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Aim High Ka-Dasig 2026

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

First-line pharmacologic agent for uncomplicated hypertension per guidelines

a)

Hydrochlorothiazide

b)

Clonidine

c)

Hydralazine

d)

Minoxidil

2.

Preferred antidote for acetaminophen toxicity

a)

Flumazenil

b)

N-acetylcysteine

c)

Atropine

d)

Naloxone

3.

Which antibiotic class has time-dependent killing

a)

Aminoglycosides

b)

Beta-lactams

c)

Fluoroquinolones

d)

Daptomycin

4.

Warfarin interactions increasing INR commonly include

a)

Rifampin

b)

Amiodarone

c)

Carbamazepine

d)

St. John’s wort

5.

Rapid-acting insulin analog onset is typically

a)

Immediate (0 min)

b)

5–15 minutes

c)

1–2 hours

d)

3–4 hours

6.

Which statin has highest LDL-lowering potency

a)

Pravastatin

b)

Lovastatin

c)

Rosuvastatin

d)

Fluvastatin

7.

Drug of choice for anaphylaxis

a)

Diphenhydramine IM

b)

Epinephrine IM

c)

Methylprednisolone IV

d)

Salbutamol nebulization only

8.

Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teeth discoloration

a)

Penicillin

b)

Cephalexin

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Azithromycin

9.

Initial therapy for acute gout flare

a)

Allopurinol

b)

Colchicine or NSAIDs

c)

Probenecid

d)

Rasburicase

10.

Black box warning for clozapine

a)

Seizures only

b)

Agranulocytosis and severe neutropenia

c)

QT prolongation only

d)

Hepatotoxicity

11.

Which PPI has the fewest CYP interactions

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Esomeprazole

c)

Pantoprazole

d)

Lansoprazole

12.

Mechanism of action of digoxin

a)

Beta-1 agonism

b)

Na+/K+ ATPase inhibition

c)

Calcium channel blockade

d)

ACE inhibition

13.

DOC for MRSA skin infections (oral outpatient)

a)

Amoxicillin–clavulanate

b)

Linezolid

c)

Cephalexin

d)

Doxycycline (or TMP-SMX)

14.

Beta-blocker preferred in asthma due to selectivity

a)

Propranolol

b)

Carvedilol

c)

Metoprolol

d)

Nadolol

15.

Which anticoagulant requires routine INR monitoring

a)

Apixaban

b)

Dabigatran

c)

Warfarin

d)

Enoxaparin

16.

ACE inhibitors common adverse effect:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Gingival hyperplasia

c)

Dry cough

d)

Hypokalemia

17.

Antidote for benzodiazepine overdose with respiratory depression:

a)

Naloxone

b)

Flumazenil

c)

Physostigmine

d)

Pyridoxine

18.

Time to steady state for drugs depends primarily on:

a)

Bioavailability

b)

Half-life

c)

Dosing interval

d)

Volume of distribution only

19.

Initial therapy for community-acquired pneumonia (no comorbidities):

a)

Azithromycin or doxycycline

b)

Vancomycin only

c)

Cefepime + metronidazole

d)

Amikacin

20.

Which antidepressant is most sedating among SSRIs?

a)

Fluoxetine

b)

Paroxetine

c)

Sertraline

d)

Escitalopram

21.

Target INR for most indications using warfarin (e.g., AF):

a)

1.5–2.0

b)

2.0–3.0

c)

2.5–3.5

d)

1.0–1.5

22.

Metformin major caution:

a)

Liver failure toxicity

b)

Risk of lactic acidosis in renal impairment

c)

Hypoglycemia common

d)

Severe weight gain

23.

Preferred emergency contraception within 5 days when BMI is high:

a)

Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg

b)

Ulipristal acetate 30 mg

c)

Copper IUD only

d)

Ethinyl estradiol high dose

24.

Which opioid has a ceiling effect on analgesia due to partial agonism?

a)

Morphine

b)

Fentanyl

c)

Buprenorphine

d)

Hydromorphone

25.

Vaccination recommended for adults ≥65 years for pneumococcal protection:

a)

PCV15/PCV20 then PPSV23 per schedule

b)

Only PPSV23

c)

Only PCV13

d)

Annual PCV13 booster

26.

Which buffer pair best maintains blood pH at 7.4?

a)

Phosphate (H2PO4−/HPO42−)

b)

Bicarbonate (H2CO3/HCO3−)

c)

Borate (HBO2/HBO2−)

d)

Acetate (CH3COOH/CH3COO−)

27.

0.5 M H2SO4 has what normality in acid–base titration?

a)

0.5 N

b)

1.0 N

c)

2.0 N

d)

0.25 N

28.

A 5% w/v NaCl solution contains how many grams of NaCl per 250 mL?

a)

5 g

b)

10 g

c)

12.5 g

d)

7.5 g

29.

Which indicator is most suitable for strong acid–strong base titration?

a)

Phenolphthalein

b)

Methyl orange

c)

Thymol blue

d)

Bromothymol blue

30.

Primary standard for standardizing NaOH solutions in acidimetry:

a)

Sodium carbonate

b)

Potassium hydrogen phthalate (KHP)

c)

Hydrochloric acid

d)

Oxalic acid (impure)

31.

A solution has pH 2. What is [H+][H^+] ?

a)

1×10−2 M1\times10^{-2}\,\mathrm{M}

b)

2×10−2 M2\times10^{-2}\,\mathrm{M}

c)

5×10−2 M5\times10^{-2}\,\mathrm{M}

d)

1×10−1 M1\times10^{-1}\,\mathrm{M}

32.

Calculate the osmolarity of 0.9% NaCl (MW 58.5). Assume complete dissociation.

a)

0.154 Osm/L

b)

0.308 Osm/L

c)

0.450 Osm/L

d)

0.100 Osm/L

33.

Which gas is commonly used for headspace GC to detect residual solvents?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Helium

c)

Argon

d)

Carbon dioxide

34.

A buffer with pKa 7.2 shows maximum buffering at which pH?

a)

6.2

b)

7.2

c)

8.2

d)

7.8

35.

Which technique best identifies polymorphic forms of APIs?

a)

UV–Vis spectrophotometry

b)

Differential scanning calorimetry (DSC)

c)

pH potentiometry

d)

Thin-layer chromatography

36.

Calculate mEq of Na+ in 0.5 L of 0.9% NaCl.

a)

38.5 mEq

b)

77 mEq

c)

90 mEq

d)

154 mEq

37.

Which chromatography is best for separating enantiomers?

a)

Normal-phase HPLC

b)

Size-exclusion chromatography

c)

Chiral stationary phase HPLC

d)

Paper chromatography

38.

Calculate pH of 0.01 M strong base.

a)

2.0

b)

12.0

c)

7.0

d)

9.0

39.

Which metal ion causes brown-black precipitation with sulfide in qualitative analysis (Group II)?

a)

Pb2+\mathrm{Pb^{2+}}

b)

Cu2+\mathrm{Cu^{2+}}

c)

Hg2+\mathrm{Hg^{2+}}

d)

Fe3+\mathrm{Fe^{3+}}

40.

Best method to assay vitamin C in tablets:

a)

Iodometric titration

b)

Complexometric titration

c)

Non-aqueous titration

d)

Polarography

41.

If 25 mL of 0.1 N HCl neutralizes 20 mL of NaOH, what is NaOH normality?

a)

0.05 N

b)

0.10 N

c)

0.125 N

d)

0.20 N

42.

Among polymorphs, the most stable form generally has:

a)

Lowest melting point

b)

Highest free energy

c)

Lowest solubility

d)

Highest dissolution rate

43.

Which reagent detects reducing sugars in TLC?

a)

Dragendorff reagent

b)

Ninhydrin

c)

Anisaldehyde–sulfuric acid

d)

Ferric chloride

44.

Which parameter ensures bioequivalence in dissolution testing?

a)

Q value at specified time

b)

Friability <1%

c)

Hardness range

d)

Moisture content

45.

Enteric coating primarily protects drugs from:

a)

Oxidation

b)

Gastric acid

c)

Light

46.

Best sterilization for heat-sensitive aqueous solutions:

a)

Autoclaving at 121°C

b)

Dry heat 160°C

c)

Membrane filtration (0.22 µm)

d)

Gamma irradiation

47.

A sustained-release matrix tablet reduces which parameter?

a)

Dose frequency

b)

Drug stability

c)

Patient adherence

d)

Bioavailability

48.

Which excipient functions as a binder in tablets?

a)

Lactose

b)

Povidone (PVP)

c)

Magnesium stearate

d)

Sodium starch glycolate

49.

Zeta potential is a measure of:

a)

Viscosity of solutions

b)

Surface charge of dispersed particles

c)

Solubility of drugs

d)

Compressibility of powders

50.

Which test assesses tablet mechanical strength?

a)

Disintegration

b)

Dissolution

c)

Friability

d)

Content uniformity

51.

Laminar flow hood class used for sterile compounding:

a)

Class I BSC

b)

Class II Type A2 BSC

c)

Class III BSC

d)

Unfiltered open bench

52.

Particle size reduction by fluid energy mill relies on:

a)

Impact and attrition via air jets

b)

Compression between rolls

c)

Cutting with knives

d)

Crushing by pestle

53.

Which parameter is critical in transdermal systems for drug flux?

a)

Partition coefficient (log P)

b)

Molecular refractivity

c)

Acid dissociation constant only

d)

Chelation tendency

54.

A solution labeled 1:10001:1000 epinephrine has what strength?

a)

0.01%0.01\%

b)

0.1%0.1\%

c)

0.001%0.001\%

d)

1%1\%

55.

Which emulsifier type produces oil-in-water emulsions?

a)

Hydrophilic colloids

b)

W/O surfactants (Span)

c)

High HLB surfactants (Tween)

d)

Finely divided solids (Pickering)

56.

Critical micelle concentration (CMC) refers to:

a)

Point where micelles form

b)

pH at which drug ionizes

c)

Temperature of maximum solubility

d)

Onset of degradation

57.

Dissolution of IR tablets is commonly performed using USP Apparatus:

a)

I (Basket) and II (Paddle)

b)

III (Reciprocating cylinder)

c)

IV (Flow-through)

d)

VII (Recirculating)

58.

Lyophilization removes water by:

a)

Evaporation at high temperature

b)

Sublimation under vacuum

c)

Osmosis through membranes

d)

Distillation at atmospheric pressure

59.

Which container is best for light-sensitive injections?

a)

Clear glass Type I

b)

Amber glass Type I

c)

Plastic LDPE

d)

Uncoated steel

60.

Bioavailability is MOST improved by which formulation strategy?

a)

Increase particle size

b)

Use salt form to enhance solubility

c)

Remove wetting agents

d)

Increase tablet hardness excessively

61.

A suppository base with rapid melting at 34–36°C is:

a)

Theobroma oil (cocoa butter)

b)

Polyethylene glycol base

c)

Glycerinated gelatin

d)

Beeswax base

62.

The beyond-use date (BUD) for non-sterile, water-containing oral prep (no preservative) is:

a)

14 days refrigerated

b)

90 days room temp

c)

6 months room temp

d)

30 days refrigerated

63.

Which parameter is verified in content uniformity?

a)

Average dose only

b)

Each unit within acceptance range

c)

Friability <1%

d)

Hardness 4–8 kp

64.

Most appropriate needle gauge for IM injection in adults:

a)

14–16 G

b)

18–20 G

c)

21–23 G

d)

25–27 G

65.

The cardioactive glycoside predominantly found in Digitalis lanata is:

a)

Digitoxin

b)

Digoxin

c)

Ouabain

d)

Strophanthidin

66.

Which alkaloid from Rauwolfia serpentina is an antihypertensive?

a)

Reserpine

b)

Quinine

c)

Strychnine

d)

Atropine

67.

Primary antimalarial constituent of Cinchona bark:

a)

Morphine

b)

Quinine

c)

Codeine

d)

Ephedrine

68.

Which crude drug contains anthraquinone glycosides and is a stimulant laxative?

a)

Senna

b)

Valerian

c)

Echinacea

d)

Ginger

69.

Source of taxanes used in chemotherapy:

a)

Ginkgo biloba

b)

Taxus brevifolia

c)

Camptotheca acuminata

d)

Catharanthus roseus

70.

Marker compound for quality control of Ginkgo extracts:

a)

Hypericin

b)

Ginkgolide B

c)

Curcumin

d)

Sennoside A

71.

Which essential oil is rich in menthol?

a)

Peppermint oil

b)

Clove oil

c)

Lavender oil

d)

Eucalyptus oil

72.

Which test detects saponins by persistent froth?

a)

Borntrager’s test

b)

Foam test

c)

Molisch test

d)

Wagner’s test

73.

Catharanthus roseus yields which anticancer alkaloids?

a)

Vinblastine and vincristine

b)

Morphine and codeine

c)

Podophyllotoxin and etoposide

d)

Camptothecin and irinotecan

74.

Which crude drug is used as antitussive demulcent due to mucilage?

a)

Aloe

b)

Marshmallow (Althaea)

c)

Capsicum

d)

Cascara

75.

Standardization of St. John’s wort commonly measures:

a)

Hyperforin/hypericin

b)

Ginsenosides

c)

Silymarin

d)

Anthocyanins

76.

Which plant part is the source of cinnamon bark?

a)

Root

b)

Stem cortex

c)

Leaf

77.

Which adulteration method mixes exhausted ginger with fresh?

a)

Substitution

b)

Sophistication

c)

Inferiority

d)

Spoilage

78.

Best microscopic feature identifying clove (Syzygium aromaticum):

a)

Scalariform vessels

b)

Oil cells in parenchyma

c)

Trichomes on epidermis

d)

Calcium oxalate prisms only

79.

Aloe gel activity is mainly due to:

a)

Anthrones

b)

Acemannan (mucopolysaccharides)

c)

Coumarins

d)

Capsaicin

80.

Primary law governing pharmacy practice in the Philippines:

a)

RA 9165 (Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act)

b)

RA 10918 (Philippine Pharmacy Act)

c)

RA 3720 (Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act)

d)

RA 6675 (Generics Act)

81.

Handling of patient data must comply with:

a)

RA 10173 (Data Privacy Act)

b)

RA 9502 (Cheaper Medicines Act)

c)

RA 8203 (Counterfeit Drugs)

d)

RA 7394 (Consumer Act)

82.

Ethical principle emphasizing patient autonomy:

a)

Beneficence

b)

Nonmaleficence

c)

Respect for persons

d)

Justice

83.

Generic substitution is mandated by:

a)

RA 9165

b)

RA 6675

c)

RA 10918

d)

RA 3720

84.

Which record must be maintained for dangerous drugs?

a)

Inventory only

b)

Prescription and dispensing logbooks

c)

Sales receipts only

d)

No record needed

85.

Conflict of interest requires the pharmacist to:

a)

Ignore if small

b)

Disclose and avoid compromising decisions

c)

Decide solely on profit

d)

Follow supervisor only

86.

A prescription without patient age and address should be:

a)

Dispensed anyway

b)

Returned for completion or clarified

c)

Filed as is

d)

Destroyed

87.

Informed consent requires that information is:

a)

Minimal and technical

b)

Adequate, understandable, and voluntary

c)

Unnecessary if family agrees

d)

Provided only after therapy

88.

Which document defines SOPs for pharmacy services?

a)

Employee handbook only

b)

Quality manual and SOP compendium

c)

Sales policies

d)

Marketing plan

89.

Pharmacist’s duty in medication error reporting:

a)

Hide errors to protect staff

b)

Report, analyze, and implement corrective actions

c)

Only inform prescriber

d)

Blame the technician

90.

GMP primarily ensures:

a)

Lower cost

b)

Consistent product quality and patient safety

c)

Faster marketing

d)

More advertising

91.

Process validation demonstrates that:

a)

Equipment is new

b)

Process consistently produces product meeting specs

c)

Suppliers are local

d)

Labels are attractive

92.

1. The ultimate evaluation of dosage forms or delivery system is on:

a)

Thickness

b)

Taste

c)

Clinical Effectivesness

d)

Disintegration

93.

3. The advantage of sublingual/buccal administration is:

a)

No occurence of gastrointestinal irritation

b)

Drug directly in the circulation

c)

Does not pass the liver

d)

A and C

94.

A site in the biophase to which drug molecules can be bond is;

a)

Receptor

b)

Unit Membrane

c)

Fluid compartment

d)

None of the above

95.

The principal site of drug metabolism is:

a)

Muscle Tissue

b)

Liver

c)

Gut wall

d)

Kidney

96.

A drug used to treat chronic alcoholism;

a)

Zolpidem

b)

Diazepam

c)

Disulfiram

d)

Flumazenil

97.

An anti-platelet drug:

a)

Heparin

b)

Urokinase

c)

Dipyridamole

d)

All of the above

98.

Decreases the probability of a second MI:

a)

Aspirin

b)

Streptokinase

c)

Heparin

d)

All of the above

99.

Total Parenteral Nutrition should be protected from light because it contains:

a)

Fats

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Vitamins

d)

Proteins

100.

Ethanol and citric acid are produced by the cellular respiration of carbohydrates, especially:

a)

Glucose

b)

Fructose

c)

Galactose

d)

Sucrose

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