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Ready, Set, 70!

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

 Which assessment finding indicates that dehydration is progressing to hypovolemic shock?

a)

Warm, flushed skin and bounding pulses

b)

BP 88/54 mm Hg with delayed capillary refill

c)

Bradycardia with increased urine output

d)

Moist mucous membranes and clear lung sounds

2.

 

Daniel Reed, a 45-year-old male, is admitted with severe diarrhea for three days. He reports weakness, confusion, and muscle cramps.
• Labs: ↓K, Ca²⁺, Na, HCO₃⁻ Which assessment finding requires the nurse’s immediate intervention?

a)

Irregular heart rhythm on ECG

b)

Muscle cramping in the lower extremities

c)

Mild confusion and dry mucous membranes

d)

Serum sodium of 148 mEq/L

3.

The patient has hypoxia and a fluid volume deficit

which action should the nurse take first?

a)

Administer isotonic IV fluids

b)

Place patient on 2 L/min oxygen via nasal cannula

c)

Assess electrolyte levels

d)

Obtain urine output

4.

Which ECG change would the nurse anticipate due to a patient's low potassium?

a)

Shortened QT interval

b)

Flattened T waves and presence of U waves

c)

Peaked T waves

d)

ST-segment elevation

5.

Which finding best indicates the need for cardiac monitoring?

a)

Serum sodium of 150 mEq/L

b)

SpO₂ 92% on 2 L oxygenr

c)

Respiratory rate of 28/min

d)

Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L

6.

What electrolyte imbalance is most associated with confusion, seizures and coma

a)

Hyponatremia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Hypocalcemia

d)

Hypercalcemia

7.

What electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with muscle weakness, cramps, arrhythmias and metabolic alkalosis?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hypophosphatemia

8.

All of the following symptoms can be seen in both hypokalemia and hypercalcemia except:

a)

Fatigue

b)

Muscle weakness

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Arrythmias

9.

Both hypernatremia and hyponatremia primarily cause which of the following clinical manifestations?

a)

Bradycardia and hypotension

b)

A) Muscle weakness and arrhythmias

c)

Confusion, irritability, and seizures

d)

Increased bowel motility and diarrhea

10.

What condition does this patient have?

a)

Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

b)

Compensated respiratory acidosis

c)

Uncompensated metabolic acidosis

d)

Compensated metabolic acidosis

11.

What acid-base imbalance does this patient have?

a)

Compensated metabolic alkalosis

b)

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis

c)

Compensated respiratory alkalosis

d)

Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

12.

Which client statement reflects understanding of HAART adherence teaching?

a)

“If I miss a dose, I’ll take two the next day to catch up.”

b)

“Taking my medications at the same time daily helps prevent resistance.”

c)

“Stopping the drugs occasionally will help my body rest.”

d)

“If I feel better, I can take a break from the medications.”

13.

Both hypocalcemia and hypercalcemia affect the QT interval. Which of the following statements are true? (Select all that apply)

a)

Hypocalcemia prolongs the QT interval.

b)

Hypercalcemia shortens the QT interval.

c)

Both hypocalcemia and hypercalcemia increase the risk of cardiac arrhythmias

d)

Hypocalcemia shortens the QT interval.

e)

Hypercalcemia can lead to ventricular arrhythmias.

14.

Which assessment finding would alert the nurse to progression toward anaphylaxis in this client?

a)

Mild pruritus around the mouth

b)

Increasing throat tightness and hoarse voice

c)

Nasal congestion and watery eyes

d)

Transient abdominal cramping

15.

Maria Lopez experiences oral itching and throat tightness after eating fruit salad. Which instruction should the nurse prioritize?


a)

“Avoid kiwi, banana, and avocado since they can cross-react with latex.”

b)

“Carry an oral antihistamine for future mild allergic symptoms.”

c)

“You can safely consume fruits if cooked or blended.”

d)

“Latex reactions do not usually involve foods, so no dietary changes are needed.”

16.

After administering epinephrine, which nursing assessment finding would indicate the most effective response for a patient with anaphylaxis?


Rationale: Improved oxygen saturation shows successful reversal of bronchoconstriction. Mild tachycardia is expected; hypotension would signal ongoing anaphylaxis.

a)

Heart rate increases to 110 bpm

b)

Skin becomes flushed and warm

c)

Oxygen saturation rises from 86% to 95%

d)

Blood pressure remains 84/48 mm Hg

17.

After eating peanuts, James Carter develops wheezing, hives, and hypotension. What is the priority nursing action?


a)

Administer oxygen and prepare for intubation

b)

Place the patient supine with legs elevated

c)

Give IM epinephrine in the mid-anterolateral thigh

d)

Administer IV diphenhydramine for histamine blockade

18.

Hypotension and rapid breathing in a neutropenic patient with fever most likely indicate (a)   .

19.

David Kim has an ANC of 350. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

“I’ll check my temperature every 4 hours and report anything above 100.4°F.”

b)

“I’ll avoid crowds and anyone with colds or infections.”

c)

“I can take aspirin if I develop a mild fever.”

d)

“I’ll wash my hands before eating or touching my face.”

20.

Q2. Which finding shows ART effectiveness?

a)

HIV is eradicated

b)

A decreasing CD4 count

c)

A stable or increased CD4 count

d)

A positive HIV antibody test

21.

Which statement by David’s parents demonstrates a correct understanding of IVIG therapy?

a)

“This treatment helps his body make antibodies for future infections.”

b)

“The antibodies he’s receiving will protect him temporarily.”

c)

“He won’t need vaccines after this treatment.”

d)

“IVIG will permanently strengthen his immune system.”

22.

Which room assignment is most appropriate for Maria Lopez who is on neutropenic precautions?

a)

Semi-private room with curtain

b)

Shared room with another neutropenic client

c)

Private room with closed door

d)

An isolation room with no visitors permitted

23.

A neutropenic client has a temperature of 101.8. Which action should the nurse take first?
r

a)

Administer acetaminophen for fever

b)

Notify the provider and obtain ordered cultures

c)

Begin oral hydration

d)

Reassess temperature in one hour

24.

Which statement by the client shows correct understanding of neutropenic precautions?

a)

“I should avoid brushing my teeth.”

b)

“I’ll avoid gardening and use stool softeners if needed.”

c)

"I should wash my hands before meals"

d)

"I should eat fresh salad and soft cheese"

25.

Q2. Which preventive strategy will help to reduce asthma exacerbations?

a)

Limiting exercise

b)

Staying current on vaccinations

c)

Avoiding exposure to fresh air

d)

Using daily albuterol doses

26.

Sarah reports using her albuterol inhaler several times daily. Which nursing action is priority?

a)

Document use as “effective self-management.”

b)

Assess for poor asthma control and need for maintenance therapy.

c)

Encourage increasing inhaler use as needed.

d)

Notify the provider to increase albuterol dose.

27.

Which finding indicates progression from COPD to cor pulmonale?

Rationale: JVD and edema reflect systemic venous congestion from right-sided heart failure secondary to COPD.

a)

Barrel chest

b)

Clubbing of fingers

c)

Jugular vein distention and peripheral edema

d)

D. Dyspnea on exertion

28.


Which assessment findings suggest the need to increase a patient’s fluid intake? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Thick, tenacious sputum and dry oral mucosa

b)

Decreased urine output and concentrated urine

c)

Brisk capillary refill and JVD

d)

Hypotension and tachycardia

e)

Flat neck veins when the patient is supine

29.

Linda refuses her influenza vaccine, stating she “never gets sick.” Which nursing response demonstrates therapeutic communication?

a)

“Vaccines are required for COPD patients.”

b)

Let’s discuss how vaccines can prevent COPD flare-ups.”

c)

“Skipping vaccines increases your infection risk.”

d)

D. “You should reconsider because it is for your health”

30.

The nurse should question which order for a client with pneumonia?

a)

Obtain sputum culture before antibiotics

b)

Administer acetaminophen for fever

c)

Start antibiotics immediately after cultures

d)

Collect sputum after the first antibiotic dose

31.

Which finding most strongly suggests hypoxia related to pneumonia?

a)

Wheezing on auscultation

b)

Confusion and disorientation

c)

Crackles in the lower lobes

d)

Fever and tachypnea

32.


Mark is using accessory muscles, signaling increased respiratory effort and severe oxygen deprivation. Which nursing actions have the highest priority? (Select all that apply.)

a)
  • Apply oxygen as prescribed and assess the patient’s response.

b)
  • Elevate the head of the bed to promote lung expansion.

c)
  • Stay with the patient and closely monitor respiratory status.

d)
  • Prepare to obtain arterial blood gases (ABGs) to evaluate oxygenation and ventilation.

e)
  • Administer an opioid to reduce anxiety and respiratory effort.

33.

Which finding after sputum collection requires immediate follow-up?

a)

Productive cough and thick yellow sputum

b)

Hypoxia and absent breath sounds on one side

c)

Rhonchi breath sound

d)

Patient reports fatigue

34.

Which symptom indicates early hypoxia rather than late?
=

a)

Cyanosis

b)

Bradypnea

c)

Agitation

d)

Coma

35.

The nurse recognizes that diarrhea causes acidosis primarily through loss of:

a)

Hydrogen ions

b)

Bicarbonate ions

c)

Potassium ions

d)

Sodium ions

36.

The patient has receive oxygen for hypoxemia. Which outcome best indicates improvement?

a)

PaO₂ increased to 90 mmHg

b)

pH decreased to 7.28

c)

CO₂ increased to 50 mmHg

d)

Oxygen saturation at 88%

37.

Which clinical finding supports partial respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis?

Rationale: The body hyperventilates to expel CO₂, compensating for metabolic acidosis.

a)

Slow, shallow respirations

b)

Rapid, deep respirations

c)

Normal respiratory pattern

d)

Irregular, gasping respirations

38.

Which ABG pattern confirms partial compensation?

a)

pH normal, low CO₂, low HCO₃⁻

b)

pH low, low CO₂, low HCO₃⁻

c)

pH high, high CO₂, normal HCO₃⁻

d)

pH normal, normal CO₂, low HCO₃⁻

39.

What is the primary reason hypokalemia occurs in metabolic alkalosis?

a)

Potassium shifts out of cells and into the blood

b)

Potassium shifts into cells

c)

Increased renal potassium retention

d)

Excessive dietary potassium intake

40.

Which ECG finding requires related to metabolic alkalosis and potassium loss requires immediate intervention?

a)

Flat T waves

b)

Shortened PR interval

c)

Prolonged QT interval

d)

Sinus bradycardia

41.

Which food choice shows effective understanding of potassium-rich foods?

a)

Baked potato with skin

b)

White rice

c)

Applesauce

d)

Cottage cheese

42.

Which sign best confirms hypermagnesemia in a patient with adrenal insufficiency?

a)

Hyperreflexia

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Decreased deep tendon reflexes

d)

Muscle twitching and irritability

43.

Which medication would reverse the effects of severe hypermagnesemia?

a)

Potassium chloride

b)

Calcium gluconate

c)

Sodium bicarbonate

d)

Magnesium sulfate

44.

Which intervention prevents a dangerous complication during sodium correction in a patient with hypernatremia?

a)

Rapid administration of hypotonic fluids

b)

Gradual reduction of serum sodium

c)

Encouraging sodium-rich foods

d)

Avoiding all IV fluids

45.

What is the physiologic cause of seizure risk in hypernatremia?

a)

Neuronal swelling due to low sodium

b)

Myelin sheath destruction

c)

Increased potassium in cerebrospinal fluid

d)

Brain cell shrinkage due to water loss

46.

Which IV fluid order should the nurse question for a client with hypernatremia and seizure risk?

a)

0.9% Normal saline

b)

0.45% Normal saline

c)

D5W (5% dextrose in water)

d)

Oral water intake as tolerated

47.

Which finding indicates hypocalcemia rather than hypercalcemia?

a)

Bone pain

b)

Dysrhythmias

c)

Hyperreflexia

d)

Dehydration

48.

A patient who recently underwent a thyroidectomy has developed stridor. The nurse recognizes this may result from parathyroid gland damage leading to hypocalcemia. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Document the findings

b)

Administer oral calcium

c)

Prepare emergency airway equipment

d)

Encourage deep breathing

49.

A patient with hypercalcemia is at risk for ventricular arrhythmias due to a shortened QT interval. Which of the following nursing interventions are appropriate to prevent cardiac complications? (Select all that apply.)


a)

Initiate IV isotonic fluid therapy

b)

Monitor cardiac rhythm continuously

c)

Encourage strict bedrest to reduce cardiac workload

d)

Prepare to administer IV calcium gluconate if ordered

e)

Restrict oral fluid intake to prevent overload

50.

Which physiological alteration causes the symptoms of perioral tingling and positive Trousseau’s and Chvostek’s signs?

a)

Decreased neuromuscular excitability

b)

Increased neuromuscular excitability

c)

Depressed central nervous system activity

d)

Reduced sympathetic tone

51.

Which meal choice indicates effective patient teaching about hypercalcemia diet?

a)

Grilled salmon with spinach

b)

Tofu with almond topping

c)

Chicken salad with apple slices

d)

Yogurt parfait with fortified cereal

52.

Why is maintaining adequate hydration crucial in managing hypercalcemia?

a)

It helps flush excess calcium through the kidneys.

b)

It prevents gastrointestinal absorption of calcium.

c)

It decreases bone resorption

d)

It neutralizes calcium ions.

53.

Which assessment finding would require prompt re-evaluation of a treatment plan for a patient with hypercalcemia?

a)

Fatigue

b)

Nausea and vomiting

c)

Increased thirst

d)

Mild constipation

54.

Which finding best reflects effective treatment of a client with hypervolemia?

a)

Persistent orthopnea

b)

Decreasing serum osmolality

c)

Rising serum osmolality

d)

Stable weight but persistent edema

55.

When monitoring a client for pulmonary edema, which assessment requires immediate intervention?

a)

Weight gain

b)

Fatigue with activity

c)

Crackles at lung bases and new shortness of breath

56.

Which laboratory trend would indicate worsening fluid volume excess in Karen Mitchell?

a)

Rising hematocrit and BUN

b)

Increasing serum sodium

c)

Decreasing urine specific gravity

d)

Elevated blood osmolality

57.


Which order should be carried out first for a patient with pneumonia and hypoxia?

a)

Administer IV antibiotics

b)

Collect sputum culture

c)

Apply oxygen therapy

d)

Administer acetaminophen

58.

Which parameter best reflects improved fluid volume status?

a)

Rising blood pressure and improved perfusion

b)

Clear lung sounds

c)

Decreased temperature

d)

Improved appetite

59.

A patient presents with hypovolemia and low potassium levels. Which nursing action should be questioned?


a)

Obtain blood cultures

b)

Initiate isotonic fluid bolus

c)

Administer spironolactone

d)

Place on seizure precautions

60.

Which electrolyte imbalance poses the greatest cardiac risk?

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hypomagnesemia

61.

Which lab result aligns with fluid volume excess?

a)

Decreased serum osmolarity

b)

Increased hematocrit

c)

Increased BUN

d)

Elevated sodium

62.

Which assessment findings and laboratory results indicate fluid volume deficit? (Select all that apply)

a)

Hypotension and weak peripheral pulses

b)

Urine output <30 mL/hr

c)

Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and hematocrit

d)

E. Jugular vein distention

e)

Decreased serum sodium

63.


Which finding requires immediate nursing intervention in a client with fluid volume deficit?

a)

Skin tenting

b)

Fever 100.1 °F

c)

BP 88/54 mm Hg and confusion

d)

Dry mucous membranes

64.

Which of the following parameters best indicate a client’s cardiac recovery? (Select all that apply)


a)

Clear lung sounds without crackles

b)

Consistent urine output greater than 30 mL/hr

c)

Decreasing peripheral edema

d)

Tachycardia

e)

Rising BP

65.

Which finding warrants immediate intervention post-MI?

a)

Mild anxiety

b)

Crackles in lung bases

c)

140/90 mm Hg

d)

Heart rate 88 bpm

66.



A patient with dilutional hyponatremia is receiving care. Which healthcare provider order should the nurse question?


a)

Daily weights to monitor fluid status

b)

0.45% normal saline IV

c)

Furosemide 40 mg PO

d)

Sodium restriction in the diet

67.

Which nursing action is most important for a client with hyponatremia risk?

a)

Restrict sodium intake

b)

Implement seizure precautions

c)

Offer hypotonic fluids

d)

Limit repositioning to conserve energy

68.

Which lab result supports fluid volume deficit?


a)

Sodium 130 mEq/L

b)

BUN 25 mg/dL and hematocrit 50%

c)

Serum osmolarity 270 mOsm/kg

d)

Urine specific gravity 1.005

69.

Which parameter best evaluates antibiotic effectiveness?

a)

CRP

b)

White blood cell count and temperature

c)

Urine output

d)

Heart rate

70.

The nurse prepares IV potassium chloride. Which statement demonstrates safe practice?

a)

Administer IV push at 10 mEq/min

b)

Dilute in 10 mL normal saline

c)

Infuse via pump using piggyback line

d)

Administer via central line