wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

CCNA 2 final exam part 2

Total questions: 54

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Refer to the exhibit. Currently router R1 uses an EIGRP route learned from Branch2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. Which floating static route would create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down?.

a)

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100

b)

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 50

c)

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.226 100

d)

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 Serial 0/0/0 100

2.

A cybersecurity analyst is using the macof tool to evaluate configurations of switches deployed in the backbone network of an organization. Which type of LAN attack is the analyst targeting during this evaluation?

a)
  • VLAN hopping

b)
  • DHCP spoofing

c)
  • MAC address table overflow

d)
  • VLAN double-tagging

3.

Which statement describes a result after multiple Cisco LAN switches are interconnected?

a)
  • The broadcast domain expands to all switches.

b)
  • One collision domain exists per switch.

c)
  • There is one broadcast domain and one collision domain per switch.

d)
  • Frame collisions increase on the segments connecting the switches.

e)
  • Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address.

4.

An administrator is trying to remove configurations from a switch. After using the command erase startup-config and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why were these VLANs not removed?

a)
  • Because these VLANs are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory, this file must be manually deleted.

b)
  • These VLANs cannot be deleted unless the switch is in VTP client mode.

c)
  • These VLANs are default VLANs that cannot be removed.

d)
  • These VLANs can only be removed from the switch by using the no vlan 10 and no vlan 100 commands.

5.

What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device?

a)
  • Configure an ACL and apply it to the VTY lines.

b)
  • Configure 802.1x.

c)
  • Configure SSH.

d)
  • Configure Telnet.

6.

After attaching four PCs to the switch ports, configuring the SSID and setting authentication properties for a small office network, a technician successfully tests the connectivity of all PCs that are connected to the switch and WLAN. A firewall is then configured on the device prior to connecting it to the Internet. What type of network device includes all of the described features?

a)
  • firewall appliance

b)
  • wireless router

c)
  • switch

d)
  • standalone wireless access point

7.

How will a router handle static routing differently if Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?

a)
  • It will not perform recursive lookups.

b)
  • Ethernet multiaccess interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.

c)
  • Static routes that use an exit interface will be unnecessary.

d)
  • Serial point-to-point interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.

8.

Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

a)
  • S 10.17.2.0/24 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2

b)
  • S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2

c)
  • C 10.16.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0

d)
  • S 10.17.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

9.

What is the effect of entering the spanning-tree portfast configuration command on a switch?

a)
  • It disables an unused port.

b)
  • It disables all trunk ports.

c)
  • It enables portfast on a specific switch interface.

d)
  • It checks the source L2 address in the Ethernet header against the sender L2 address in the ARP body.

10.

Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)​

a)
  • In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.

b)
  • They are not associated with a particular VLAN.

c)
  • The interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.

d)
  • They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.

11.

What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a multicast destination MAC address?

a)
  • The switch will forward the frame out all ports except the incoming port.

b)
  • The switch replaces the old entry and uses the more current port.

c)
  • The switch adds a MAC address table entry mapping for the destination MAC address and the ingress port.

d)
  • The switch forwards the frame out of the specified port.

12.

Select the three PAgP channel establishment modes. (Choose three.)

a)
  • auto

b)
  • desirable

c)
  • on

d)
  • passive

13.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about the configuration shown on R1?

a)
  • R1 is configured as a DHCPv4 relay agent.

b)
  • R1 is operating as a DHCPv4 server.

c)
  • R1 will send a message to a local DHCPv4 client to contact a DHCPv4 server at 10.10.10.8.

d)
  • R1 will broadcast DHCPv4 requests on behalf of local DHCPv4 clients.

14.

What two default wireless router settings can affect network security? (Choose two.)

a)
  • The SSID is broadcast.

b)
  • A well-known administrator password is set.

c)
  • The wireless channel is automatically selected.

d)
  • WEP encryption is enabled.

e)
  • MAC address filtering is enabled.

  • WEP encryption is enabled.

15.

A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator change the default DHCP IPv4 addresses on an AP?

a)
  • to reduce outsiders intercepting data or accessing the wireless network by using a well-known address range

b)
  • to reduce the risk of interference by external devices such as microwave ovens

c)
  • to restrict access to the WLAN by authorized, authenticated users only

d)
  • to monitor the operation of the wireless network

16.

On what switch ports should BPDU guard be enabled to enhance STP stability?

a)
  • all PortFast-enabled ports

b)
  • all trunk ports that are not root ports

c)
  • only ports that attach to a neighboring switch

d)
  • only ports that are elected as designated ports

17.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the ISP router over the 192.168.0.32 network. The 192.168.0.36 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 100 was issued on R1 and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?​

a)
  • Change the administrative distance to 120.

b)
  • Change the administrative distance to 1.

c)
  • Change the destination network to 192.168.0.34.

d)
  • Add the next hop neighbor address of 192.168.0.36.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

a)

(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown

b)

(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
(config-if)# no switchport
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252


c)

(config)# ip routing

d)

config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

19.

Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?

a)
  • default static route

b)
  • floating static route

c)
  • standard static route

d)
  • summary static route

20.

What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a unicast destination MAC address appearing in the MAC address table?

a)
  • The switch updates the refresh timer for the entry.

b)
  • The switch replaces the old entry and uses the more current port.

c)
  • The switch purges the entire MAC address table.

d)
  • The switch forwards the frame out of the specified port.

21.

What protocol or technology allows data to transmit over redundant switch links?

a)
  • EtherChannel

b)
  • VTP

c)
  • DTP

  • VTP

d)

EWAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA

22.

What is the effect of entering the shutdown configuration command on a switch?

a)
  • It enables BPDU guard on a specific port.

  • .

b)
  • It disables an unused port.

c)
  • It disables DTP on a non-trunking interface.

d)
  • It enables portfast on a specific switch interface

23.

During the AAA process, when will authorization be implemented?

a)
  • Immediately after successful authentication against an AAA data source

b)
  • Immediately after the determination of which resources a user can access

c)
  • Immediately after an AAA client sends authentication information to a centralized server

d)
  • Immediately after AAA accounting and auditing receives detailed reports

24.

To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)

a)

please

b)
  • The root bridge BID.

c)
  • The role of the ports in all VLANs.

d)

please

25.

Which two protocols are used to provide server-based AAA authentication? (Choose two.)

a)
  • 802.1x

b)
  • TACACS+

c)
  • RADIUS

d)
  • SNMP

e)
  • SSH

26.

Refer to the exhibit. After attempting to enter the configuration that is shown in router RTA, an administrator receives an error and users on VLAN 20 report that they are unable to reach users on VLAN 30. What is causing the problem?

a)
  • There is no address on Fa0/0 to use as a default gateway.

b)
  • The no shutdown command should have been issued on Fa0/0.20 and Fa0/0.30.

c)
  • Dot1q does not support subinterfaces.

d)
  • RTA is using the same subnet for VLAN 20 and VLAN 30.

27.

A company is deploying a wireless network in the distribution facility in a Boston suburb. The warehouse is quite large and it requires multiple access points to be used. Because some of the company devices still operate at 2.4GHz, the network administrator decides to deploy the 802.11g standard. Which channel assignments on the multiple access points will make sure that the wireless channels are not overlapping?

a)
  • channels 1, 5, and 9

b)
  • channels 2, 6, and 10

c)
  • channels 1, 7, and 13

d)
  • channels 1, 6, and 11

28.

Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-enabled network?

a)
  • alternate, designated, root, root

b)
  • designated, alternate, root, root

c)

designated, root, alternate, root

d)
  • alternate, root, designated, root

29.

Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?

a)
  • MAC address of the standby router

b)
  • MAC address of the forwarding router

c)
  • MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers

d)
  • MAC address of the virtual router

30.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Users complain that PC2 cannot communicate with PC1. Based on the output, what is the possible cause of the problem?

a)
  • The command interface GigabitEthernet0/0.5 was entered incorrectly.

b)
  • The encapsulation dot1Q 5 command contains the wrong VLAN. 

c)
  • The no shutdown command is not entered on subinterfaces.

d)
  • There is no IP address configured on the interface Gi0/0.

31.

Refer to the exhibit. If the IP addresses of the default gateway router and the DNS server are correct, what is the configuration problem?

a)
  • The DNS server and the default gateway router should be in the same subnet.

b)
  • The IP address of the DNS server is not contained in the excluded address list.

c)
  • The IP address of the default gateway router is not contained in the excluded address list.

d)
  • The default-router and dns-server commands need to be configured with subnet masks.

32.

What protocol or technology uses source IP to destination IP as a load-balancing mechanism?

a)
  • EtherChannel

b)
  • DTP

c)
  • VTP

d)
  • STP

33.

What command will enable a router to begin sending messages that allow it to configure a link-local address without using an IPv6 DHCP server?

a)
  • a static route

  • the ipv6 route ::/0 command

b)
  • the ipv6 unicast-routing command

c)
  • the ip routing command

d)

eow

34.

A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick model to configure a switch and a router for inter-VLAN routing. What configuration should be made on the switch port that connects to the router?

a)
  • Configure the port as an 802.1q trunk port.

b)
  • Configure the port as a trunk port and assign it to VLAN1.

c)
  • Configure it as a trunk port and allow only untagged traffic.

d)
  • Configure the port as an access port and a member of VLAN1.

35.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring the port security feature on switch SWC. The administrator issued the command show port-security interface fa 0/2 to verify the configuration. What can be concluded from the output that is shown? (Choose three.)

a)
  • This port is currently up.

b)
  • There is no device currently connected to this port.

c)
  • The switch port mode for this interface is access mode.

d)
  • Security violations will cause this port to shut down immediately.

e)
  • The port is configured as a trunk link.

36.

A network administrator has found a user sending a double-tagged 802.1Q frame to a switch. What is the best solution to prevent this type of attack?

a)
  • The VLANs for user access ports should be different VLANs than any native VLANs used on trunk ports.

b)
  • Trunk ports should use the default VLAN as the native VLAN number.

c)
  • Trunk ports should be configured with port security.

d)
  • The native VLAN number used on any trunk should be one of the active data VLANs.

37.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring IPv6 routing on the network. Which command issued on router HQ will configure a default route to the Internet to forward packets to an IPv6 destination network that is not listed in the routing table?​

a)
  • ipv6 route ::/0 serial 0/0/0

b)
  • ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1/1

c)
  • ipv6 route ::1/0 serial 0/1/1

d)
  • ipv6 route ::/0 serial 0/1/1

38.

Which three statements accurately describe duplex and speed settings on Cisco 2960 switches? (Choose three.)

a)
  • An autonegotiation failure can result in connectivity issues.

b)
  • Enabling autonegotiation on a hub will prevent mismatched port speeds when connecting the hub to the switch.

c)
  • By default, the speed is set to 100 Mb/s and the duplex mode is set to autonegotiation.

d)
  • The duplex and speed settings of each switch port can be manually configured.

e)
  • When the speed is set to 1000 Mb/s, the switch ports will operate in full-duplex mode.

39.

Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)

a)
  • RSTP

b)
  • Rapid PVST+

c)
  • PVST+

d)

STP

40.

A WLAN engineer deploys a WLC and five wireless APs using the CAPWAP protocol with the DTLS feature to secure the control plane of the network devices. While testing the wireless network, the WLAN engineer notices that data traffic is being exchanged between the WLC and the APs in plain-text and is not being encrypted. What is the most likely reason for this?

a)
  • Although DTLS is enabled by default to secure the CAPWAP control channel, it is disabled by default for the data channel.

b)
  • Data encryption requires a DTLS license to be installed on each access point (AP) prior to being enabled on t

c)
  • DTLS is a protocol that only provides security between the access point (AP) and the wireless client.

d)
  • DTLS only provides data security through authentication and does not provide encryption for data moving between a wireless LAN controller (WLC) and an access point (AP).

41.

What action takes place when the source MAC address of a frame entering a switch is not in the MAC address table?

a)
  • The switch will forward the The switch forwards the frame out of the specified port.


b)
  • The switch forwards the frame out of the specified port.

c)
  • The switch adds the MAC address and incoming port number to the table.

d)

purr

42.

An administrator notices that large numbers of packets are being dropped on one of the branch routers. What should be done or checked?

a)
  • Check the routing table for a missing static route.

b)
  • Check the statistics on the default route for oversaturation

c)
  • Create extra static routes to the same location with an AD of 1.

d)
  • Create static routes to all internal networks and a default route to the internet.

43.

What is a result of connecting two or more switches together?

a)
  • The number of broadcast domains is increased.

b)
  • The size of the broadcast domain is increased.

c)
  • The number of collision domains is reduced.

d)
  • The size of the collision domain is increased.

44.

A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator use RADIUS servers on the network?

a)
  • to centralize management of multiple WLANs

b)
  • to monitor the operation of the wireless network

c)
  • to restrict access to the WLAN by authorized, authenticated users only

d)
  • to facilitate group configuration and management of multiple WLANs through a WLC

45.

A network administrator has configured a router for stateless DHCPv6 operation. However, users report that workstations are not receiving DNS server information. Which two router configuration lines should be verified to ensure that stateless DHCPv6 service is properly configured? (Choose two.)

a)
  • The dns-server line is included in the ipv6 dhcp pool section.

b)
  • The ipv6 nd other-config-flag is entered for the interface that faces the LAN segment.

c)
  • The address prefix line is included in the ipv6 dhcp pool section.

  • .

d)
  • The ipv6 nd managed-config-flag is entered for the interface that faces the LAN segment

46.

A junior technician was adding a route to a LAN router. A traceroute to a device on the new network revealed a wrong path and unreachable status. What should be done or checked?

a)
  • Create a floating static route to that network.

  • Check the

b)
  • configuration on the floating static route and adjust the AD.

c)
  • Check the configuration of the exit interface on the new static route.

d)
  • Verify that the static route to the server is present in the routing table.

47.

A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator apply WPA2 with AES to the WLAN?

a)
  • to reduce the risk of unauthorized APs being added to the network

b)
  • to centralize management of multiple WLANs

c)
  • to provide prioritized service for time-sensitive applications

d)
  • to provide privacy and integrity to wireless traffic by using encryption

48.

What is the effect of entering the ip dhcp snooping limit rate 6 configuration command on a switch?

a)
  • It displays the IP-to-MAC address associations for switch interfaces.

b)
  • It enables port security globally on the switch.

c)
  • It restricts the number of discovery messages, per second, to be received on the interface.

d)
  • It dynamically learns the L2 address and copies it to the running configuration.

49.

What is the effect of entering the ip arp inspection validate src-mac configuration command on a switch?

a)
  • It checks the source L2 address in the Ethernet header against the sender L2 address in the ARP body.

b)
  • It disables all trunk ports.

c)
  • It enables portfast on a specific switch interface.

d)
  • It displays the IP-to-MAC address associations for switch interfaces.

50.

Which Cisco solution helps prevent ARP spoofing and ARP poisoning attacks?

a)
  • Dynamic ARP Inspection

b)
  • IP Source Guard

c)
  • DHCP Snooping

d)
  • Port Security

51.

What is an advantage of PVST+?

a)
  • PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.

b)
  • PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.

c)
  • PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP that use CST.

d)
  • PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.

52.

What defines a host route on a Cisco router?

a)
  • The link-local address is added automatically to the routing table as an IPv6 host route.

b)
  • An IPv4 static host route configuration uses a destination IP address of a specific device and a /32 subnet mask.

c)
  • A host route is designated with a C in the routing table.

d)
  • A static IPv6 host route must include the interface type and the interface number of the next hop router.

53.

A technician is configuring a wireless network for a small business using a SOHO wireless router. Which two authentication methods are used, if the router is configured with WPA2? (Choose two.)

a)
  • personal

b)
  • AES

c)

  • TKIP

d)
  • enterprise

54.

Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?

a)
  • extended system ID

b)
  • bridge priority

c)
  • IP address

d)
  • MAC address