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Unit 11 CBT PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes a “resource control process” in an investigation?

a)

The process of limiting financial spending only

b)

Managing staff, equipment, and budget to ensure an effective investigation

c)

Monitoring workers’ attendance during inspections

d)

Controlling access to office premises

2.

Why is resource control important during an OHS investigation?

a)

It prevents unauthorized personnel from reporting incidents

b)

It ensures that resources are allocated efficiently for evidence gathering

c)

It guarantees no disciplinary action is taken

d)

It allows investigators to avoid documentation

3.

What is a key consideration when allocating resources for an OHS investigation?

a)

Media coverage of the incident

b)

Availability of external contractors

c)

Risk level and potential impact of the incident

d)

Number of previous inspections

4.

The most critical resource in managing an investigation is often:

a)

The organization’s financial department

b)

Human resources (competent investigators)

c)

Legal department

d)

Public relations team

5.

Which of the following ensures evidence integrity?

a)

Collecting evidence without labeling

b)

Maintaining a clear chain of custody

c)

Allowing multiple people to handle samples freely

d)

Storing evidence without documentation

6.

What is the first step when collecting physical evidence from an incident site?

a)

Move all items to a safe storage room

b)

Photograph and record their original location and condition

c)

Ask witnesses to describe the items

d)

Store all evidence in one container

7.

Documentary evidence may include:

a)

Photographs only

b)

Witness statements and inspection records

c)

Machinery samples

d)

Substances and residues

8.

The most secure method of storing collected samples is:

a)

Unlocked cabinets

b)

Sealed, labeled containers in controlled storage

c)

Investigator’s personal office drawers

d)

Common storage areas

9.

When evidence is transferred between personnel, the process should:

a)

Be informal

b)

Be recorded in the chain of custody log

c)

Not require authorization

d)

Be handled verbally

10.

The main objective of a regulatory authority in an OHS investigation is to:

a)

Punish offenders only

b)

Ensure compliance and prevent recurrence of hazards

c)

Protect employer interests

d)

Avoid court proceedings

11.

Which of the following is not a primary function of an OHS regulatory authority?

a)

Enforcement of safety legislation

b)

Providing training and advice

c)

Representing employees in union matters

12.

Regulatory authorities often base their actions on:

a)

Political influence

b)

Risk-based assessment and legal mandate

c)

Media reports

d)

Financial incentives

13.

"Giving advice" as an enforcement action is considered:

a)

Mandatory

b)

Discretionary

c)

Judicial

d)

Criminal

14.

Which of the following represents a mandatory enforcement action?

a)

Providing verbal advice

b)

Issuing statutory notices

c)

Consulting management only

d)

Recommending best practices

15.

Improvement notices are typically issued to:

a)

Punish noncompliance

b)

Require employers to correct unsafe practices within a timeframe

c)

Close the business immediately

d)

Collect fines

16.

Prohibition notices are used when:

a)

There is a minor paperwork issue

b)

A risk of serious personal injury exists

c)

The inspector needs more time to assess

d)

A workplace wants to appeal

17.

Instituting proceedings is generally reserved for:

a)

Low-risk violations

b)

Repeated or serious breaches of legislation

c)

Informal discussions

d)

Training purposes

18.

The term sufficiency refers to whether evidence:

a)

Is sufficient to meet legal requirements

b)

Was collected on time

c)

Comes from multiple witnesses

d)

Matches the investigator’s opinion

19.

Reliability of evidence means that it:

a)

Is consistent, accurate, and can be verified

b)

Was collected quickly

c)

Supports the investigator’s hypothesis

d)

Comes from a senior employee

20.

Evidence admissibility refers to:

a)

Whether evidence can legally be presented in court

b)

How strong the evidence is emotionally

c)

Whether the manager approves it

d)

The number of witnesses available

21.

When identifying environmental evidence, investigators should consider:

a)

Weather, lighting, and layout conditions

b)

Employee salaries

c)

Office decoration

d)

Transport routes

22.

Physical evidence from machinery should always be:

a)

Repaired before inspection

b)

Left untouched until documented

c)

Cleaned before photographing

d)

Removed immediately

23.

Evidence from substances may require:

a)

Chemical analysis or laboratory testing

b)

Verbal confirmation only

c)

Destruction after inspection

d)

Simple observation

24.

Photographic evidence is valuable because it:

a)

Can replace witness testimony

b)

Provides a permanent visual record of the scene

25.

Documentary evidence includes:

a)

Inspection reports and training records

b)

Scrap materials

c)

Employee clothing

d)

Machine samples

26.

Witness evidence must be collected:

a)

Without recording

b)

As soon as possible while memory is fresh

c)

Only after legal proceedings

d)

Only from managers

27.

Samples taken for lab testing should be:

a)

Labeled, sealed, and documented

b)

Mixed for efficiency

c)

Stored in unmarked containers

d)

Kept at room temperature always

28.

Approved Codes of Practice (ACOPs) are:

a)

Legally binding by themselves

b)

Used as guidance that can support legal compliance

c)

Optional and irrelevant

d)

Written by employers only

29.

Organizational procedures are significant because they:

a)

Reflect how legislation is applied within a company

b)

Replace national law

c)

Are informal suggestions

d)

Eliminate the need for regulatory oversight

30.

Standards such as ISO 45001 are:

a)

Optional frameworks to improve OHS management systems

b)

Mandatory criminal laws

c)

Marketing tools only

d)

Unrelated to safety investigations

31.

Guidance from international bodies such as ILO or WHO is important because:

4 lines
32.

Occupational licensing ensures that:

a)

Only qualified persons perform specific high-risk tasks

b)

Employers save money

c)

Workers can change jobs freely

d)

Investigations are unnecessary

33.

Occupational health legislation primarily aims to:

a)

Manage attendance records

b)

Protect the physical and mental wellbeing of workers

c)

Improve productivity only

d)

Enforce marketing strategies

34.

Safety and security requirements help ensure:

a)

Protection of persons, property, and the environment

b)

Increased operational costs

c)

Limitation of worker access to sites

d)

Productivity reduction

35.

Which of the following best defines a “code of practice”?

a)

A detailed guide to achieve compliance with legislation

b)

An optional document with no purpose

c)

A legal penalty notice

d)

A performance award system

36.

A guideline differs from legislation because it:

a)

Provides advice rather than enforceable rules

b)

Carries mandatory penalties

c)

Has higher authority than law

d)

Is used only internally

37.

During an OHS investigation, an inspector finds that records have been altered. The evidence’s reliability is now:

a)

Compromised

b)

Enhanced

c)

Unchanged

d)

Verified

38.

Which of the above is the correct answer?

a)

Improved

b)

Compromised

c)

Unchanged

d)

Legally binding

39.

An enforcement officer decides to give verbal advice rather than issue a notice. This demonstrates:

a)

Mandatory enforcement

b)

Use of discretion

c)

Avoidance of responsibility

d)

Misconduct

40.

When a laboratory test confirms the presence of a hazardous chemical, this evidence is:

a)

Direct physical evidence

b)

Hearsay

c)

Irrelevant

d)

Inadmissible

41.

Evidence collected without maintaining chain of custody is likely to be:

a)

Admissible but weak

b)

Inadmissible in legal proceedings

c)

Strengthened by witness support

d)

Unaffected

42.

A company follows its own procedures that meet national legislation. These procedures are:

a)

Noncompliant

b)

Legally defensible

c)

Unenforceable

d)

Invalid

43.

If a workplace accident results from noncompliance with an ACOP, enforcement officers may:

a)

Ignore it

b)

Use the ACOP to demonstrate a breach of the law

c)

Treat it as civil misconduct

d)

Cancel the investigation

44.

An inspector deciding between improvement or prohibition notice must assess:

a)

Severity and immediacy of risk

b)

The company’s reputation

c)

The manager’s behavior

d)

Worker complaints

45.

A report that accurately details findings and evidence demonstrates compliance with:

a)

Reporting requirements of OHS investigations

b)

Marketing procedures

c)

Financial control standards

d)

Legal exemption rules

46.

A regulatory authority’s decision to prosecute is influenced mainly by:

a)

Evidence strength and public interest

b)

Media attention

c)

Employer’s financial capacity

d)

Political opinions

47.

Which is an example of documentary evidence?

a)

CCTV footage

b)

Safety training certificates

c)

Broken machinery parts

d)

Soil samples

48.

A properly written investigation report must include:

a)

Findings, evidence, analysis, and conclusions

b)

Personal opinions only

c)

Company history

d)

Confidential salary details

49.

When witness statements conflict, investigators should:

a)

Dismiss all witnesses

b)

Compare statements against physical evidence and records

c)

Choose the most senior person’s account

d)

Assume human error

50.

Laboratory test results of samples can be used to:

a)

Corroborate other types of evidence

b)

Replace physical evidence

c)

Avoid documentation

d)

Delay the investigation