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Wound Assessment and Management Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary purpose of the "Wound Assessment and Management" policy at Hamad Medical Corporation (HMC)?

a)

To provide a standardized approach to wound care and ensure appropriate management of wounds.

b)

To focus solely on surgical wounds and their healing process.

c)

To develop new surgical techniques for wound treatment.

d)

To eliminate the need for medical staff in wound care.

2.

Which of the following is an example of an acute wound?

a)

A wound caused by a surgical procedure.

b)

A wound that fails to heal within the expected time frame.

c)

A wound resulting from cancer metastasizing to the skin.

d)

A wound caused by poor nutrition and infection.

3.

What distinguishes a chronic wound from an acute wound?

a)

Chronic wounds fail to heal within the normal expected time frame and remain in the inflammatory phase.

b)

Chronic wounds are caused by surgical procedures.

c)

Chronic wounds heal in a predictable and orderly manner.

d)

Chronic wounds are caused by trauma such as falls or stabs.

4.

Which of the following best describes a palliative wound?

a)

A wound caused by trauma such as a fall or stab.

b)

A wound resulting from an incurable disease like cancer that has metastasized to the skin.

c)

A wound caused by hot objects, flames, or radiation.

d)

A wound that heals in a predictable and orderly manner.

5.

What is a burn wound classified as?

a)

A wound caused by blunt force or projectiles.

b)

A wound caused by hot objects, flames, electricity, or radiation.

c)

A wound that fails to heal within four weeks.

d)

A wound resulting from cancer metastasizing to the skin.

6.

What is the definition of a colonized wound?

a)

A wound with a loss of epithelial lining.

b)

A wound where the level of organisms not only increases but becomes established.

c)

A wound caused by mechanical forces, including removal of adhesives.

d)

A wound with localized damage to the skin and underlying soft tissue.

7.

What is a skin tear?

a)

A wound caused by trauma or pressure secondary to neuropathy or vascular disease.

b)

A traumatic wound caused by mechanical forces, including removal of adhesives.

c)

A localized damage to the skin and underlying soft tissue over a bony prominence.

d)

A wound caused by disruption in arterial blood flow.

8.

Which of the following is NOT a type of ulcer mentioned in the document?

a)

Venous Ulcer

b)

Arterial Ulcer

c)

Diabetic Foot Ulcer

d)

Pressure Ulcer

9.

What is the primary cause of arterial ulcers?

a)

Malfunctioning venous valves causing increased pressure in the vein.

b)

Disruption in arterial blood flow causing arterial insufficiency.

c)

Trauma or pressure secondary to neuropathy or vascular disease.

d)

A combination of arterial and venous pathologies.

10.

What is the main characteristic of contamination in a wound?

a)

A wound with a loss of epithelial lining.

b)

A wound with localized damage to the skin and underlying soft tissue.

c)

Small numbers of bacteria detected in a wound that are not multiplying.

d)

A wound caused by mechanical forces, including removal of adhesives.

11.

What is a diabetic foot ulcer most vulnerable to?

a)

Increased pressure in the vein.

b)

Disruption in arterial blood flow.

c)

Pressure, ischemia, or ulceration due to poor fitting shoes and an insensate foot.

d)

The transient presence of bacteria.

12.

What is the term used to describe the invasion of a wound by proliferating microorganisms that causes local tissue damage and impedes wound healing?

a)

Epibole

b)

Infection

c)

Granulation tissue

d)

Necrosis

13.

What is the process called in which a wound becomes covered with epithelial cells, with pink tissue migrating over living cells from the wound edges?

a)

Granulation tissue

b)

Epithelialization

c)

Hyper granulation

d)

Wound debridement

14.

Which term refers to rolled or curled-under closed wound edges that may be dry, callused, or hyperkeratotic?

a)

Epibole

b)

Necrosis

c)

Edema

d)

Hyper granulation

15.

What is the name of the process by which accumulated necrotic tissue, exudate, and bacteria are removed from a wound bed to prepare for healing?

a)

Granulation tissue

b)

Wound debridement

c)

Epithelialization

d)

Hyper granulation

16.

What is the term for red and moist vascular connective tissue that forms during the wound healing process?

a)

Necrosis

b)

Granulation tissue

c)

Hyper granulation

d)

Edema

17.

What is the standardized technique used during clinical procedures to prevent microbial contamination of aseptic key parts and key sites?

a)

Wound debridement

b)

Aseptic Technique

c)

Hyper granulation

d)

Surgical site infection

18.

What is the term used to describe dead tissue that is black or brown in color and completely devitalized?

a)

Edema

b)

Necrosis or eschar

c)

Granulation tissue

d)

Epibole

19.

What is the term for red, friable, shiny tissue with a soft appearance above the level of the surrounding skin?

a)

Hyper granulation

b)

Necrosis

c)

Edema

d)

Infection

20.

What is the term for slight swelling and firmness at the wound edge that may indicate infection if accompanied by warmth?

a)

Necrosis

b)

Edema

c)

Epibole

d)

Granulation tissue

21.

What is the term for an infection related to an operative procedure that occurs at or near the surgical incision within 30 days of the procedure or within 90 days if prosthetic material is implanted?

a)

Aseptic Technique

b)

Surgical site infection

c)

Hyper granulation

d)

Wound debridement

22.

What does the term "Induration" refer to in the context of wound assessment and management?

a)

A collection of pus in confined tissue spaces.

b)

A hardened mass or formation with defined edges.

c)

A microbially derived sessile community.

d)

A condition caused by bacterial infection.

23.

Which of the following best describes "Abscess" in wound management terminology?

a)

A hardened mass or formation with defined edges.

b)

A collection of pus in confined tissue spaces, usually caused by bacterial infection.

c)

A microbially derived sessile community attached to a substratum.

d)

A condition characterized by altered gene transcription.

24.

What is "Biofilm" in the context of wound assessment?

a)

A hardened mass or formation with defined edges.

b)

A collection of pus in confined tissue spaces.

c)

A microbially derived sessile community characterized by cells attached to a substratum or interface.

d)

A condition caused by bacterial infection.

25.

Who is responsible for approving the wound assessment and management policy?

a)

Wound Care Nursing Network (WCNN).

b)

Facility Executive Director of Nursing.

c)

Chief Nursing Officer.

d)

All HMC Nurses and Midwives.

26.

What is the responsibility of the Wound Care Nursing Network (WCNN) in coordination with the Assessment of Patient (AOP) Corporate Committee?

a)

Approving the policy.

b)

Developing, reviewing, revising, and disseminating the policy.

c)

Implementing and monitoring compliance to the policy.

d)

Being aware of and complying with the policy.

27.

What are the five elements included in a comprehensive skin assessment on admission?

a)

Temperature, elasticity, color, moisture level, and skin integrity.

b)

Temperature, elasticity, color, pain level, and skin integrity.

c)

Temperature, turgor, color, moisture level, and skin elasticity.

d)

Temperature, turgor, color, moisture level, and skin integrity.

28.

Which appendix is used for assessing pressure injury risk in adults above the age of 14 years?

a)

Appendix 1

b)

Appendix 2

c)

Appendix 3

d)

Appendix 4

29.

What is the primary goal of wound assessment and management?

a)

To minimize further trauma and preserve viable tissue

b)

To classify skin tears

c)

To refer patients to a wound care specialty nurse

d)

To use electronic medical records for consultation

30.

Which appendix provides the ISTAP Skin Tear Classification System?

a)

Appendix 5

b)

Appendix 6

c)

Appendix 7

d)

Appendix 4

31.

What should a physician do before initiating an electronic consultation for wound care?

a)

Refer to Appendix 7

b)

Assess the wound and consult the wound care specialty nurse

c)

Contact the Tissue Viability Nurse directly

d)

Follow the physician’s order for wound management

32.

Which appendix is used for staging pressure injuries according to NPUAP-EPUAP 2016 classification?

a)

Appendix 5

b)

Appendix 6

c)

Appendix 7

d)

Appendix 3

33.

What should nurses/midwives do in facilities without a wound care specialty nurse?

a)

Refer to Appendix 6

b)

Follow the physician’s order for wound management

c)

Use the Braden Scale for assessment

d)

Contact the Tissue Viability Nurse

34.

Which type of patients with wounds should be referred to a Podiatry specialist according to the policy?

a)

Patients with vascular and diabetic leg ulcers (below knee)

b)

Patients with skin rashes, allergies, eczema, and fungal infections

c)

Patients receiving radiation therapy

d)

Patients with burn grade 2, 3, and 4

35.

What is the referred specialty for patients receiving hyperbaric oxygen therapy?

a)

Dermatology

b)

Hyperbaric Staff

c)

Burn Specialty

d)

Stoma Care Specialist

36.

Which of the following is an inclusion criterion for referral to a Tissue Viability/Wound Care Specialty Nurse?

a)

Patients with stoma

b)

Patients with burn grade 2, 3, and 4

c)

Deteriorating Pressure Injury stage 1

d)

Patients receiving radiation therapy

37.

Which type of wound is NOT included in the referral to a Tissue Viability/Wound Care Specialty Nurse?

a)

Complex surgical wounds

b)

Non-healing trauma wounds

c)

Patients with vascular and diabetic leg ulcers (below knee)

d)

Chronic wounds such as leg ulcers, DFU, venous ulcers, arterial ulcers, and mixed etiology ulcers

38.

Which of the following is a condition that requires referral to a Dermatology specialist?

a)

Patients with stoma

b)

Patients with skin rashes, allergies, eczema, and fungal infections

c)

Patients with burn grade 2, 3, and 4

d)

Deteriorating Pressure Injury stage 1

39.

What is the referred specialty for patients with burn grade 2, 3, and 4?

a)

Podiatry

b)

Burn Specialty

c)

Dermatology

d)

Stoma Care Specialist

40.

Which of the following is NOT an inclusion criterion for referral to a Tissue Viability/Wound Care Specialty Nurse?

a)

Deteriorating Pressure Injury stage 1

b)

Patients with burn grade 2, 3, and 4

c)

Complex surgical wounds

d)

Suspected wound infection

41.

What type of patients should be referred to a Stoma Care Specialist?

a)

Patients with vascular and diabetic leg ulcers (below knee)

b)

Patients with stoma

c)

Patients receiving radiation therapy

d)

Patients with burn grade 2, 3, and 4

42.

Which of the following is an example of a chronic wound that requires referral to a Tissue Viability/Wound Care Specialty Nurse?

a)

Deteriorating Pressure Injury stage 1

b)

Non-healing trauma wounds

c)

Leg ulcers, DFU, venous ulcers, arterial ulcers, and mixed etiology ulcers

d)

Complex surgical wounds

43.

What is the referred specialty for patients receiving radiation therapy?

a)

Podiatry

b)

Dermatology

c)

Radiation therapy nurses

d)

Hyperbaric Staff

44.

What is the maximum number of working days within which referred patients must be assessed by a wound care specialty nurse?

a)

2 working days

b)

3 working days

c)

5 working days

d)

7 working days

45.

Which of the following is NOT a principle for managing acute wounds?

a)

Liaising with the surgical team to coordinate treatment

b)

Considering the wound history and presence of foreign bodies

c)

Ignoring the position of the wound

d)

Considering the position of the wound over joints

46.

What should be documented during every dressing change in wound assessment and management?

a)

Type of wound, location, and pressure injury category

b)

Skin tear classification and factors delaying wound healing

c)

Both A and B

d)

Only the pressure injury category

47.

Which patient factor is considered in wound healing assessment?

a)

Wound pain score

b)

Serum albumin result

c)

Both A and B

d)

Nature of wound bed

48.

What is the nature of the wound bed recorded as during wound assessment?

a)

A percentage of the tissue

b)

A numerical score

c)

A qualitative description

d)

A pressure injury stage

49.

What are some classic signs and symptoms of an infected wound that nurses should recognize?

a)

Local swelling, heat, pain, and redness

b)

Increased appetite and energy levels

c)

Decreased heart rate and blood pressure

d)

Improved wound healing and skin integrity

50.

Which of the following is a practice for managing radiation therapy patients with acute skin reactions?

a)

Assess skin integrity weekly by the radiation nurse

b)

Manage acute skin reactions solely by the physician

c)

Assess skin integrity daily by the radiation nurse and weekly by the radiation oncologist

d)

Avoid dressing changes for radiation therapy patients

51.

What is the purpose of evaluating the wound healing process and effectiveness of dressing?

a)

To ensure proper nutrition for the patient

b)

To monitor the progress of wound healing

c)

To prevent the need for wound specimen collection

d)

To avoid educating patients and families

52.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of an infected wound?

a)

Pyrexia, rigors, or tachycardia

b)

Granulation tissue that bleeds easily

c)

Localized edema and improved skin integrity

d)

Abnormal smell or malodor

53.

What should nurses provide to patients and families as part of wound management?

a)

Medication prescriptions

b)

Education as per policy CL 6090 Patient and Family Education

c)

Surgical procedures

d)

Weekly wound assessments

54.

What is the basis for determining the frequency of dressing changes in wound care management?

a)

Physician’s order, wound assessment, or manufacturer recommendations

b)

Nurse’s personal judgment

c)

Patient’s preference

d)

Random selection

55.

Who must the assigned wound care specialty nurse inform if a consultation or referral is needed?

a)

The treating physician

b)

The patient’s family

c)

The hospital administrator

d)

The pharmacist

56.

What must be done before activating proposal orders by wound care clinical nurse specialists?

a)

Orders must be co-signed by the physician

b)

Orders must be approved by the patient

c)

Orders must be reviewed by the hospital administrator

d)

Orders must be signed by the nurse only

57.

What is required for wound care clinical nurse specialists to maintain competency?

a)

Regular training and maintaining relevant competency

b)

Attending monthly hospital meetings

c)

Submitting weekly reports

d)

Consulting with patients daily

58.

What is the first step in wound management in HHCS?

a)

Skin assessment on admission and during each visit

b)

Consulting the hospital administrator

c)

Referring to the patient’s family

d)

Conducting a random survey

59.

Who should the assigned nurse consult for wound management in HHCS?

a)

Wound Care Specialty Nurse

b)

Hospital administrator

c)

Patient’s family

d)

Pharmacist

60.

What is the maximum time frame within which a Wound Care Specialty Nurse should visit the patient to assess the wound after referral?

a)

Within 1 working day

b)

Within 3 working days

c)

Within 5 working days

d)

Within 7 working days

61.

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Wound Care Specialty Nurse during wound assessment and re-assessment?

a)

Determine the type of dressing

b)

Determine frequency of the visit

c)

Perform surgical procedures

d)

Refer the patient to other disciplines as needed

62.

What should an allied health professional do if they identify a wound during a home visit?

a)

Treat the wound immediately

b)

Inform the assigned nurse as soon as possible

c)

Refer the patient to a hospital

d)

Take a photograph of the wound

63.

What is one of the responsibilities of the assigned nurse during wound care management?

a)

Perform surgery on the wound

b)

Visit the patient within three working days

c)

Prescribe medication for the wound

d)

Ignore changes in the wound condition

64.

What must be obtained before taking wound photography during initial assessment or discharge?

a)

Verbal agreement only

b)

Written permission only

c)

Both verbal agreement and written permission

d)

No permission is required

65.

What should be documented in the patient’s medical record if wound photography is refused?

a)

The reason for the wound

b)

Refusal of wound photography

c)

The type of dressing used

d)

The frequency of wound care visits

66.

Who is responsible for wound management if the family prefers to access care outside HMC facilities?

a)

HMC Wound Care Specialty Nurse

b)

The family

c)

The Infection Control Practitioner (ICP)

d)

The outsourcing agency

67.

What should be reported through Electronic Incident Reporting for newly developed wounds?

a)

All wounds, including diabetic ulcers and epidermolysis bullosa

b)

Only wounds related to diabetic ulcers and epidermolysis bullosa

c)

All newly developed wounds, except those related to diabetic ulcers and epidermolysis bullosa

d)

Only infected wounds

68.

What is the role of the Infection Control Practitioner (ICP) for HHCS in wound management?

a)

To document wound photography refusal

b)

To notify all infected wounds for follow-up and further management

c)

To train nurses on wound dressing

d)

To determine the type of dressing

69.

Within how many working days should the HHCS wound care specialty nurse visit the patient after referral?

a)

1 working day

b)

2 working days

c)

3 working days

d)

5 working days

70.

What is one of the responsibilities of the Wound Care Specialty Nurse based on the assessment?

a)

Documenting the patient’s medical history

b)

Determining the type of dressing

c)

Referring the patient to another facility

d)

Reporting all wounds through Electronic Incident Reporting

71.

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Wound Care Specialty Nurse in coordination with the outsourcing agency?

a)

Determine the type of dressing

b)

Train/Educate the assigned nurse on wound dressing

c)

Perform surgical procedures

d)

Initiate the plan of care and follow up as per plan of care

72.

What is the primary goal of wound cleansing according to the policy?

a)

To completely dry the wound bed

b)

To minimize pain and trauma to the tissue

c)

To avoid the use of sterile solutions

d)

To prevent the use of personal protective equipment (PPE)

73.

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of wound cleansing as mentioned in the document?

a)

Removal of slough and necrotic tissue

b)

Promotion of patient comfort

c)

Complete drying of the wound bed

d)

Biofilm disruption

74.

What type of solution is recommended for irrigating a healthy wound?

a)

Antimicrobial solution with PHMB

b)

Hypertonic saline

c)

Sterile solution of 0.9% sodium chloride or sterile water

d)

Non-sterile tap water

75.

Which antimicrobial solution is suggested for cleaning chronic and infected wounds?

a)

Polyhexamethylene Biguanide (PHMB)

b)

Sterile water

c)

Sodium chloride

d)

Transparent limb-shaped plastic cover

76.

What is the recommended temperature for irrigation fluid used in wound cleansing?

a)

Room temperature

b)

37°C (close to body temperature)

c)

Below 20°C

d)

Above 50°C

77.

What type of swab should be used if wiping is needed during wound cleansing?

a)

A non-filamented swab

b)

A dry cotton swab

c)

A sterile gauze pad

d)

A plastic swab

78.

What is the purpose of using a transparent limb-shaped plastic cover during bathing or showering for patients with foot ulcers?

a)

To keep the wound bed dry

b)

To promote faster healing

c)

To prevent the use of sterile solutions

d)

To avoid the need for PPE

79.

When should personal protective equipment (PPE) be used during wound cleansing?

a)

When the wound is irrigated under pressure

b)

When the wound is not infected

c)

When using sterile water

d)

When the wound is completely healed

80.

What does the "T" in the T.I.M.E. principle of wound bed preparation stand for?

a)

Tissue

b)

Temperature

c)

Treatment

d)

Therapy

81.

Which clinical action is associated with the "I" in the T.I.M.E. principle?

a)

Remove defective tissue, debride

b)

Restore moisture balance

c)

Remove or reduce bacterial load with antimicrobial dressings

d)

Reassess T, I, and M

82.

What is the goal of wound healing for the "M" in the T.I.M.E. principle?

a)

Viable (vascularized) wound bed

b)

Reduced bacterial burden and inflammation

c)

Optimal moisture balance restored

d)

Restoration of appropriate pH level

83.

What should be done if the edge of a wound remains static after 2-4 weeks?

a)

Remove defective tissue

b)

Reassess T, I, and M

c)

Reassess and refer for specialist treatment

d)

Add moisture to dry wounds

84.

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for wound dressing?

a)

Maintain a moist environment

b)

Be non-toxic and non-allergenic

c)

Be adherent to the wound

d)

Allow gaseous and fluid exchange

85.

What is the purpose of maintaining a moist environment at the wound/dressing interface?

a)

To prevent bacterial growth

b)

To promote healing

c)

To reduce inflammation

d)

To increase exudate production

86.

What does the "E" in the T.I.M.E. principle focus on?

a)

Edema management

b)

Edge of wound non-advancing or undermining

c)

Exudate control

d)

Elasticity of the wound

87.

Table showing the T.I.M.E. principle of wound bed preparation, including wound factors, clinical actions, and wound healing outcomes.

a)

T.I.M.E. principle

b)

R.I.C.E. principle

c)

A.B.C.D. principle

d)

S.A.F.E. principle

88.

What is the primary consideration when selecting a wound dressing according to the HMC policy?

a)

The patient's financial status

b)

A holistic assessment of the patient in conjunction with evidence-based practice

c)

The availability of the dressing in the hospital

d)

The color of the dressing

89.

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for wound dressing as per the HMC policy?

a)

It must be cost-effective

b)

It must be comfortable and consider factors like odor control and pain relief

c)

It must be used without following the manufacturer’s instructions

d)

It must promote the next stage of wound healing based on clinical need

90.

What should a nurse do if leakage or strikethrough occurs in a wound dressing?

a)

Ignore it and continue using the same dressing

b)

Replace the dressing and evaluate the product choice

c)

Use a different dressing without consulting the physician

d)

Wait for the next scheduled dressing change

91.

Who should the nurse consult when discussing advanced dressing technology?

a)

The patient’s family

b)

The Tissue Viability Clinical Nurse Specialist and the surgeon

c)

The hospital administration

d)

The pharmacist

92.

How should wound healing be monitored according to the HMC policy?

a)

By observing the wound visually without documentation

b)

Through comprehensive wound re-assessment and documentation of findings

c)

By relying on the patient’s feedback only

d)

By using a single evaluation method

93.

What is the title of the policy/procedure document?

a)

Wound Care and Healing

b)

Wound Assessment and Management

c)

Chronic Wound Treatment

d)

Pressure Injury Management

94.

What is the effective date of the "Wound Assessment and Management" policy?

a)

February 2014

b)

May 2023

c)

June 25, 2023

d)

May 2026

95.

Which identification number is assigned to the "Wound Assessment and Management" policy?

a)

CL 6076

b)

CL 5067

c)

CL 7065

d)

CL 6075

96.

Where should all documentation related to wound assessment and management be recorded?

a)

In the patient's physical file

b)

On the EMR as indicated per section

c)

In the nurse's personal notes

d)

In the hospital's general database

97.

Which reference provides information on "The process of wound healing"?

a)

Collins F., Hampton S., White R. (2002)

b)

Sedlarik, K.M. (2003)

c)

Stotts, N. (2000)

d)

Doughty, D.B., & McNichol, L.L. (2016)

98.

Which publication discusses "Challenges in the treatment of chronic wounds"?

a)

Armstrong, D.G., & Meyr, A.J. (2016)

b)

Frykberg, R.G., & Banks, J. (2015)

c)

McFarland, A., & Smith, F. (2014)

d)

Stotts, N. (2000)

99.

What is the next review date for the "Wound Assessment and Management" policy?

a)

February 2014

b)

May 2023

c)

May 2026

d)

June 25, 2023

100.

Which reference provides a guide for nurses on wound care?

a)

Collins F., Hampton S., White R. (2002)

b)

Dealey, C. (2005)

c)

Stotts, N. (2000)

d)

Doughty, D.B., & McNichol, L.L. (2016)