

d)
  • disabling CDP on edge ports

25.

A network administrator configures the port security feature on a switch. The security policy specifies that each access port should allow up to two MAC addresses. When the maximum number of MAC addresses is reached, a frame with the unknown source MAC address is dropped and a notification is sent to the syslog server. Which security violation mode should be configured for each access port?

a)
  • restrict

b)
  • warning

c)
  • protect

d)
  • shutdown

26.

Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

a)

dynamic auto - dynamic auto access - trunk

b)

dynamic desirable - trunk

c)

desirable - dynamic desirable

d)

dynamic desirable - dynamic auto

27.

A network administrator of a small advertising company is configuring WLAN security by using the WPA2 PSK method. Which credential do office users need in order to connect their laptops to the WLAN?

a)
  • the company username and password through

b)
  • a user passphrase

  • a username and password configured on the AP

c)
  • a key that matches the key on the AP

d)
  • Active Directory service

28.

Refer to the exhibit. Which static route would an IT technician enter to create a backup route to the 172.16.1.0 network that is only used if the primary RIP learned route fails?

a)
  • ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 121

b)
  • ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 91

c)
  • ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 111

d)
  • ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0

29.

Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server?

a)
  • broadcast DHCPACK

b)
  • unicast DHCPREQUEST

c)
  • unicast DHCPACK

d)
  • broadcast DHCPREQUEST

30.

After a host has generated an IPv6 address by using the DHCPv6 or SLAAC process, how does the host verify that the address is unique and therefore usable?

a)
  • The host sends an ICMPv6 neighbor solicitation message to the DHCP or SLAAC-learned address and if no neighbor advertisement is returned, the address is considered unique.

b)
  • The host sends an ARP broadcast to the local link and if no

c)
  • The host checks the local neighbor cache for the learned address and if the address is not cached, it it considered unique.

d)
  • The host sends an ICMPv6 echo request message to the DHCPv6 or SLAAC-learned address and if no reply is returned, the address is considered unique.

31.

What network attack seeks to create a DoS for clients by preventing them from being able to obtain a DHCP lease?

a)
  • IP address spoofing

b)
  • DHCP spoofing

c)
  • DHCP starvation

d)
  • CAM table attack

32.

What protocol should be disabled to help mitigate VLAN attacks?

a)
  • DTP

b)
  • CDP

c)
  • ARP

d)
  • STP

33.

What are two reasons a network administrator would segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

a)
  • to create fewer collision domains

b)
  • to enhance user bandwidth

c)
  • to create more broadcast domains

  • to eliminate virtual circuits

d)
  • to isolate traffic between segments

34.

In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces switch command?

a)
  • to determine the MAC address of a directly attached network device on a particular interface

b)
  • when packets are being dropped from a particular directly attached host

c)

bla

d)

bla

35.

What is a drawback of the local database method of securing device access that can be solved by using AAA with centralized servers?

a)
  • User accounts must be configured locally on each device, which is an unscalable authentication solution.

b)
  • It is very susceptible to brute-force attacks because there is no username.

c)
  • The passwords can only be stored in plain text in the running configuration.

d)
  • There is no ability to provide accountability.

36.

What method of wireless authentication is dependent on a RADIUS authentication server?

a)
  • WEP

b)
  • WPA2 Enterprise

c)
  • WPA2 Personal

d)
  • WPA Personal

37.

Users are complaining of sporadic access to the internet every afternoon. What should be done or checked?

a)
  • Create static routes to all internal networks and a default route to the internet.

b)
  • Verify that there is not a default route in any of the edge router routing tables.

c)
  • Create a floating static route to that network.

d)
  • Check the statistics on the default route for oversaturation.

38.

A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator use a WLAN controller?

a)
  • to centralize management of multiple WLANs

b)
  • to provide privacy and integrity to wireless traffic by using encryption

c)
  • to facilitate group configuration and management of multiple WLANs through a WLC

d)
  • to provide prioritized service for time-sensitive applications

39.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the router R1 for IPv6 address assignment. Based on the partial configuration, which IPv6 global unicast address assignment scheme does the administrator intend to implement?

a)
  • stateful

b)
  • stateless

c)
  • manual configuration

d)
  • SLAAC

40.

A new switch is to be added to an existing network in a remote office. The network administrator does not want the technicians in the remote office to be able to add new VLANs to the switch, but the switch should receive VLAN updates from the VTP domain. Which two steps must be performed to configure VTP on the new switch to meet these conditions? (Choose two.)

a)
  • Configure the new switch as a VTP client.

b)
  • Configure the existing VTP domain name on the new switch.

c)
  • Configure all ports of both switches to access mode.

d)
  • Configure all ports of both switches to access mode.

41.

Refer to the exhibit. Consider that the main power has just been restored. PC3 issues a broadcast IPv4 DHCP request. To which port will SW1 forward this request?​

a)
  • to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 only

b)
  • to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, Fa0/3, and Fa0/4

c)
  • to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/4 only​

d)
  • to Fa0/1 only​

42.

What are two switch characteristics that could help alleviate network congestion? (Choose two.)

a)
  • fast internal switching


b)
  • large frame buffers

c)
  • store-and-forward switching

d)
  • low port density

43.

Branch users were able to access a site in the morning but have had no connectivity with the site since lunch time. What should be done or checked?

a)
  • Verify that the static route to the server is present in the routing table.

b)
  • Use the “show ip interface brief” command to see if an interface is down.

c)
  • Check the configuration on the floating static route and adjust the AD.

d)
  • Create a floating static route to that network.

44.

A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator use multiple lightweight APs?

a)
  • to centralize management of multiple WLANs

b)
  • to provide prioritized service for time-sensitive applications

c)
  • to facilitate group configuration and management of multiple WLANs through a WLC

d)

lazy

45.

A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator disable the broadcast feature for the SSID?

a)
  • to eliminate outsiders scanning for available SSIDs in the area

b)
  • to centralize management of multiple WLANs

c)
  • WLANs through a WLC

  • to provide prioritized service for time-sensitive applications

d)
  • to facilitate group configuration and management of multiple WLANs through a WLC

46.

What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a unicast destination MAC address that is not in the MAC address table?

a)
  • he switch updates the refresh timer for the entry.

b)
  • The switch replaces the old entry and uses the more current port.

c)
  • The switch resets the refresh timer on all MAC address table entries.

d)
  • The switch will forward the frame out all ports except the incoming port.

47.

Users on a LAN are unable to get to a company web server but are able to get elsewhere. What should be done or checked?

a)
  • Ensure that the old default route has been removed from the company edge routers.

b)
  • Check the configuration on the floating static route and adjust the AD.

c)
  • Verify that the static route to the server is present in the routing table.

d)
  • Create a floating static route to that network.

48.

What IPv6 prefix is designed for link-local communication?

a)
  • 2001::/3

b)
  • ff00::/8

c)
  • fc::/07

d)
  • fe80::/10

49.

What address and prefix length is used when configuring an IPv6 default static route?

a)
  • ::/0

b)
  • FF02::1/8

c)
  • 0.0.0.0/0

d)
  • ::1/128

50.

Which term describes the role of a Cisco switch in the 802.1X port-based access control?

a)
  • agent

b)
  • supplicant

c)
  • authenticator

d)
  • authentication server

51.

What protocol or technology uses a standby router to assume packet-forwarding responsibility if the active router fails?

a)
  • EtherChannel

b)
  • DTP

c)
  • HSRP

d)
  • VTP

52.

What action takes place when the source MAC address of a frame entering a switch is in the MAC address table?

a)
  • The switch updates the refresh timer for the entry.

b)
  • The switch adds a MAC address table entry for the destination MAC address and the egress port.

c)
  • The switch replaces the old entry and uses the more current port.

d)
  • The switch forwards the frame out of the specified port.

53.

Which mitigation technique would prevent rogue servers from providing false IPv6 configuration parameters to clients?

a)
  • enabling DHCPv6 Guard

b)
  • enabling RA Guard

  • implementing port

c)
  • security on edge ports

d)
  • disabling CDP on edge ports

54.

While attending a conference, participants are using laptops for network connectivity. When a guest speaker attempts to connect to the network, the laptop fails to display any available wireless networks. The access point must be operating in which mode?

a)
  • mixed

b)
  • passive

c)
  • active

d)
  • open

55.

On a Cisco 3504 WLC Summary page (Advanced > Summary), which tab allows a network administrator to configure a particular WLAN with a WPA2 policy?

a)
  • SECURITY

b)
  • WIRELESS

c)
  • WLANs

d)
  • MANAGEMENT