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Worksheets

Antianginals + Antihypertensives

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient on nitroglycerin reports dizziness and flushing after applying a new patch. The nurse should:

a)

Remove the patch immediately

b)

Reassure the patient this is common and self-limiting

c)

Call the provider for a lower dose

d)

Apply two patches to improve tolerance

2.

Which concurrent medication requires the strongest contraindication with nitrates?

a)

Metoprolol

b)

Sildenafil

c)

Furosemide

d)

Diltiazem

3.

When administering IV nitroglycerin, the nurse should:

a)

Use an infusion pump and monitor BP closely

b)

Give via IV push

c)

Keep the line open with dextrose only

d)

Titrate rapidly for quick effect

4.

A patient develops tolerance to long-acting nitrates. Nursing intervention:

a)

Schedule a daily nitrate-free period of at least 8 hours

b)

Increase dose at night

c)

Apply patches continuously

d)

Administer extra caffeine

5.

Which statement by a patient on isosorbide mononitrate requires further teaching?

a)

“I will sit down if I feel dizzy.”

b)

“If I miss a dose, I’ll double the next one.”

c)

“I’ll avoid alcohol while taking this.”

d)

“I’ll check my blood pressure daily.”

6.

For beta-blocker therapy in angina, which effect is expected?

a)

Increased HR and contractility

b)

Reduced HR and myocardial oxygen demand

c)

Increased cardiac output

d)

Decreased filling time

7.

Which sign warrants immediate intervention in a patient taking atenolol?

a)

HR 58 bpm

b)

BP 100/60 mm Hg

c)

HR 40 bpm with dizziness

d)

Mild fatigue

8.

Calcium channel blockers treat angina by:

a)

Blocking calcium to reduce myocardial contraction and cause vasodilation

b)

Increasing calcium to strengthen the heartbeat

c)

Promoting sodium retention

d)

Increasing afterload

9.

A patient on verapamil develops constipation. The nurse should:

a)

Educate about increased fiber and fluids

b)

Discontinue drug immediately

c)

Add an NSAID for relief

d)

Ignore unless severe

10.

Which fruit should a patient on amlodipine avoid?

a)

Grapefruit

b)

Bananas

c)

Apples

d)

Oranges

11.

A nurse expects which mechanism for clonidine in hypertension management?

a)

Stimulates central α2 receptors, decreasing norepinephrine release

b)

Blocks β2 receptors peripherally

c)

Promotes renin secretion

d)

Increases aldosterone

12.

Which finding is most important after giving the first dose of an α1 blocker?

a)

Orthostatic hypotension

b)

Polyuria

c)

Headache

d)

Bradycardia

13.

A patient on clonidine stops the medication abruptly. What’s the risk?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Rebound hypertension

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypoglycemia

14.

ACE inhibitors end with which suffix?

a)

"-pril"

b)

"-sartan"

c)

"-lol"

d)

"-dipine"

15.

Which adverse effect is unique to ACE inhibitors?

a)

Dry, nonproductive cough

b)

Constipation

c)

Reflex tachycardia

d)

Sedation

16.

A patient on lisinopril develops facial swelling and difficulty breathing. Priority action:

a)

Stop drug; suspect angioedema

b)

Give antihistamines and continue

c)

Document and monitor

d)

Reduce dose

17.

Which statement indicates understanding of ACE inhibitors in diabetes?

a)

“They raise my blood sugar.”

b)

“They help protect my kidneys from damage.”

c)

“They increase my potassium loss.”

d)

“They are unsafe for me.”

18.

ARBs differ from ACE inhibitors in that:

a)

They block angiotensin II receptors directly

b)

They prevent renin release

c)

They increase bradykinin

d)

They cause more cough

19.

Common adverse effect of ARBs:

a)

Chest pain and fatigue

b)

Severe cough

c)

Gynecomastia

d)

Bradycardia

20.

Which hypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy?

a)

Losartan

b)

Hydralazine

c)

Methyldopa

d)

Labetalol

21.

ACE inhibitors improve heart failure by:

a)

Decreasing preload and afterload

b)

Increasing SVR

c)

Causing fluid retention

d)

Stimulating aldosterone

22.

A patient on hydralazine reports joint pain and rash. Possible cause?

a)

Drug-induced lupus

b)

Dehydration

c)

Electrolyte imbalance

d)

Allergic rhinitis

23.

When giving hydralazine IV, monitor for:

a)

Reflex tachycardia and hypotension

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hyperkalemia

24.

Which patient education is vital for male patients on antihypertensives?

a)

Possible impotence can affect compliance

b)

"This drug enhances libido."

c)

"Report any increased urination."

d)

"You’ll need to take with milk."

25.

Which combination increases risk for hyperkalemia?

a)

ACE inhibitor with potassium supplements

b)

Beta blocker with loop diuretic

c)

CCB with nitrates

d)

Alpha blocker with clonidine

26.

Which antihypertensive has dual action similar to carvedilol?

a)

Labetalol

b)

Atenolol

c)

Amlodipine

d)

Clonidine

27.

When combining a beta blocker and nitrate, the nurse should watch for:

a)

Excessive hypotension or bradycardia

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Reflex hypertension

d)

Peripheral edema only

28.

Which patient teaching prevents orthostatic falls with antihypertensives?

a)

Rise slowly and dangle legs before standing

b)

Drink less water

c)

Lie flat after each dose

d)

Take dose only at night

29.

For all antihypertensives, which statement reflects critical patient education?

a)

“Do not stop medication abruptly, even if you feel well.”

b)

“Skip doses if BP seems normal.”

c)

“Take extra if BP is high.”

d)

“You can drink alcohol to relax.”

30.

Labetalol lowers BP primarily by

a)

Causing sodium retention

b)

Increasing renin

c)

Stimulating β₂ receptors

d)

Blocking β₁ and α₁ receptors to reduce HR and vasodilate