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GCC Mock Test 9

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A client with hyperthyroidism is taking lithium carbonate to inhibit thyroid hormone release. Which complaint by the client should alert the nurse to a problem with the client’s medication?
a)
The client complains of blurred vision.
b)
The client complains of increased thirst and increased urination.
c)
The client complains of increased weight gain over the past year.
d)
The client complains of changes in taste. Your Answer
e)
-
2.
A client was admitted to the medical unit after having abdominal surgery. The nurse questioned the client during the morning assessment about the passage of flatus. The client stated that flatus had been passed early in the morning. In anticipation of defecation, what is the most important instruction for the nurse to give the client?
a)
Please call the nurse if you need to go to the bathroom.
b)
If you feel the urge to have a bowel movement, please call for assistance before getting up to the toilet.When having a bowel movement, be sure to breathe out to prevent straining. Do not hold your breath.
c)
To prevent the Valsalva maneuver, contract the stomach muscles while holding your breath and push. This will assist in the passage of the stool and will decrease the amount of time required to have a bowel movement.
d)
Your bowels will be moving soon. Please report any abdominal pain. Your Answer
e)
-
3.
A postoperative surgery client has orders to be out of bed to a chair three times daily and to perform incentive spirometry 10 times hourly while awake. The client resists incentive spirometry instruction by the respiratory therapist and refuses when the nurse and the lift team arrive to assist the client up to a chair at bedside. Which statement by the nurse shows effective priority setting for this postoperative client? Choose the best answer.
a)
You do not have to get up to the chair if you do not want to. You have the right to refuse treatment.
b)
Using the incentive spirometer and increasing your mobility with activities like getting up to the chair are important for your recovery after surgery. They help to prevent complications like pneumonia. You always have the right to refuse treatment, but I want you to know that you are placing yourself at risk for complications if you do so.
c)
If you choose not to get up to the chair or use your incentive spirometer, your physician will be upset. These treatments are designed to help you avoid complications after surgery.
d)
I would not want to get up, either, if I were you. That must be painful after surgery.Maybe you will feel strong enough to get out of bed tomorrow. Your Answer
e)
-
4.
An 8-year-old is admitted with drooling, muffled phonation, and a temperature of 102°F. The nurse should immediately notify the doctor because the child’s symptoms are suggestive of:
a)
Strep throat
b)
Epiglottitis
c)
Laryngotracheobronchitis Your Answer
d)
Bronchiolitis
e)
-
5.
A client has been diagnosed with mononucleosis. Which statements made by the client lets you know that further teaching is needed? Select all that apply.
a)
I can share my spoon while eating with my daughter.
b)
I cannot kiss my spouse and pass saliva for at least 10 weeks.
c)
I cannot play basketball for at least 10 weeks.
d)
I cannot ride my bike for at least 10 weeks. Your Answer
e)
-
6.
The nurse is caring for the client who has been in a coma for 2 months. He has signed a donor card, but the wife is opposed to the idea of organ donation. How should the nurse handle the topic of organ donation with the wife?
a)
Contact organ retrieval to come talk to the wife
b)
Tell her that because her husband signed a donor card, the hospital has the right to take the organs upon the death of her husband
c)
Drop the subject until a later time
d)
Refrain from talking about the subject until after the death of her husband Your Answer
e)
-
7.
Which sign or symptom should a nurse most likely assess in a client with a magnesium level of 2.9 mEq/L?
a)
Positive Homan’s sign.
b)
Tetany.
c)
Loss of deep tendon reflexes.
d)
Twitching. Your Answer
e)
-
8.
Self-monitoring of blood glucose is an important part of diabetes management because.
a)
An elevated blood glucose level prompts the client to exercise and thus lower the value.
b)
An abnormal blood glucose value indicates the client is ingesting too many carbohydrates.
c)
It enables the client to make self-management decisions.
d)
Monitoring alerts the client that his insulin is not effective, and he should open a new vial. Your Answer
e)
-
9.
The nurse is making rounds. Which client should be seen first?
a)
The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago and has a PEG tube
b)
The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
c)
The 50-year-old with MRSA (methcillin-resistant staphylococcus aurea)
d)
The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone intravenousl
e)
-
10.
A 24-year-old client undergoes a traumatic belowthe- knee amputation. The nurse assesses the client for risk of suicide.Which is a risk factor for suicide?
a)
Age.
b)
Female.
c)
Hopelessness.
d)
Living with family. Your Answer
e)
-
11.
A client presents with a right tension pneumothorax. The nurse expects to find which sign and symptom?
a)
Diminished breath sounds on the left.
b)
Hypertension.
c)
Hypoxia.
d)
Tracheal deviation to the right. Your Answer
e)
-
12.
The nurse prepares to administer an ACE inhibitor to a patient with an acute MI for which reason?
a)
To minimize platelet aggregation
b)
To reduce preload and afterload
c)
To reduce myocardial oxygen consumption
d)
To decrease myocardial oxygen demand Your Answer
e)
-
13.
The registered nurse is conducting an in-service for colleagues about peptic ulcers. The nurse would be correct in identifying which of the following as a causative factor?
a)
N. gonorrhea
b)
H. influenza
c)
H. pylori
d)
E. coli Your Answer
e)
-
14.
An 8-year-old is admitted with drooling, muffled phonation, and a temperature of 102°F. The nurse should immediately notify the doctor because the child’s symptoms are suggestive of:
a)
Strep throat
b)
Epiglottitis
c)
Laryngotracheobronchitis
d)
Bronchiolitis Your Answer
e)
-
15.
The client arrives in the emergency room with a “bull’s eye” rash. Which question would be most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client?
a)
“Have you found any ticks on your body?”
b)
“Have you had any nausea in the last 24 hours?”
c)
“Have you been outside the country in the last 6 months?”
d)
“Have you had any fever for the past few days?” Your Answer
e)
-
16.
A client has cancer of the pancreas. The nurse should be most concerned with which nursing diagnosis?
a)
Alteration in nutrition
b)
Alteration in bowel elimination
c)
Alteration in skin integrity
d)
Ineffective individual coping Your Answer
e)
-
17.
The licensed practical nurse is working with a registered nurse and a patient care assistant. Which of the following clients should be cared for by the registered nurse?
a)
A client 2 days post-appendectomy
b)
A client 1 week post-thyroidectomy
c)
A client 3 days post-splenectomy
d)
A client 2 days post-thoracotomy
e)
-
18.
The spouse of an elderly client dies. The nurse understands that this client faces the task of:
a)
Balancing freedom and responsibility.
b)
Adjusting to living alone.
c)
Promoting joint decision-making.
d)
Considering the economic ramifications. Your Answer
e)
-
19.
The client has recently returned from having a thyroidectomy. The nurse should keep which of the following at the bedside?
a)
A tracheotomy set
b)
A padded tongue blade
c)
An endotracheal tube
d)
An airway Your Answer
e)
-
20.
A patient arrives at the office of his physician complaining of a rash. The nurse assesses the patient and notes several palpable, elevated masses, each about 0.5 cm in diameter. What term would the nurse use to accurately describe these masses?
a)
Erosions
b)
Macules
c)
Papules
d)
Vesicles
e)
-
21.
An elderly client asks the nurse how often he will need to receive immunizations against pneumonia. The nurse should tell the client that she will need an immunization against pneumonia:
a)
Every year
b)
Every 2 years Your Answer
c)
Every 5 years
d)
Every 10 years
e)
-
22.
The client’s physician orders a blood transfusion for a client whose hemoglobin level is 5.0 mg/dL. The nurse informs the client that blood will be drawn for a type and cross-match prior to the blood transfusion. The client avoids eye contact with the nurse, then states,” I am a Jehovah’s Witness. I thought that was on my chart.” The nurse demonstrates the role of client advocate by which response to the client? A. B. C. D.
a)
Your hemoglobin is very low. I can notify your physician to discuss with you how important it is for you to receive the blood.
b)
I will place that information in your medical record. You have the right to refuse treatment which conflicts with your beliefs. Would you like to speak with your physician about other treatment options?
c)
Your physician ordered this blood transfusion because your hemoglobin is low. You should do as your physician recommends.
d)
Why do Jehovah’s Witnesses choose not to receive blood transfusions?
e)
-
23.
The nurse cares for a client with a hip fracture. The nurse understands that it is important for the client to ambulate frequently because:
a)
Weight-bearing exercise causes calcium to be absorbed into the bone, facilitating bone growth and repair.
b)
Weight-bearing exercise stimulates red blood cell production, preventing anemia.
c)
Ambulation prevents skin breakdown.
d)
Ambulation stimulates the bone marrow to produce more white blood cells to prevent infection. Your Answer
e)
-
24.
When teaching a primigravid client with diabetes about common causes of hyperglycemia during pregnancy, which of the following would the nurse include?
a)
Fetal macrosomia.
b)
Obesity before conception.
c)
Maternal infection.
d)
Pregnancy-induced hypertension. Your Answer
e)
-
25.
A teen hospitalized with anorexia nervosa is now permitted to leave her room and eat in the dining room. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the client’s plan of care?
a)
Weighing the client after she eats
b)
Having a staff member remain with her for 1 hour after she eats
c)
Placing high-protein foods in the center of the client’s plate
d)
Providing the client with child-size utensils Your Answer
e)
-
26.
A patient, age 38, has acute bronchitis. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Ineffective airway clearance. After implementing the care plan, the nurse would expect which outcome?
a)
The patient maintains a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/minute.
b)
The patient maintains an arterial oxygen saturation of 90%.
c)
The patient maintains clear breath sounds.
d)
The patient exhibits increased anxiety. Your Answer
e)
-
27.
Which of the following best describes the language of a 24-month-old?
a)
Doesn’t understand yes and no
b)
Understands the meaning of words
c)
Able to verbalize needs
d)
Continually asks “Why?” to most topics Your Answer
e)
-
28.
A primigravid client with diabetes at 39 weeks’ gestation is seen in the high-risk clinic. The physician estimates that the fetus weighs at least 4,500 g (10 lb). The client asks, “What causes the baby to be so large?” The nurse’s response is based on the understanding that fetal macrosomia is usually related to which of the following?
a)
Family history of large infants.
b)
Fetal anomalies.
c)
Maternal hyperglycemia.
d)
Maternal hypertension. Your Answer
e)
-
29.
The nurse is making rounds. Which client should be seen first?
a)
The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago and has a PEG tube
b)
The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
c)
The 50-year-old with MRSA (methcillin-resistant staphylococcus aurea)
d)
The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone intravenousl
e)
-
30.
A primigravid client with severe preeclampsia exhibits hyperactive, very brisk patellar reflexes with two beats of ankle clonus present. The nurse documents the patellar reflexes as which of the following?
a)
1+.
b)
2+.
c)
3+. Your Answer
d)
4+.
e)
-
31.
A full-term male has hypospadias. Which statement describes hypospadias?
a)
The urethral opening is absent.
b)
The urethra opens on the dorsal side of the penis.
c)
The penis is shorter than usual.
d)
The urethra opens on the ventral side of the penis. Your Answer
e)
-
32.
A client suffers from a right radial fracture. The client now complains of severe pain in the right arm accompanied with edema in the fingers. The nurse suspects:
a)
Carpal tunnel syndrome.
b)
Compartment syndrome.
c)
Subsequent ulnar fracture.
d)
Ulnar nerve palsy. Your Answer
e)
-
33.
A post-operative client has an order for Demerol (meperidine) 75mg and Phenergan (promethazine) 25mg IM every 3–4 hours as needed for pain. The combination of the two medications produces a/an:
a)
Agonist effect
b)
Synergistic effect
c)
Antagonist effect
d)
Excitatory effect Your Answer
e)
-
34.
A nurse cares for a client with an intracranial pressure reading of 10 mm Hg. The nurse knows that this reading:
a)
Is normal.
b)
Is elevated.
c)
Requires the nurse to notify the physician.
d)
Needs to be treated immediately. Your Answer
e)
-
35.
The nurse cares for a client who sustained serious injuries from a motor vehicle accident. In assessing client needs, the nurse knows that a client’s response to stressors depends on individual differences such as:
a)
Gender.
b)
Number of roommates.
c)
Room assignment.
d)
Time of day. Your Answer
e)
-
36.
The nurse has an order to administer meperidine (Demerol) 75 mg IM for pain. The drug available is Demerol 100mg in 2 mLs. How many mL(S) will the nurse administer?
a)
1.0 mL
b)
1.3 mL
c)
1.5 mL
d)
1.7 mL Your Answer
e)
-
37.
A client scheduled for surgery has a preoperative order for atropine on call. The nurse should tell the client that the medication will:
a)
Make him drowsy
b)
Make his mouth dry
c)
Help him to relax
d)
Prevent infection Your Answer
e)
-
38.
Assuming that all have achieved normal cognitive and emotional development, which of the following children is at greatest risk for accidental poisoning?
a)
A 6-month-old
b)
A 4-year-old
c)
A 10-year-old
d)
A 13-year-old Your Answer
e)
-
39.
The nurse is assessing a male patient with gonorrhea. Which symptom most likely prompted him to seek medical attention?
a)
Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
b)
Caulifl ower-like warts on the penis
c)
Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis
d)
Foul-smelling discharge from the penis
e)
-
40.
A client is admitted with suspected pernicious anemia. Which finding is common in the client with pernicious anemia?
a)
Complaints of feeling tired and listless
b)
Waxy, pale skin
c)
Loss of coordination and position sense
d)
Rapid pulse rate and heart murmur Your Answer
e)
-
41.
The nurse is cleaning up a blood spill that occurred during removal of a chest tube. The nurse should clean the blood spill using:
a)
Hydrogen peroxide
b)
Weak solution of bleach
c)
Isoprophyl alcohol Your Answer
d)
Soap and water
e)
-
42.
An elderly client is admitted to the psychiatric unit from the nursing home. Transfer information indicates that the client has become confused and disoriented, with behavioral problems. The client will also likely show a loss of ability in:
a)
Speech
b)
Judgment
c)
Endurance Your Answer
d)
Balance
e)
-
43.
Which home remedy is suitable to relieve the itching associated with varicella?
a)
Dusting the lesions with baby powder
b)
Applying gauze saturated in hydrogen peroxide
c)
Using cool compresses of normal saline
d)
Applying a paste of baking soda and water
e)
-
44.
Crohn’s disease can be described as a chronic relapsing disease. Which area of the GI system may be involved with this disease?
a)
The entire length of the large colon
b)
Only the sigmoid area
c)
The entire large colon through the layers of mucosa and submucosa
d)
The small intestine and colon, affecting the entire thickness of the bowel
e)
-
45.
The nurse cares for a client diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. Which finding most likely explains the client’s peptic ulcer disease?
a)
Family history of cancer.
b)
Ingestion of ibuprofen twice a day for chronic back pain.
c)
Computer use for at least 4 hours a day.
d)
Avoidance of eating vegetables. Your Answer
e)
-
46.
A client hospitalized with renal calculi complains of severe pain in the right flank. In addition to complaints of pain, the nurse can expect to see changes in the client’s vital signs, which include:
a)
Decreased pulse rate
b)
Increased blood pressure
c)
Decreased respiratory rate
d)
Increased temperature Your Answer
e)
-
47.
The nurse cares for a client diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. Which finding most likely explains the client’s peptic ulcer disease?
a)
Family history of cancer.
b)
Ingestion of ibuprofen twice a day for chronic back pain.
c)
Computer use for at least 4 hours a day.
d)
Avoidance of eating vegetables. Your Answer
e)
-
48.
The topic of physiologic changes that occur during pregnancy is to be included in a parenting class for primigravid clients who are in their first half of pregnancy. Which of the following would be important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?
a)
Decreased plasma volume.
b)
Increased risk for urinary tract infections.
c)
Increased peripheral vascular resistance.
d)
Increased hemoglobin levels. Your Answer
e)
-
49.
63.Which list contains common symptoms of terminally ill clients?
a)
Hunger, thirst, fatigue, and diarrhea.
b)
Dehydration, nausea, effective breathing, and adequate nutrition.
c)
Discomfort, nausea, ineffective breathing, and fatigue.
d)
Urinary continence, thirst, dehydration, and diarrhea. Your Answer
e)
-
50.
Which client is most likely to be affected with Cooley’s anemia?
a)
A child of Mediterranean descent
b)
A child of Asian descent
c)
A child of African descent
d)
A child of European descent Your Answer
e)
-
51.
An 8-year-old is admitted with drooling, muffled phonation, and a temperature of 102°F. The nurse should immediately notify the doctor because the child’s symptoms are suggestive of:
a)
Strep throat
b)
Epiglottitis
c)
Laryngotracheobronchitis
d)
Bronchiolitis Your Answer
e)
-
52.
Which class of medications protects the ischemic myocardium by blocking catecholamines and sympathetic nerve stimulation?
a)
Beta-adrenergic blockers
b)
Calcium channel blockers
c)
Opioids
d)
Nitrates Your Answer
e)
-
53.
The nurse cares for a client diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. Which finding most likely explains the client’s peptic ulcer disease?
a)
Family history of cancer.
b)
Ingestion of ibuprofen twice a day for chronic back pain.
c)
Computer use for at least 4 hours a day. Your Answer
d)
Avoidance of eating vegetables.
e)
-
54.
The nurse case manager knows case management is an example of which client care model?
a)
The outcomes evaluation model of care.
b)
The protocol management model of care.
c)
The interdisciplinary care management model.
d)
The risk assessment care management model.
e)
-
55.
Which home remedy is suitable to relieve the itching associated with varicella?
a)
Dusting the lesions with baby powder
b)
Applying gauze saturated in hydrogen peroxide
c)
Using cool compresses of normal saline Your Answer
d)
Applying a paste of baking soda and water
e)
-
56.
A camp nurse is applying sunscreen to a group of children enrolled in swim classes. Chemical sunscreens are most effective when applied:
a)
Just before sun exposure
b)
5 minutes before sun exposure
c)
15 minutes before sun exposure
d)
30 minutes before sun exposure
e)
-
57.
Which WBCs are involved in releasing histamine during an allergic reaction?
a)
Basophils
b)
Eosinophils
c)
Monocytes
d)
Neutrophils Your Answer
e)
-
58.
For gastric ulcer perforation, patient management should include:
a)
removal of the nasogastric (NG) tube.
b)
antacid administration.
c)
administration of a histamine-2 (H2)-receptor antagonist.
d)
fluid and electrolyte replacement.
e)
-
59.
A client has been diagnosed with mononucleosis. Which statements made by the client lets you know that further teaching is needed? Select all that apply.
a)
I can share my spoon while eating with my daughter.
b)
I cannot kiss my spouse and pass saliva for at least 10 weeks.
c)
I cannot play basketball for at least 10 weeks.
d)
I cannot ride my bike for at least 10 weeks. Your Answer
e)
-
60.
Which activity describes a good sleep hygiene habit?
a)
Exercising after work until 7:30 PM and then going to bed at 9 PM.
b)
Getting up and doing a quiet activity if unable to fall asleep after 30 minutes.
c)
Sleeping in on Saturday and Sunday.
d)
Reviewing projects needing to be completed the following day just before bed. Your Answer
e)
-
61.
A teen hospitalized with anorexia nervosa is now permitted to leave her room and eat in the dining room. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the client’s plan of care?
a)
Weighing the client after she eats
b)
Having a staff member remain with her for 1 hour after she eats
c)
Placing high-protein foods in the center of the client’s plate
d)
Providing the client with child-size utensils Your Answer
e)
-
62.
A patient with acute renal failure is being assessed to determine whether the cause is prerenal, renal, or postrenal. If the cause is prerenal, which condition most likely caused it?
a)
Heart failure
b)
Glomerulonephritis
c)
Ureterolithiasis
d)
Aminoglycoside toxicity Your Answer
e)
-
63.
Which development milestone puts the 4-month-old infant at greatest risk for injury?
a)
Switching objects from one hand to another
b)
Crawling
c)
Standing
d)
Rolling over
e)
-
64.
The nurse is found to be guilty of charting blood glucose results without actually performing the procedure. After talking to the nurse, the charge nurse should:
a)
Call the Board of Nursing
b)
File a formal reprimand
c)
Terminate the nurse
d)
Charge the nurse with a tort Your Answer
e)
-
65.
The nurse is assessing a male patient with gonorrhea. Which symptom most likely prompted him to seek medical attention?
a)
Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
b)
Caulifl ower-like warts on the penis
c)
Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis
d)
Foul-smelling discharge from the penis
e)
-
66.
A client hospitalized with renal calculi complains of severe pain in the right flank. In addition to complaints of pain, the nurse can expect to see changes in the client’s vital signs, which include:
a)
Decreased pulse rate
b)
Increased blood pressure
c)
Decreased respiratory rate
d)
Increased temperature Your Answer
e)
-
67.
A dilatation and curettage (D&C) is scheduled for a primigravid client admitted to the hospital at 10 weeks’ gestation with abdominal cramping, bright red vaginal spotting, and passage of some of the products of conception. The nurse should assess the client further for the expression of which of the following feelings?
a)
Ambivalence.
b)
Anxiety.
c)
Fear.
d)
Guilt.
e)
-
68.
After surgery to remove a ruptured fallopian tube, a multigravid client receives discharge instructions about potential complications to report to her physician. Which of the following, if stated by the client as a complication, indicates a need for additional teaching?
a)
Pain.
b)
Headache.
c)
Fever.
d)
Bleeding. Your Answer
e)
-
69.
The client with hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for developing:
a)
Respiratory alkalosis without dehydration
b)
Metabolic acidosis with dehydration
c)
Respiratory acidosis without dehydration
d)
Metabolic alkalosis with dehydration Your Answer
e)
-
70.
An elderly client who experiences nighttime confusion wanders from his room into the room of another client. The nurse can best help decrease the client’s confusion by:
a)
Assigning a nursing assistant to sit with him until he falls asleep
b)
Allowing the client to room with another elderly client
c)
Administering a bedtime sedative
d)
Leaving a nightlight on during the evening and night shifts
e)
-
71.
A post-operative client has an order for Demerol (meperidine) 75mg and Phenergan (promethazine) 25mg IM every 3–4 hours as needed for pain. The combination of the two medications produces a/an:
a)
Agonist effect
b)
Synergistic effect
c)
Antagonist effect
d)
Excitatory effect Your Answer
e)
-
72.
The topic of physiologic changes that occur during pregnancy is to be included in a parenting class for primigravid clients who are in their first half of pregnancy. Which of the following would be important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?
a)
Decreased plasma volume.
b)
Increased risk for urinary tract infections.
c)
Increased peripheral vascular resistance.
d)
Increased hemoglobin levels. Your Answer
e)
-
73.
A client is admitted with suspected pernicious anemia. Which finding is common in the client with pernicious anemia?
a)
Complaints of feeling tired and listless
b)
Waxy, pale skin
c)
Loss of coordination and position sense
d)
Rapid pulse rate and heart murmur Your Answer
e)
-
74.
A client with Crohn’s disease has been started on Entocort EC (budesonide) 9mg daily. The nurse should tell the client to take the medication:
a)
With grapefruit juice
b)
On an empty stomach
c)
Between meals
d)
With meals or a snack
e)
-
75.
A patient, age 38, has acute bronchitis. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Ineffective airway clearance. After implementing the care plan, the nurse would expect which outcome?
a)
The patient maintains a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/minute.
b)
The patient maintains an arterial oxygen saturation of 90%.
c)
The patient maintains clear breath sounds.
d)
The patient exhibits increased anxiety. Your Answer
e)
-
76.
The nurse is caring for a client with peripheral vascular disease. To correctly assess the oxygen saturation level, the monitor may be placed on the:
a)
Abdomen
b)
Ankle
c)
Earlobe
d)
Chin Your Answer
e)
-
77.
The nurse checks the carotid pulses in a client. The nurse knows to check the carotid pulse one side at a time:
a)
So the client does not feel like he is being choked.
b)
Because the rate will be easier to count.
c)
To prevent a syncopal episode.
d)
To obtain a more accurate description of the quality of the pulse. Your Answer
e)
-
78.
A client is scheduled to have in vitro fertilization (IVF) as an infertility treatment. Which of the following client statements about IVF indicates that the client understands this procedure?
a)
“IVF requires supplemental estrogen to enhance the implantation process.”
b)
“The pregnancy rate with IVF is higher than that with gamete intrafallopian transfer.”
c)
“IVF involves bypassing the blocked or absent fallopian tubes.”
d)
“Both ova and sperm are instilled into the open end of a fallopian tube.” Your Answer
e)
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79.
The nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client with a hiatal hernia. Which would be included in the teaching plan?
a)
Eat a puréed diet
b)
Avoid the intake of sweets
c)
Remain in an upright position after meals
d)
Limit protein to 3 oz. once a day Your Answer
e)
-
80.
The nurse is caring for a client with an acoustic neuroma brain tumor. The location of this tumor warrants particular concern for which of the following?
a)
Constipation
b)
Fluid volume
c)
Individual coping
d)
Injury from falls
e)
-
81.
A client with a laryngectomy returns from surgery with a nasogastric tube in place. The primary reason for placement of the nasogastric tube is to:
a)
Prevent swelling and dysphagia
b)
Decompress the stomach via suction
c)
Prevent contamination of the suture line
d)
Promote healing of the oral mucosa Your Answer
e)
-
82.
A 20-year-old married client with a positive pregnancy test states, “Is it really true? I can’t believe I’m going to have a baby!” Which of the following responses by the nurse would be most appropriate at this time?
a)
“Would you like some booklets on the pregnancy experience?”
b)
“Yes it is true. How does that make you feel?”
c)
“You should be delighted that you are pregnant.”
d)
“Weren’t you and your husband trying to have a baby?” Your Answer
e)
-
83.
An infant weighs 7 pounds at birth. The expected weight by 1 year should be:
a)
10 pounds
b)
12 pounds
c)
18 pounds
d)
21 pounds
e)
-
84.
The client is admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Blood gases reveal pH 7.36, CO2 45, O2 84, HCO3 28. The nurse would assess the client to be in:
a)
Uncompensated acidosis
b)
Compensated alkalosis
c)
Compensated respiratory acidosis
d)
Uncompensated metabolic acidosis Your Answer
e)
-
85.
The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for removal of the pituitary gland. The nurse should be particularly alert for:
a)
Nasal congestion
b)
Abdominal tenderness
c)
Muscle tetany
d)
Oliguria Your Answer
e)
-
86.
A primigravid client with severe preeclampsia exhibits hyperactive, very brisk patellar reflexes with two beats of ankle clonus present. The nurse documents the patellar reflexes as which of the following?
a)
1+.
b)
2+.
c)
3+.
d)
4+.
e)
-
87.
A client with a laryngectomy returns from surgery with a nasogastric tube in place. The primary reason for placement of the nasogastric tube is to:
a)
Prevent swelling and dysphagia
b)
Decompress the stomach via suction
c)
Prevent contamination of the suture line
d)
Promote healing of the oral mucosa Your Answer
e)
-
88.
A post-operative client has an order for Demerol (meperidine) 75mg and Phenergan (promethazine) 25mg IM every 3–4 hours as needed for pain. The combination of the two medications produces a/an:
a)
Agonist effect
b)
Synergistic effect
c)
Antagonist effect
d)
Excitatory effect Your Answer
e)
-
89.
The physician has prescribed Phenergan (promethazine) with codeine for a client with pleurisy. The nurse recognizes that the medication was ordered for its:
a)
Expectorant effects
b)
Anti-inflammatory properties
c)
Antitussive effects
d)
Ability to relieve pain Your Answer
e)
-
90.
A client with Crohn’s disease has been started on Entocort EC (budesonide) 9mg daily. The nurse should tell the client to take the medication:
a)
With grapefruit juice
b)
On an empty stomach
c)
Between meals
d)
With meals or a snack
e)
-
91.
The physician has prescribed Phenergan (promethazine) with codeine for a client with pleurisy. The nurse recognizes that the medication was ordered for its:
a)
Expectorant effects
b)
Anti-inflammatory properties
c)
Antitussive effects
d)
Ability to relieve pain Your Answer
e)
-
92.
A client with newly diagnosed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) asks the nurse if it’s necessary to tell co-workers about the diagnosis. The nurse’s response is based on which correct understanding?
a)
Transmission of AIDS doesn’t occur through casual contact
b)
Employees have a right to choose with whom they will work
c)
Clients with an AIDS diagnosis should not work in public places
d)
The law requires Your Answer
e)
-
93.
The nurse overhears the patient care assistant speaking harshly to the client with dementia. The charge nurse should:
a)
Change the nursing assistant’s assignment
b)
Explore the interaction with the nursing assistant
c)
Discuss the matter with the client’s family
d)
Initiate a group session with the nursing assistant Your Answer
e)
-
94.
Which of the following best describes the language of a 24-month-old?
a)
Doesn’t understand yes and no
b)
Understands the meaning of words
c)
Able to verbalize needs
d)
Continually asks “Why?” to most topics Your Answer
e)
-
95.
A postoperative surgery client has orders to be out of bed to a chair three times daily and to perform incentive spirometry 10 times hourly while awake. The client resists incentive spirometry instruction by the respiratory therapist and refuses when the nurse and the lift team arrive to assist the client up to a chair at bedside. Which statement by the nurse shows effective priority setting for this postoperative client? Choose the best answer.
a)
You do not have to get up to the chair if you do not want to. You have the right to refuse treatment.
b)
Using the incentive spirometer and increasing your mobility with activities like getting up to the chair are important for your recovery after surgery. They help to prevent complications like pneumonia. You always have the right to refuse treatment, but I want you to know that you are placing yourself at risk for complications if you do so.
c)
If you choose not to get up to the chair or use your incentive spirometer, your physician will be upset. These treatments are designed to help you avoid complications after surgery. Your Answer
d)
I would not want to get up, either, if I were you. That must be painful after surgery.Maybe you will feel strong enough to get out of bed tomorrow.
e)
-
96.
The nurse case manager knows case management is an example of which client care model?
a)
The outcomes evaluation model of care.
b)
The protocol management model of care.
c)
The interdisciplinary care management model.
d)
The risk assessment care management model. Your Answer
e)
-
97.
The nurse is caring for a client with an acoustic neuroma brain tumor. The location of this tumor warrants particular concern for which of the following?
a)
Constipation
b)
Fluid volume
c)
Individual coping
d)
Injury from falls
e)
-
98.
The nurse is providing postprocedure care for a patient who underwent extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy for the treatment of renal calculi. The nurse should instruct the patient to:
a)
limit oral fluid intake for 1 to 2 weeks.
b)
report the presence of fine, sandlike particles in the urine.
c)
notify the practitioner about cloudy or foul-smelling urine.
d)
report bright pink urine within 24 hours after the procedure. Your Answer
e)
-
99.
The nurse is cleaning up a blood spill that occurred during removal of a chest tube. The nurse should clean the blood spill using:
a)
Hydrogen peroxide
b)
Weak solution of bleach
c)
Isoprophyl alcohol
d)
Soap and water Your Answer
e)
-
100.
A patient, age 54, is admitted with a diagnosis of venous ulceration unresponsive to treatment. Which of the following is the nurse most likely to find during an assessment of a patient with venous ulceration?
a)
Gangrene
b)
Heavy exudate
c)
Deep wound bed
d)
Pale wound bed Your Answer
e)
-