wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Investment Fundamentals & Bonds (Part 1)

Total questions: 49

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines Earnings Per Share (EPS)?

a)

Total revenue divided by total assets

b)

Net profit divided by outstanding common shares

c)

Share price divided by net income

d)

Dividends paid divided by number of shareholders

2.

Which formula correctly represents the Price-to-Earnings (P/E) Ratio?

a)

Stock Price divided by EPS

b)

Net Income divided by Outstanding Shares

c)

Annual Dividends divided by Stock Price

d)

EPS divided by Stock Price

3.

Dividend Yield is best described as:

a)

Annual dividends per share divided by stock price

b)

Net income divided by outstanding shares

c)

Gain from selling a stock above purchase price

d)

Stock price divided by annual dividends

4.

Which form of return is defined as profit from selling a stock at a higher price than purchased?

a)

Dividend Yield

b)

Capital Gains

c)

Interest Income

d)

Coupon Rate

5.

Dividends are:

a)

Corporate profit distributions to shareholders

b)

Fees paid to brokers when buying stocks

c)

Taxes on investment income

d)

Government payments to bondholders

6.

Which financial statement reports revenues, expenses, and net profit over a period?

a)

Balance Sheet

b)

Income Statement

c)

Cash Flow Forecast

d)

Statement of Owner’s Equity

7.

The Balance Sheet provides:

a)

A record of dividends paid during the year

b)

A snapshot of assets, liabilities, and owner’s equity at a point in time

c)

A list of daily stock prices

d)

A forecast of next quarter’s profits

8.

Which item is a marketplace for buying and selling stocks?

a)

Brokerage Account

b)

Stock Exchange

c)

Stock Index

d)

Limit Order

9.

A stock index is primarily used to:

a)

Set the coupon rate for new bonds

b)

Benchmark the performance of a group of stocks

c)

Match buyers and sellers for individual trades

d)

Guarantee minimum returns to investors

10.

A market order instructs an investor to:

a)

Buy or sell only at a specified price or better

b)

Buy or sell immediately at the current best price

c)

Execute the trade only if the price reaches a trigger

d)

Borrow shares to sell them short

11.

Which order type triggers when price hits a preset level to limit losses or lock profits?

a)

Market Order

b)

Limit Order

c)

Stop Order

d)

Short Sale

12.

Short selling most accurately involves:

a)

Borrowing and selling shares to repurchase later at a lower price

b)

Buying shares and holding them for dividends

c)

Purchasing a bond at a discount to par value

d)

Selling shares after a long holding period for capital gains

13.

Which statement best defines a bond in this section?

a)

An ownership stake in a company with voting rights

b)

A debt security where the issuer borrows funds and promises repayment with interest

c)

A derivative contract used solely for hedging currency risk

d)

A savings account insured by the government

14.

Who is the issuer in the context of bonds?

a)

The investor lending money

b)

The entity borrowing funds (e.g., governments or corporations)

c)

The broker executing trades

d)

The rating agency evaluating credit risk

15.

Corporate bonds are issued primarily to:

a)

Finance federal budget deficits

b)

Raise capital for companies

c)

Provide tax-exempt income for local citizens

d)

Insure deposits at commercial banks

16.

Which bond type is typically tax-exempt and issued by local governments?

a)

Corporate Bonds

b)

Treasury Bonds

c)

Municipal Bonds

d)

Agency Bonds

17.

T-Bills, Treasury Notes, and Treasury Bonds are all examples of:

a)

Government bonds issued by the U.S. government

b)

Corporate debt issued by large companies

c)

Agency bonds for housing projects

d)

Municipal revenue bonds

18.

Agency bonds are issued by:

a)

Government-sponsored entities for purposes like housing or education

b)

Local governments to fund public works

c)

Private corporations to expand operations

d)

International organizations to finance trade

19.

Which item best matches the description: “Share price divided by earnings per share”?

a)

Dividend Yield

b)

Earnings Per Share

c)

Price-to-Earnings Ratio

d)

Beta

20.

Which term refers to the face value repaid to the bondholder at maturity?

a)

Coupon rate

b)

Par value

c)

Yield to maturity

d)

Market price

21.

What does the maturity date of a bond represent?

a)

The date the coupon rate is set

b)

The date periodic interest is first paid

c)

The date the principal is repaid

d)

The date the bond is issued

22.

Zero-coupon bonds are best described as which of the following?

a)

Bonds that pay interest monthly at a variable rate

b)

Bonds sold at a discount that pay no periodic interest but return full par at maturity

c)

Bonds that pay semi-annual interest and return par at maturity

d)

Bonds issued only by corporations with high ratings

23.

Which type of bond is generally considered the lowest risk due to government backing?

a)

Treasury bonds

b)

Municipal revenue bonds

c)

Corporate debentures

d)

Convertible bonds

24.

Which mutual fund type primarily targets companies expected to expand rapidly?

a)

Income fund

b)

Growth fund

c)

Index fund

d)

Balanced fund

25.

An income fund most likely focuses on what kind of securities?

a)

Non-dividend-paying growth stocks

b)

Dividend-paying stocks

c)

Foreign currency futures

d)

Zero-coupon bonds

26.

A growth and income fund aims to do which of the following?

a)

Eliminate volatility by holding only cash

b)

Balance growth potential and dividends

c)

Track the performance of a market index

d)

Invest solely in one industry

27.

Which fund invests primarily in one industry, such as technology or healthcare?

a)

Balanced fund

b)

Sector fund

c)

Index fund

d)

Asset allocation fund

28.

A balanced fund is best described as holding which mix?

a)

Only dividend-paying stocks

b)

Only government bonds

c)

A mix of stocks and bonds

d)

Cash equivalents only

29.

Which fund type diversifies across stocks, bonds, and cash to maintain a strategic mix?

a)

Asset allocation fund

b)

Growth fund

c)

Sector fund

d)

Target-date fund

30.

A target-date (life cycle) fund most likely adjusts its asset mix based on which factor?

a)

Inflation index changes

b)

Retirement date timeline

c)

Quarterly GDP growth

d)

Daily market volatility

31.

Which role is responsible for professionally overseeing a mutual fund’s investments?

a)

Custodian bank

b)

Fund manager

c)

Transfer agent

d)

Auditor

32.

What is a mutual fund prospectus primarily designed to provide?

a)

Daily trading signals

b)

Legal details on objectives, risks, fees, and performance

c)

Tax returns for prior years

d)

A list of all shareholders

33.

Using the formula NAV = (Assets − Liabilities) ÷ Number of Shares, what does NAV represent?

a)

The fund’s total market capitalization

b)

The per-share value of the mutual fund

c)

The fund’s annual expense ratio

d)

The load charged by the broker

34.

A mutual fund’s expense ratio is defined as which of the following?

a)

Annual operating costs as a percentage of assets

b)

A one-time front-end sales charge

c)

The tax rate on capital gains

d)

The fee paid only when selling shares

35.

Which statement best defines an Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF)?

a)

A savings account insured by a bank with fixed interest

b)

A basket of securities that trades like a single stock on an exchange

c)

A government bond that pays interest semiannually

d)

A company that manages retirement plans for employees

36.

In the context of ETFs, what are commissions?

a)

Taxes paid on capital gains

b)

Broker fees charged for executing trades

c)

The fund’s internal management expenses

d)

Penalties for selling shares too early

37.

What does margin purchasing of ETFs involve?

a)

Buying ETF shares using only cash on hand

b)

Buying ETF shares with borrowed funds

c)

Buying ETF shares directly from the fund sponsor

d)

Buying ETF shares only at the market close

38.

Which choice is an example of a collectible as an investment?

a)

A certificate of deposit with a fixed term

b)

A diversified bond index fund

c)

A rare baseball card valued for its scarcity

d)

A standard checking account

39.

In collectibles investing, appreciation or depreciation most directly depends on:

a)

Government-set interest rates only

b)

Rarity, demand, condition, or trends

c)

The issuer’s credit rating

d)

The fund manager’s stock-picking skill

40.

Which statement accurately defines cryptocurrency?

a)

Physical coins backed by gold reserves

b)

Digital assets secured by cryptography and blockchain for decentralized transactions

c)

Online bank accounts insured by a central authority

d)

Prepaid cards used for mobile payments

41.

What is a blockchain in the context of cryptocurrency?

a)

A private server owned by a single company

b)

A distributed ledger that records transactions

c)

A government database for fiat currency balances

d)

A cloud wallet for storing passwords

42.

Which feature distinguishes decentralized cryptocurrencies from fiat currency?

a)

They are printed by a national mint

b)

They have no central authority controlling the network

c)

They guarantee a fixed exchange rate

d)

They pay automatic interest to holders

43.

According to the vocabulary bank, what primarily drives the value of many cryptocurrencies when there are no underlying assets?

a)

Guaranteed dividends

b)

Supply and demand dynamics

c)

Government price controls

d)

Asset-backed collateral

44.

Which description matches Bitcoin (BTC)?

a)

A platform focused on smart contracts and applications

b)

The first and largest cryptocurrency by origin

c)

A meme-based token created as a joke

d)

A stablecoin pegged to the U.S. dollar

45.

Which description matches Ethereum (ETH)?

a)

A platform enabling smart contracts and decentralized apps

b)

The earliest cryptocurrency and original blockchain

c)

A collectible coin backed by precious metals

d)

A payment network run by a central bank

46.

Which description best fits Dogecoin (DOGE)?

a)

A government-issued digital currency

b)

A meme-based cryptocurrency

c)

A private blockchain used by banks

d)

An ETF that tracks technology stocks

47.

What might be one reason why a stock becomes more valuable over time?

a)

The industry is growing

b)

The company is poorly managed

c)

There is little demand for the product

d)

The industry is getting smaller

48.

Choose the type of investment that carries a lower amount of risk.

a)

Small Cap Stock

b)

S&P 500 Index ETF

49.

Based on the image, what is the current trading price of McDonald's stock?

a)

$188.50

b)

$186.75

c)

$24.43

d)

$1.75