wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

CCMA Module 1-7 Test

Total questions: 180

Worksheet time: 2hrs 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements describes a patient-centered medical home (PCHM)?

a)

It is an umbrella term for plans that provide health care in return for preset scheduled payment and care

b)

It is a care delivery model supported by an interdisciplinary team and led by a primary care provider (PCP).

c)

It is nursing care and therapy delivered to a patient in their home following an acute event

d)

It is an inpatient care facility for patients who are at the end of life .

2.

Which of the following is an impact of patient portals?

a)

increased wait time for results

b)

increased demand on the care team

c)

increased face to face visits

d)

increased transparency

3.

Which of the following is a component of the Quadruple Aim, which drives value based care?

a)

increased testing

b)

increased revenue

c)

improved patient outcomes

d)

improved prevention screening

4.

To which of the following allied health professionals should a medical assistant initiate a referral to for a provider who has ordered support to assist with improving a patient's range of motion?

a)

radiology technician

b)

occupational therapist

c)

nurse

d)

physical therapist

5.

Which of the following responsibilities is appropriate for a medical assistant who works in an administrative capacity?

a)

performing EKG

b)

preparing medications

c)

obtaining vital signs

d)

collecting copays

6.

Which of the following medication classifications should be used for a patient who is experiencing seasonal allergies?

a)

antihypertensives

b)

antihistamines

c)

diurectics

d)

antipyretics

7.

Which of the following schedules of controlled medications can be prescribed with up to a year's worth of refills, if authorized by the provider?

a)

Schedule II

b)

Schedule III

c)

Schedule IV

d)

Schedule V

8.

A patient who has chronic kidney disease is being directed to avoid ibuprofen due to the strain it puts on the kidneys. This is an example of which of the following?

a)

side effect

b)

adverse effect

c)

contraindication

d)

indication

9.

Which of the following actions of pharmacokinetics is most impacted by age?

a)

absorption

b)

distribution

c)

metabolism

d)

excretion

10.

Which of the following actions describes the medical assistant's role in confirming 'the right medication,' in terms of medication administration?

a)

assessing the benefits and risks of a medication

b)

stating the name of the medication, who ordered it and the intended effect of the medication

c)

informing the patient of the indication for the medication

d)

evaluating the patient for effects

11.

Albuterol is an example of which of the following medication classifications?

a)

anticoagulant

b)

bronchodilator

c)

antiemetic

d)

antipsychotic

12.

A patient calls in with a question about one of their medications but does not remember the name of the medication and states, 'It's small, oval-shaped pink pill.' The patient's medical record indicates they are currently taking 10 medications. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

a)

consult the PDR for clarification

b)

instruct the patient to seek help from a family member or the pharmacy

c)

ask the patient to bring the medication into the clinic to verify what it is

d)

type the patient's description into an online search engine to determine the answer

13.

Which of the following is an example of a simple carbohydrate?

a)

honey

b)

vegetables

c)

pasta

d)

beans

14.

Which of the following is the first step a patient who has stage 1 chronic kidney disease should take to adapt their diet?

a)

limit sodium

b)

decrease phosphorus

c)

control potassium intake

d)

avoid gluten products

15.

Which of the following supplements is also a naturally occurring hormone in the brain that is related to sleep?

a)

gingko biloba

b)

willow bark

c)

melatonin

d)

black cohosh

16.

Which of the following is a warning sign for anorexia and should be reported to a provider immediately?

a)

weight loss of at least 5%

b)

increased frequency of menstrual periods

c)

buying and consuming large amounts of food

d)

excessive exercising

17.

Which of the following routes of medication administration is a parenteral route?

a)

subcutaneously

b)

orally

c)

topically

d)

vaginally

18.

Which of the following forms of medication are delivered orally?

a)

foams

b)

mist

c)

lozenges

d)

powders

19.

A pediatrician prescribes a medication for a 5 year old child, with the dosage listed as "X mg/kg/day, divided over 3 doses a day." Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take to determine how much medication the child should receive per dose?

a)

measure and record the child's height

b)

convert the child's weight to kilograms

c)

multiply the daily dose by three

d)

ask the provider to clarify how much medication should be given in each dose.

20.

How often should medication allergies be discussed with a patient?

a)

annually

b)

at every visit

c)

every 3 years

d)

each phone call, portal message or encounter with the patient

21.

Which of the following supplies or equipment should be in each examination room?

a)

sigmoidoscope

b)

EKG machine

c)

biohazard waste container

d)

examination table with stirrups

22.

You work in a gastroenterology practice and need to prepare a patient for a colonoscopy. Which of the following positions should the patient be in?

a)

prone

b)

left lateral

c)

semi-Fowler's

d)

Trendelenburg

23.

In which of the following specialties should a MA most likely perform a spirometry test in?

a)

pulmonology

b)

cardiology

c)

gynecology

d)

endocrinology

24.

Which of the following is true of patient medication allergies?

a)

medication allergies should be asked about and update during each patient visit

b)

signs and symptoms of allergic reactions will occur within 2 min. of exposure to the allergen

c)

a patient without an allergic reaction to a medication will not have a reaction to it in the future

d)

most allergic reactions will result in anaphylaxis

25.

A MA is preparing a prescription for a medical order. The patient is prescribed 20 mg once a day by mouth for 30 days. The dosage on hand is 10 mg tablets. Which of the following shows how many tablets the patient should take per day and how many the assistant should order?

a)

2 tabs per day, 60 tabs

b)

1 tab per day, 60 tabs

c)

2 tabs per day, 30 tabs

d)

1 tab per day, 30 tabs

26.

A MA is preparing a prescription for a medical order. The patient is prescribed 20 mg once a day by mouth for 30 days. The dosage on hand is 10 mg tablets. Which of the following shows how many tablets the patient should take per day and how many the assistant should order?

a)

2 tabs per day, 60 tabs

b)

1 tab per day, 60 tabs

c)

2 tabs per day, 30 tabs

d)

1 tab per day, 30 tabs

27.

A MA has just opened a new multidose vial of insulin to administer to a patient. The manufacturer's expiration date is in 2 months and it is currently July 1st. Which of the following expiration dates should the assistant write on the vial?

a)

Sept. 1

b)

July 29

c)

July 15

d)

Jan. 1

28.

When performing an eye instillation, which of the following instructions should the MA give to the patient?

a)

look towards the ceiling with the affected eye open

b)

look towards the ceiling with both eyes open

c)

look towards the floor with both eyes open

d)

look towards the floor with the affected eye open

29.

Which of the following categories will the patient's insurance information belong in the patient's health record?

a)

correspondence data

b)

clinical information

c)

demographic data

d)

social information

30.

A computerized provider order entry (CPOE) system allows more efficient medical entry and prescription-ordering electronically. Once a health care provider logs into the electronic health record (EHR), which of the following should be the provider's next step?

a)

enter the prescription into the EHR

b)

Send the order to the pharmacy

c)

select the patient from a patient list

d)

validate an order against the patient's medical record

31.

A patient is requesting a telehealth appointment with a provider. After a brief discussion with the patient, the MA informs them that they are not eligible for a telehealth appointment. Which of the following could make the patient ineligible?

a)

patient fell on vacation and suspects their leg is broken

b)

patient has a suspicious mole that needs to be inspected

c)

patient asks for a new prescription

d)

patient has depression and is seeking counseling

32.

When entering a patient's new prescription in the medical record, the MA notices a message alerting them to a dosage error. Which of the following software options automatically checks for medication errors and interactions?

a)

clinical decision support system (CDSS)

b)

computerized provider order entry (CPOE)

c)

Electronic health record (EHR)

d)

electronic medication administration record (eMAR)

33.

A MA is scheduling a patient's follow-up appointment and the patient is requesting a telehealth visit. Which of the following guidance should the MA offer the patient?

a)

tell the patient they must get their vital signs taken prior to the visit

b)

provide the patient with a list of software and technical requirements for the appointment

c)

let the patient know that the appointment can be in a public place as lowered voices are used

d)

inform the patient that a public facing video communication application, such as a social media platforms are acceptable

34.

A MA is discussing a controlled substance prescription for a new patient. The patient asks if it can be sent electronically to a specific pharmacy close to their house. Which of the the following answers should the MA give the patient?

a)

no, new prescriptions cannot be fille electronically

b)

no, medications that are controlled substances cannot be sent electronically

c)

yes, but a paper prescription is preferred

d)

yes, as long as the pharmacy is using approved and certified software

35.

A MA is assisting a patient after a colonoscopy. Which of the following should the assistant inform the patient of in case the patient experiences pain or bleeding?

a)

post procedure discomfort and mild pain are common

b)

should notify the provider

c)

rest and inform health care provider if it continues for more than 10 days

d)

do not notify the health care provider & go immediately to the ER

36.

An adult patient needs assistance onto the exam table. However, the MA needs to prepare the supplies for administering an injection to the patient, of which the medication is in another room. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

a)

assist the patient down from the exam table until the MA is able to assemble all the supplies

b)

schedule the injection for the patient's next appointment

c)

ask the patient's companion or another MA to sit with the patient until the original MA returns

d)

leave the patient in the room and quickly assemble the supplies needed.

37.

A MA observes a patient having an anaphylactic reaction. Which of the following steps should the assistant immediately take?

a)

administer loratadine

b)

attach AED pads

c)

begin CPR

d)

notify the provider

38.

A MA is administering a subcutaneous insulin injection to a patient. Which of the following is the angle of injection and type of tissue that the MA should be targeting?

a)

15 degrees, dermis

b)

45 degrees, dermis

c)

90 degrees, muscle

d)

45 degree, adipose

39.

A patient needs an influenza vaccine during their medical visit. What needle size, angle and site should the MA select for an IM injection?

a)

25G, 15 degree, anterior forearm

b)

27G, 45 degree, abdominal region

c)

20G, 90 degree, deltoid muscle

d)

18G, 5 degree, abdominal region

40.

Which of the following is true of electronic prescribing prescriptions?

a)

an electronic prescription may only be transmitted electronically

b)

since the patient is directly delivering the prescription, written prescriptions are faster than electronic

c)

electronic prescriptions can reduce the risk of the prescription begin tampered with

d)

electronic prescriptions may result in more calls to the health care provider

41.

When storing or organizing vials of vaccines, which of the following actions should the MA take?

a)

if additional room is required, vaccines may be temporarily stored in the same refrigerator as the staff's items

b)

vaccines should be stored in the freezer between -50 C and -15 C

c)

use the vial with the latest expiration date to ensure the highest quality of a vaccine is being administered

d)

check the expiration date of all vials being stored or organized

42.

Which of the following routes of administration places the medication between the cheek and gum for absorption through mucous membranes?

a)

sublingual

b)

oral

c)

buccal

d)

intraosseous

43.

To confirm that the medication is begin administered to the right patient you should

a)

check the patient chart

b)

verify with the provider

c)

ask the patient to state their full name and DOB

d)

ask the patient if they are supposed to received the ordered medication

44.

Which of the following accrediting agencies for hospitals has prepared a Do Not Use List of abbreviations that most commonly lead to medication error?

a)

CDC

b)

OSHA

c)

ISMP

d)

Joint Commission

45.

What is the correct procedure for disposal of a used needle?

a)

recap immediately; dispose into a sharps container

b)

recap immediately; dispose into a labeled biohazardous bag

c)

do not recap; dispose in a sharps container

d)

do not recap; dispose into a trash can

46.

You have Acetaminophen elixir, which is labeled 325 mg/5 mL on hand. The provider ordered 650 mg PO. How many mL would you administer?

a)

5 mL

b)

10 mL

c)

15 mL

d)

20 mL

47.

Lasix is available in 40 mg scored tablets. The provider ordered the patient to take 60 mg PO every morning. How many tablets would the patient take?

a)

1 tab

b)

1.5 tabs

c)

2 tabs

d)

2.5 tabs

48.

A patient has a poison ivy rash and the provider has ordered you to give them Benadryl elixir 25 mg PO. You have 12.5 mg/5mL on hand. How many mL will you give

a)

5 mL

b)

10 mL

c)

12.5 mL

d)

25 mL

49.
If a patient has been drinking hot coffee you should wait____ before taking a temp
a)
5 mins
b)
15mins
c)
20 mins
d)
10 mins
50.

When does body temperature tend to be lowest?

a)

Late afternoon

b)

Late evening

c)

Morning

d)

Around noon

51.

Where is radial pulse measured?

a)

On the pinky finger side of the patient's wrist

b)

Only on the left wrist

c)

In the middle of the wrist

d)

On the thumb side of the patient's wrist

52.

What is the normal range for a pulse oximeter reading?

a)

95-100%

b)

90-95%

c)

90-100%

d)

85-95%

53.

Cuff that is too small will give a ______reading

a)

higher

b)

lower

54.

Considered the 5th vital sign by many facilities:

a)

pulse ox

b)

pulse pressure

c)

quality of respirations

d)

pain

55.

The most accurate method to obtain a temperature:

a)

temporally

b)

axillary

c)

rectally

d)

orally

56.

An MA is obtaining a BP reading from an adult patient. For which of the following reading should you contact the provider?

a)

100/60 mmHg

b)

104/45 mmHg

c)

122/60 mmHg

d)

98/68 mmHg

57.

A pt states they have smoked a pack of cigarettes every day for the past 20 years. In which section of the pt's medical record should the MA document this information?

a)

family hx

b)

social hx

c)

past medical hx

d)

occupational hx

58.

Which of the following vital signs is outside for a 67 year old patient is outside the expected reference range?

a)

T: 36.5° C

HR 106

RR 20

BP 116/74

b)

T: 37 ° C

HR 98

RR 14

BP 118/78

c)

T: 36.7 °

HR 98

RR 20

BP 114/76

d)

T: 37 ° C

HR 88

RR 18

BP 108/78

59.

Which of the following areas are considered sterile?

a)

The area below the mayo stand

b)

The drape on the mayo stand that is 12 inches or more away from the body

c)

1 inch edge of the inside of a sterile instrument package

d)

The outermost rapper of a sterile instrument package

60.

Which of the following is the proper technique for removing surgical staples?

a)

Use the scissors and forceps included in the kit

b)

Begin with the first staple and remove each and a row until all have been removed

c)

Place the lower tip of the sterile staple remover under the staple and squeeze the handle together until they are completely closed

d)

Squeeze at the same time slowly, but with moderate pressure

61.

Which of the following is the priority action for a major burn such as a fourth-degree burn?

a)

Call 911

b)

Apply lotion, such as aloe vera

c)

Place the burn under running water

d)

Apply ab bandage

62.

Which of the following phases of a wound healing occurs at approximately 10 days?

a)

Proliferation

b)

Inflammatory

c)

Maturation

d)

Dehiscence

63.

Which of the following procedures provide a better view of a cervical cell to send to pathology?

a)

Endoscopy

b)

Colposcopy

c)

Cryosurgery

d)

Incision & drainage

64.

Which of the following kinds of wound complication causes only the edges of the wound to separate?

a)

Dehiscence

b)

Evisceration

c)

Hemorrhaging

d)

Infection

65.

A provider ask a medical assistant to start filling out the prior authorizations form for a powered wheelchair for a patient. Which of the following is the purpose of submitting a prior authorization?

a)

To request an item be categorized as durable medical equipment, prosthetics, orthotics, and supplies (DMEPOS)

b)

To request approval for an item to be included on the CMS master list

c)

To request approval from the insurance company for coverage of an item before a claim submitted

d)

To request approval for a provider to be an approved prescriber DMEPOS

66.

A medical assistant observes a patient in the waiting room, placing their hands around their throat and collapsing. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Seizure

c)

Obstructed airway

d)

Syncope

67.

Which of the following conditions would be an indication for the use of an Automated external defibrillator (AED)?

a)

Cardiac arrest

b)

Hypovolemic shock

c)

Seizure

d)

Syncope

68.

Which of the following is the ratio of compressions to breath when performing CPR on an adult?

a)

30 compressions: 1 breath

b)

30 compressions: 2 breaths

c)

15 compressions: 1 breath

d)

15 Compressions: 2 breaths

69.

Which of the following should the medical assistant identify when assigned to check the emergency kit for crash cart?

a)

The AED is after every use

b)

The emergency kit is in the same accessible area

c)

Expired medications are in the front to be used first

d)

Pediatric doses on all medication should be marked with a permanent marker

70.

An incision and drainage (I&D) Procedure would be indicated for which of the following conditions?

a)

A tender mass or pustular under the dermal tissue

b)

Cervical dysplasia

c)

Suspicious mole on the face

d)

Soft tissue tumor on the breast

71.

Which of the following medical emergency situation does a patient exhibit pale, clammy skin, Rapid pulse and respirations, and the patient appears weak and becomes unresponsive with dilated pupils

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Syncope

d)

Shock

72.

Which of the following steps should the medical assistant take to ensure an instrument packet is sterile?

a)

Check to make sure only one instrument is in each package

b)

Check to make sure the instrument package has autoclave tape around it with white markings on it

c)

Check to make sure the inside of the rapper by placing a piece of autoclave tape it

d)

Check for auto clave indicator strip and expiration date

73.

A 14-year-old patient has a laceration on their face from playing field hockey. Which of the following should be the recommended type of suture?

a)

Absorbable, size 4–0

b)

Absorbable, size 6–0

c)

Non-absorbable, size 4–0

d)

Non-absorbable, size 6–0

74.

A medical assistant is examining a patient’s wound, which appears red and swollen with yellowish drainage. Which of the following whim complications would be suspected?

a)

Dehiscence

b)

Evisceration

c)

Hemorrhaging

d)

Infection

75.

Prior to notifying the provider, which of the following steps should you take for a patient who has a deep cut on their arm?

a)

Apply a tourniquet

b)

Determine if the bleeding is arterial or venous, which determines what action must be taken

c)

Provide the patient with sterile gauze and instruct the patient to apply pressure and elevate the arm

d)

Use either a suture or surgical stable to close the wound and prevent further bleeding

76.

Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for a patient who has a sprained ankle?

a)

Cool, wet cloth on the ankle to ease the pain

b)

Apply ice, elevate, and wear a compression bandage on the ankle

c)

Refer them to an orthopedic surgeon to have their ankle repositioned

d)

Apply sterile bandage around the ankle to prevent swelling

77.

A patient collapses in front of a medical assistant and is unresponsive. A coworker is calling 911 and alerting the provider. Which of the following steps is the medical assistant responsible for taking first?

a)

Run with the coworker to notify the provider

b)

Begin compressions

c)

Apply the AED

d)

Check the patient pulse and breathing

78.

A provider requests additional force of steering a surgical procedure. Which of the following steps should the medical assistant take?

a)

Grab another instrument packet Containing force. Open the packet and hand the force to the provider.

b)

Grab another instrument packet containing forceps in place the packet on the mayo stand

c)

Without touching the drape on the mayo stand, open the sterile package and drop the force into the sterile field

d)

Without touching the outer wrapper, open the sterile package and hand, the provided the forceps to ensure that they do not touch the sterile field

79.

Place the steps below into the correct sequence for creating a sterile field.

a)

Disinfect the mayo stand

b)

Place the packet on the mayo stand

c)

The flap farthest away from the MA

d)

Pull both of the side flaps open

e)

Open the flap closest to the

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
80.

Which of the following would result in contamination of the sterile field?

a)

Placing the mayo stand above the MAs waist

b)

That are placed on the 1 inch border

c)

Touching the inner area of the wrapper with a sterile glove

d)

Placing the mayo stand 12 inches away from the MA

81.

A patient has a deep wound on their scalp. Which of the following types of wound closures should be used?

a)

Absorbable sutures

b)

Non- Absorbable suture

c)

Sterile tape

d)

Surgical staples

82.

Which of the following are benefits of wound closure? Select all that apply.

a)

Allows for frequent irrigation

b)

Helps minimize scarring

c)

Is a painless procedure

d)

Prevents Infection

e)

Aids in healing

83.

Which of the following are post surgical discharge instructions for a patient who has had a biopsy of breast?

a)

Change the dressing

b)

Observed signs of infection

c)

Eat a balanced diet

d)

Apply medication to the wound

e)

Refrain from working for 14 days

84.

Several days after an office based surgery, a patient experiences nausea, and abdominal pain. Based on post surgical instructions, which of the following, should the patient do?

a)

Call 911

b)

Immediately go to the ER

c)

Contact medical office to speak with the healthcare provider

d)

Go to an urgent care center

85.

Which of the following burns would result in no pain, but the tissue is whitish?

a)

First degree

b)

Second degree

c)

Third degree

d)

Fourth degree

86.

Match the description of the wound with the type of wound.

a)

Abrasion

1.

Outer layers of the skin rubbed away

b)

Incision

2.

Smooth cut

c)

Laceration

3.

Edges torn in an irregular shape

d)

Puncture

4.

Penetrating made by sharp instrument

87.

A MA is caring for a bleeding wound. The blood is bright red, and the bleeding is fast and perfuse. Which of the following kind of hemorrhage is this?

a)

Arterial

b)

Capillary

c)

Cauterized

d)

Venous

88.

Which of the following should a medical assistant do when caring for hemorrhage? The blood is dark red and has a steady flow. Select all that apply.

a)

The site should be elevated

b)

A tourniquet should be applied

c)

The site should be covered with a clean gauze

d)

The blood vessels should be cauterized to stop the bleeding

e)

Pressure should be exerted on the site

89.

Which of the following should a medical assistant do in the case of a patient having a seizure? Select all that apply.

a)

Move objects out-of-the-way to prevent injury

b)

Restrain the patient to minimize moving

c)

If the patient is sitting, support the patient from falling

d)

Help patient to the floor if standing

e)

Turn the patient to the side to prevent choking

90.

The MA observes a patient in the waiting room clutch their chest and collapse. Which of the following should be done first?

a)

Call 911/help

b)

Begin CPR

c)

Using AED

d)

Administer epinephrine

91.

Which of the following are common signs and symptoms of a heart attack. Select all that apply.

a)

Dilated pupils

b)

Shortness of breath

c)

Chest pain

d)

Difficulty and coughing and speaking

e)

Muscle convulsions

92.

Place the steps of performing CPR in the order they should be performed.

a)

Give 30 chest compressions

b)

Tilted head back

c)

Pinch the nose

d)

Give too slow breaths, mouth-to-mouth

e)

Continue giving sets of 30 compressions and two breaths

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
93.

Which of the following DMEPOS Requires prior authorization? Select all the apply.

a)

CPAP machines

b)

Thermometer

c)

Power wheelchairs

d)

Pressure reducing air mattresses

94.

Which of the following supplies or equipment should be in each examination room?

a)

sigmoidoscope

b)

EKG machine

c)

biohazard waste container

d)

examination table with stirrups

95.

You work in a gastroenterology practice and need to prepare a patient for a colonoscopy. Which of the following positions should the patient be in?

a)

prone

b)

left lateral

c)

semi-Fowler's

d)

Trendelenburg

96.

In which of the following specialties should a MA most likely perform a spirometry test in?

a)

pulmonology

b)

cardiology

c)

gynecology

d)

endocrinology

97.

Which of the following is true of patient medication allergies?

a)

medication allergies should be asked about and update during each patient visit

b)

signs and symptoms of allergic reactions will occur within 2 min. of exposure to the allergen

c)

a patient without an allergic reaction to a medication will not have a reaction to it in the future

d)

most allergic reactions will result in anaphylaxis

98.

A MA is preparing a prescription for a medical order. The patient is prescribed 20 mg once a day by mouth for 30 days. The dosage on hand is 10 mg tablets. Which of the following shows how many tablets the patient should take per day and how many the assistant should order?

a)

2 tabs per day, 60 tabs

b)

1 tab per day, 60 tabs

c)

2 tabs per day, 30 tabs

d)

1 tab per day, 30 tabs

99.

A MA has just opened a new multidose vial of insulin to administer to a patient. The manufacturer's expiration date is in 2 months and it is currently July 1st. Which of the following expiration dates should the assistant write on the vial?

a)

Sept. 1

b)

July 29

c)

July 15

d)

Jan. 1

100.

When performing an eye instillation, which of the following instructions should the MA give to the patient?

a)

look towards the ceiling with the affected eye open

b)

look towards the ceiling with both eyes open

c)

look towards the floor with both eyes open

d)

look towards the floor with the affected eye open

101.

Which of the following categories will the patient's insurance information belong in the patient's health record?

a)

correspondence data

b)

clinical information

c)

demographic data

d)

social information

102.

A computerized provider order entry (CPOE) system allows more efficient medical entry and prescription-ordering electronically. Once a health care provider logs into the electronic health record (EHR), which of the following should be the provider's next step?

a)

enter the prescription into the EHR

b)

Send the order to the pharmacy

c)

select the patient from a patient list

d)

validate an order against the patient's medical record

103.

A patient is requesting a telehealth appointment with a provider. After a brief discussion with the patient, the MA informs them that they are not eligible for a telehealth appointment. Which of the following could make the patient ineligible?

a)

patient fell on vacation and suspects their leg is broken

b)

patient has a suspicious mole that needs to be inspected

c)

patient asks for a new prescription

d)

patient has depression and is seeking counseling

104.

When entering a patient's new prescription in the medical record, the MA notices a message alerting them to a dosage error. Which of the following software options automatically checks for medication errors and interactions?

a)

clinical decision support system (CDSS)

b)

computerized provider order entry (CPOE)

c)

Electronic health record (EHR)

d)

electronic medication administration record (eMAR)

105.

A MA is scheduling a patient's follow-up appointment and the patient is requesting a telehealth visit. Which of the following guidance should the MA offer the patient?

a)

tell the patient they must get their vital signs taken prior to the visit

b)

provide the patient with a list of software and technical requirements for the appointment

c)

let the patient know that the appointment can be in a public place as lowered voices are used

d)

inform the patient that a public facing video communication application, such as a social media platforms are acceptable

106.

A MA is discussing a controlled substance prescription for a new patient. The patient asks if it can be sent electronically to a specific pharmacy close to their house. Which of the the following answers should the MA give the patient?

a)

no, new prescriptions cannot be fille electronically

b)

no, medications that are controlled substances cannot be sent electronically

c)

yes, but a paper prescription is preferred

d)

yes, as long as the pharmacy is using approved and certified software

107.

A MA is assisting a patient after a colonoscopy. Which of the following should the assistant inform the patient of in case the patient experiences pain or bleeding?

a)

post procedure discomfort and mild pain are common

b)

should notify the provider

c)

rest and inform health care provider if it continues for more than 10 days

d)

do not notify the health care provider & go immediately to the ER

108.

An adult patient needs assistance onto the exam table. However, the MA needs to prepare the supplies for administering an injection to the patient, of which the medication is in another room. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

a)

assist the patient down from the exam table until the MA is able to assemble all the supplies

b)

schedule the injection for the patient's next appointment

c)

ask the patient's companion or another MA to sit with the patient until the original MA returns

d)

leave the patient in the room and quickly assemble the supplies needed.

109.

A MA observes a patient having an anaphylactic reaction. Which of the following steps should the assistant immediately take?

a)

administer loratadine

b)

attach AED pads

c)

begin CPR

d)

notify the provider

110.

A MA is administering a subcutaneous insulin injection to a patient. Which of the following is the angle of injection and type of tissue that the MA should be targeting?

a)

15 degrees, dermis

b)

45 degrees, dermis

c)

90 degrees, muscle

d)

45 degree, adipose

111.

A patient needs an influenza vaccine during their medical visit. What needle size, angle and site should the MA select for an IM injection?

a)

25G, 15 degree, anterior forearm

b)

27G, 45 degree, abdominal region

c)

20G, 90 degree, deltoid muscle

d)

18G, 5 degree, abdominal region

112.

Which of the following is true of electronic prescribing prescriptions?

a)

an electronic prescription may only be transmitted electronically

b)

since the patient is directly delivering the prescription, written prescriptions are faster than electronic

c)

electronic prescriptions can reduce the risk of the prescription begin tampered with

d)

electronic prescriptions may result in more calls to the health care provider

113.

When storing or organizing vials of vaccines, which of the following actions should the MA take?

a)

if additional room is required, vaccines may be temporarily stored in the same refrigerator as the staff's items

b)

vaccines should be stored in the freezer between -50 C and -15 C

c)

use the vial with the latest expiration date to ensure the highest quality of a vaccine is being administered

d)

check the expiration date of all vials being stored or organized

114.

Which of the following routes of administration places the medication between the cheek and gum for absorption through mucous membranes?

a)

sublingual

b)

oral

c)

buccal

d)

intraosseous

115.

To confirm that the medication is begin administered to the right patient you should

a)

check the patient chart

b)

verify with the provider

c)

ask the patient to state their full name and DOB

d)

ask the patient if they are supposed to received the ordered medication

116.

Which of the following accrediting agencies for hospitals has prepared a Do Not Use List of abbreviations that most commonly lead to medication error?

a)

CDC

b)

OSHA

c)

ISMP

d)

Joint Commission

117.

What is the correct procedure for disposal of a used needle?

a)

recap immediately; dispose into a sharps container

b)

recap immediately; dispose into a labeled biohazardous bag

c)

do not recap; dispose in a sharps container

d)

do not recap; dispose into a trash can

118.

When can a MA access an IV?

a)

at any time

b)

depends on if the MA has been trained

c)

never

d)

while the provider is in the room

119.

You have Acetaminophen elixir, which is labeled 325 mg/5 mL on hand. The provider ordered 650 mg PO. How many mL would you administer?

a)

5 mL

b)

10 mL

c)

15 mL

d)

20 mL

120.

Lasix is available in 40 mg scored tablets. The provider ordered the patient to take 60 mg PO every morning. How many tablets would the patient take?

a)

1 tab

b)

1.5 tabs

c)

2 tabs

d)

2.5 tabs

121.

A patient has a poison ivy rash and the provider has ordered you to give them Benadryl elixir 25 mg PO. You have 12.5 mg/5mL on hand. How many mL will you give

a)

5 mL

b)

10 mL

c)

12.5 mL

d)

25 mL

122.

Which of the following is the normal range for pulse?

a)

60-100

b)

80-100

c)

12-20

d)

60-80

123.
If a patient has been drinking hot coffee you should wait____ before taking a temp
a)
5 mins
b)
15mins
c)
20 mins
d)
10 mins
124.

Normal respirations are .....

a)

12-20 per minute

b)

10-25 per minute

c)

11-22 per minute

d)

5-30 per minute

125.

When does body temperature tend to be lowest?

a)

Late afternoon

b)

Late evening

c)

Morning

d)

Around noon

126.

Where is radial pulse measured?

a)

On the pinky finger side of the patient's wrist

b)

Only on the left wrist

c)

In the middle of the wrist

d)

On the thumb side of the patient's wrist

127.

What is the normal range for a pulse oximeter reading?

a)

95-100%

b)

90-95%

c)

90-100%

d)

85-95%

128.

Cuff that is too small will give a ______reading

a)

higher

b)

lower

129.

Considered the 5th vital sign by many facilities:

a)

pulse ox

b)

pulse pressure

c)

quality of respirations

d)

pain

130.

The most accurate method to obtain a temperature:

a)

temporally

b)

axillary

c)

rectally

d)

orally

131.

An MA is obtaining a BP reading from an adult patient. For which of the following reading should you contact the provider?

a)

100/60 mmHg

b)

104/45 mmHg

c)

122/60 mmHg

d)

98/68 mmHg

132.

A pt states they have smoked a pack of cigarettes every day for the past 20 years. In which section of the pt's medical record should the MA document this information?

a)

family hx

b)

social hx

c)

past medical hx

d)

occupational hx

133.

Which of the following vital signs is outside for a 67 year old patient is outside the expected reference range?

a)

T: 36.5° C

HR 106

RR 20

BP 116/74

b)

T: 37 ° C

HR 98

RR 14

BP 118/78

c)

T: 36.7 °

HR 98

RR 20

BP 114/76

d)

T: 37 ° C

HR 88

RR 18

BP 108/78

134.

Which of the following is a virus?

a)

Escherichia coli (E. coli)

b)

Histoplasmosis

c)

Pinworms

d)

Varicella

135.

Which of the following can be further classified as protozoa, helminths, and ectoparasite?

a)

Parasites

b)

Bacteria

c)

Viruses

d)

Fungi

136.

Which of the following is a direct mode of transmission?

a)

Contact with an infected person

b)

Contact with a contaminated examination table

c)

Contact with a tick

d)

Contact with a pen

137.

A health care worker is not feeling well and has a fever. In which of the following scenarios can the health care worker resume caring for patients?

a)

After being fever-free for 48 hr with the help of fever-reducing medications

b)

After being fever-free for 24 hr with the help of fever-reducing medications

c)

After being fever-free for 48 hr without the help of fever-reducing medications

d)

After being fever-free for 24 hr without the help of fever-reducing medications

138.

According to the CDC, which of the following is the first step a medical assistant should take after exposure to blood?

a)

Report it to their supervisor.

b)

Receive a medical evaluation.

c)

Receive health counseling.

d)

Wash the area with soap and water.

139.

A medical assistant is performing aseptic handwashing. How long should the assistant rub their hands vigorously with soap?

a)

5 to 10 seconds

b)

10 to 15 seconds

c)

15 to 20 seconds

d)

2 to 3 min

140.

How often are health care facilities required to train their staff on guidelines for exposure to bloodborne pathogens?

a)

Biannually

b)

Annually

c)

Every 2 years

d)

The health care facility can determine when they want to train their staff

141.

What is the minimum temperature that must be reached to ensure the sterility of autoclaved items?

a)

93.3° C (200° F)

b)

107.2° C (225° F)

c)

135° C (275° F)

d)

121.1° C (250° F)

142.

According to CDC guidelines, when can sterilized packages be used?

a)

If the package is intact and has no tears but does show a watermark

b)

If the package has a small tear patched with tape

c)

If the package was stored near a sink on an open shelf

d)

If the package has been stored in a cool, dry area and does not show watermarks

143.

When using chemical sterilization, how long do instruments need to be submerged to be considered sterilized?

a)

6 hr

b)

10 hr

c)

8 hr

d)

24 hr

144.

How long should unwrapped items be sterilized in an autoclave?

a)

10 min

b)

15 min

c)

20 min

d)

40 min

145.

Which of the following is the goal of surgical asepsis?

a)

To reduce the number of micro-organisms

b)

To eliminate pathogenic micro-organisms

c)

To try to reduce the risk of contamination

d)

To prohibit the growth of micro-organisms

146.

In which of the following scenarios should a medical assistant use medical aseptic techniques?

a)

Washing hands prior to and after each patient encounter

b)

Assisting in the removal of a cyst

c)

Assisting with placing sutures on a cut leg

d)

Cleaning a deep wound on the forearm

147.

Which of the following items should a medical assistant dispose of in a biohazard waste bag?

a)

Gauze that fell on the ground

b)

A used needle

c)

Gauze contaminated with blood

d)

A used mask

148.

Gloves should be worn during which of the following medical office tasks?

a)

Cleaning the front office table

b)

Performing a blood pressure reading for a patient

c)

Handling anything contaminated with blood

d)

Handling unused suture scissors

149.

How often should the exposure control plan be updated if there are no changes?

a)

Monthly

b)

Quarterly

c)

Annually

d)

Every 5 years

150.

In a health care setting, which of the following is the minimum amount of alcohol content that can be used in an alcohol-based sanitizer?

a)

40%

b)

55%

c)

60%

d)

90%

151.

OSHA regulations require employers to make which of the following vaccines available at no cost to health care workers?

a)

Hepatitis A

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Varicella

d)

Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)

152.

Which of the following is a common symptom of contracting an infectious disease?

a)

Numbness and tingling

b)

Headache

c)

Blurry vision

d)

Difficulty breathing

153.

Which of the following precautions should a medical assistant consider when a person is coughing or sneezing?

a)

Droplet precautions

b)

Airborne precautions

c)

Contact precautions

d)

Transmission-based precautions

154.

Which of the following would be considered a direct mode of transmission?

a)

Contact with the mosquito

b)

Contact with an infected person

c)

Contact with a pencil

d)

Contact with a contaminated table

155.

Which of the following affects the chance of a patient becoming a host for disease transmission?

a)

Age

b)

Race

c)

Geography

d)

Occupation

156.

Which of the following pathogens with the common cold fall under?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Fungi

c)

Virus

d)

Parasite

157.

Match the category of exposure with the correct task.

a)

CPR

1.

Category II

b)

Minor surgical procedure

2.

Category I

c)

Taking a patient’s blood pressure

3.

Category III

158.

What are the three types of transmission based precautions?

(a)  

159.

Which of the following PPE is the most widely used in a healthcare setting?

a)

Mask

b)

Gown

c)

Gloves

d)

Goggles

160.

Place the doffing of PPE In the correct order.

a)

Gloves

b)

Goggles

c)

Gown

d)

Mask

1)
2)
3)
4)
161.

Which of the following helps slow down the spread of infectious agents?

a)

Provide sterile gown and gloves for every patient visit

b)

Refrain from eating and laboratory areas, but eating and drinking and patient areas is fine

c)

Place patient in exam room as soon as they enter the office

d)

Clean only areas that look contaminated

162.

Which of the following must be included in the SDS? (select all that apply)

a)

Disposable considerations

b)

First aid measures

c)

Regulatory information

d)

Handling and storage

e)

Composition/ingredients

163.

Match the contaminated item with the correct biohazard waste container.

a)

Venipuncture needle

1.

Biohazard sharps container

b)

Contaminated gauze

2.

Biohazard waste bag

c)

Contaminated disposable gown

3.

Biohazard waste box

164.

What are the steps following an exposure to a needle stick in the correct sequence?

a)

Wash affected area with soap and water

b)

Report incident immediately to supervisor

c)

Employee receives medical evaluation

d)

Completed an incident exposure form

e)

Employee receives health counseling

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
165.

Which of the following are when an exposed control plan should be reviewed with an employee? Select all that apply.

a)

Every four years

b)

Annually

c)

Semi-annually

d)

Upon hire

166.

Your gloves have become contaminated. Type out the proper steps for removing the contaminated gloves.

4 lines
167.

Which of the following can cause a false positive when obtaining a specimen for fecal occult blood testing?

a)

collecting the sample from the first bowel movement of the day

b)

consuming vitamin C and iron supplements

c)

consuming a high fiber diet

d)

discontinuing prescription medications

168.

Which of the following is considered proper technique to avoid contamination during collection of a urine sample?

a)

do not urinate directly into the container

b)

avoid touching the inside of the container or lid

c)

add a preservative to the midstream container

d)

ask the patient to wear gloves during collection into the container

169.

Which of the following should be included when labeling a patient's specimen?

a)

insurance company

b)

diagnosis

c)

address

d)

collector's initials

170.

Which specimen collection performs tests for substances that are sporadically released into the urine?

a)

24 hour urine

b)

clean catch

c)

random

d)

first void

171.

Which of the following is a normal range for a hemoglobin A1C?

a)

Less than 12%

b)

Less than 5.7%

c)

Less than 7%

d)

Less than 8%

172.

Which of the following is the normal range for a total cholesterol?

a)

40-50 mg/dL

b)

70-100 mg/dL

c)

130-200 mg/dL

d)

150-220 mg/dL

173.

Which of the following identifiers should be used to verify the patient before obtaining a specimen for lab collections?

a)

name and date of birth

b)

address and patient ID number

c)

diagnosis and name

d)

name and insurance information

174.

Which of the following is required to be included on a urine specimen label prior to sending it to the lab?

a)

insurance carrier

b)

medications patient is taking

c)

time the urine was collected

d)

diagnosis of the patient

175.

Which of the following is required when obtaining and transporting a drug screening?

a)

chain of command

b)

chain of custody

c)

medical insurance

d)

authorization forms

176.

In which of the following phases of quality assurance are instruments maintained and calibrated?

a)

preanalytical phase

b)

analytical phase

c)

midanalytical phase

d)

postanalytical phase

177.

Ishihara color plates are used to screen for what?

a)

distance vision

b)

near vision

c)

vison acuity

d)

color blindness (color deficiency)

178.

How many days prior to skin testing should a patient discontinue antihistamines?

a)

30 days

b)

15 days

c)

3 days

d)

7 days

179.

Which of the following is the number of successful and measured breathing maneuvers that a patient must complete during spirometry testing?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

4

d)

1

180.

Which of the following is the amount of time it takes to process a result for a urine pregnancy test?

a)

3 min

b)

1 min

c)

immediately

d)

5 min

Similar Resources on Wayground

CA0141 PT 2

183 questions

CA0141 PT 2

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

best ninjago quiz

177 questions

best ninjago quiz

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - University

A. Building Science

180 questions

A. Building Science

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade