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Rey Med Yall two

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The nurse is caring for a young adult admitted to the ER with a severe head injury. The nurse should position the patient

a)

with his neck in a midline position and the head of the bed elevated 30°.

b)

side-lying with his head extended and the bed flat.

c)

in high Fowler’s position with his head maintained in a neutral position.

d)

in semi-Fowler’s position with his head turned to the side.

2.

A client has fallen and sustained a leg injury. Which question should the nurse ask the client to help determine if the injury caused a fracture?

a)

Is the pain a dull ache?

b)

Is the pain sharp and continuous?

c)

Does the discomfort feel like a cramp?

d)

Does the pain feel like the muscle was stretched?

3.

Which among the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an EMS Nurse at the scene of an accident?

a)

Extrication of victims

b)

Provision of communications equipment

c)

Personal safety

d)

Equipment management

4.

Which among the following best defines the concept of medical direction?

a)

A system of hospital designations according to the hospital’s ability to treat different patients

b)

The provision of centralized coordination to identify and categorize the resources necessary for over-all system implementation and operation

c)

It is synonymous with “the dispatch system”

d)

Physician involvement and participation in all phases of the EMS system to ensure quality care

5.

You are dispatched to the scene of an unconscious patient. Upon arrival, you find an 85 year-old patient with bradycardia and slow shallow respirations. The patient has a terminal illness. The family presents you with a notarized DNR. As a pre-hospital provider, what actions would be appropriate?

a)

No care will be provided to the patient

b)

Lifesaving procedure may be used until the patient is seen by the physician

c)

Comfort care that does not include lifesaving procedures may be provided

d)

Lifesaving procedures must be initiated for a period of one (1) hour prior to honoring the DNR

6.

A feeling of hopelessness, loss of appetite, and feeling of isolation are all signs of:

a)

Depression

b)

A normal reaction to trauma

c)

Denial

d)

Stress induced by job-related activities

7.

Major disasters affecting the families such as the death of a child may require a more organized response by the EMT Nurse to resolve negative feelings. This process is called a/an:

a)

Critical Incident stress debriefing

b)

Encounter group

c)

Catharsis

d)

Exchange session

8.

Which among the following best describes the term “standard of care”?

a)

The planned configuration of community resources and personnel necessary to provide immediate medical care to patients who have suffered unexpected illness or injury

b)

The manner in which the EMT-B must act based on knowledge, laws, policies, standards and guidelines set forth by various standard setting organizations that provides the basis of pre-hospital and medical care

c)

A condition or quality of being competent, able, or fit to perform a particular task, a specific legal capability

d)

The level of care that rescuers can offer to patients within a community based on the degree of their training

9.

The following are ingredients of a negligence case EXCEPT:

a)

Duty to act

b)

Rescue motive

c)

Breach of duty

d)

Injury

10.

If you leave one patient to respond to another without proper turnover, you may be guilty of which among the following?

a)

Negligence

b)

Abandonment

c)

Malice

d)

Breach of duty

11.

What component of blood pressure is obtained using the palpation technique?

a)

Pulse

b)

Contractility

c)

Diastolic

d)

Systolic

12.

What is the best way for you to determine that the rescue breath you are delivering to a patient is effective?

a)

The stomach rises visibly

b)

The ventilation bag is completely compressed

c)

You can hear an air leak around the mask

d)

The chest rises visibly

13.

Gastric distention during rescue breathing is a common complication of:

a)

Under ventilation

b)

Slow ventilation

c)

Forceful ventilation

d)

Endotracheal ventilation

14.

The jaw thrust without head extension is the primary airway maneuver used for:

a)

All children

b)

Medical patients

c)

Patients with a suspected spinal injury

d)

Relieving airway obstruction

15.

You arrived at the scene of a bar fight. A 25 year old man has been stabbed in the chest and is bleeding severely. The assailant is still in the scene and holding a knife. What should you do?

a)

Try to keep the assailant calm while you treat the patient

b)

Take the knife away from the assailant

c)

Retreat to a place of safety and call for help

d)

Stay where you are, but tell the assailant to go away

16.

During assessment of a responsive medical patient, you use the memory device SAMPLE to obtain information. What does the letter P stands for this memory aid?

a)

Pulse

b)

Pain

c)

Provocation of symptoms

d)

Pertinent past medical history

17.

A 20 year old patient was found unresponsive. One of the first steps during your focused history and physical exam should include:

a)

Obtaining baseline vital signs

b)

Conducting a rapid trauma assessment

c)

Gathering a SAMPLE History

d)

Conducting a detailed physical exam

18.

You find a 16 year old boy, a baseball player, who is unresponsive with a deformed right leg. During the initial assessment, you find broken teeth in the mouth. You should:

a)

Proceed with your exam and immobilize the deformed right leg

b)

Proceed with the exam to locate other life threatening injuries

c)

Proceed with the management of any bleeding in the leg

d)

Stop your exam and remove the broken teeth in the mouth

19.

One of the best ways to determine if your patient’s condition is changing is to:

a)

Perform a rapid trauma assessment

b)

Conduct a focused assessment

c)

Collect a SAMPLE history

d)

Conduct an on-going assessment

20.

Which among the following devices is best suited for moving a patient over rough terrain?

a)

Wheeled cot stretcher

b)

Stair chair

c)

Stokes basket

d)

Long spine board

21.

When a group of EMT-Bs is performing a log roll in a patient, the movement should be supervised by the EMT-B positioned at the patient’s:

a)

Head

b)

Shoulder

c)

Hip

d)

Lower legs

22.

Patients with dyspnea are generally more comfortable when they are in what position?

a)

Semi-fowler or fowler

b)

Prone

c)

Supine

d)

Left or right lateral recumbent

23.

When reaching or stretching, the EMT Nurse should reach no more than:

a)

5-10 inches from the body

b)

15-20 inches from the body

c)

20-25 inches from the body

d)

30-35 inches from the body

24.

When caring for a deaf person, you should:

a)

Speak loudly

b)

Look directly at the patient when you speak

c)

Obtain family history from a family member

d)

Never allow a deaf person to refuse medical treatment

25.

While comforting for all patients, it is imperative to maintain physical contact with the:

a)

Deaf patient

b)

Elderly patient

c)

Blind patient

d)

Non-English speaking patient

26.

Which among the following is NOT an essential component of the verbal report?

a)

Your estimated time of arrival at the scene

b)

The patient’s age and sex

c)

A complete and detailed past medical history of the patient

d)

Brief pertinent past medical history of the patient

27.

In a pre-hospital setting, a patient with confused mental status refused treatment. The refusal signature is of no value unless you:

a)

Inform the patient of the potential consequences of the refusal

b)

Have at least two copies of the refusal

c)

Have a police officer as a witness to the refusal

d)

Have rendered at least some first aid care

28.

The management of acute asthma attack is aimed at:

a)

Alleviating emotional distress

b)

Administering low flow oxygen to relieve distress

c)

Relieving bronchospasm

d)

Encouraging the patient to cough up their secretions

29.

Which among the patients with chest pain should NOT be given nitroglycerin?

a)

45 year old male with a history of cardiac problems

b)

63 year old female complaining of chest pain

c)

39 year old female with a head injury

d)

56 year old male with a BP of 140/90

30.

You are transporting 67 year old male to the hospital when he suddenly goes into cardiac arrest. Your ambulance is moving at 50 mph (80.4 kph). If you need to attach the AED, which among the following should be done?

a)

Ask the ambulance driver to continue traveling at 50 mph (80.4 kph), attach the AED pads and allow the AED to analyze the patient’s rhythm

b)

Ask the ambulance driver to slow down to 25 mph (40.2 kph), attach the AED pads and allow the AED to analyze the patient’s rhythm

c)

Ask the ambulance driver to stop the vehicle, attach the AEDs and allow the AED to analyze the patient’s rhythm

d)

Attach the AEDs pads, clear the patient, and deliver 1 shock right away

31.

A seizure patient becomes cyanotic. After convulsions have ended, what action should you take?

a)

Wait for the patient’s color to return to normal

b)

Place a non-rebreather mask and provide supplemental oxygen to the patient

c)

Provide supplemental oxygen to the patient via nasal cannula

d)

Monitor the patient’s pulse for 2 minutes

32.

The seizure patient in a post-ictal state typically presents with:

a)

Extreme muscle rigidity

b)

Altered mental status

c)

A patient airway

d)

An alert and oriented appearance

33.

Status epilepticus is defined as multiple seizures without return to consciousness for a period of:

a)

5 minutes

b)

10 minutes

c)

15 minutes

d)

30 minutes

34.

Your patient is a 65 year old male with a chief complaint of headache that started suddenly. Your assessment reveals he is oriented with slurred speech, BP of 200/120 mmHg and warm, moist skin. You also noted some left sided weakness. Your patient is most likely experiencing a/an:

a)

Stroke

b)

Hypotensive crisis

c)

Diabetic crisis

d)

Overdose of anti-hypertensive drugs

35.

In a patient with a cerebral thrombus, the artery is:

a)

Ruptured

b)

Blocked

c)

Severed

d)

Collapsed

36.

Which among the following is a contraindication for giving oral glucose?

a)

The patient is alert and oriented

b)

The patient is unresponsive

c)

The patient does not have his or her own glucose

d)

The patient has a history of diabetes controlled by diet

37.

The function of insulin is to:

a)

Remove glucose from the cells

b)

Allow glucose to enter the cells

c)

Nourish the brain cells

d)

Allow the kidneys to pass glucose

38.

A man tells you that he can’t awaken his wife, who you find lying on the couch. He explains that she takes pills for diabetes. You find the patient to be unresponsive to painful stimulus. Your first action should be to:

a)

Give her oral glucose

b)

Start chest compressions

c)

Open and maintain the patient’s airway

d)

Assess the sensory and motor function in her toes

39.

You are giving oral glucose to a patient with diabetes when the patient suddenly has a seizure. What should you do for this patient?

a)

Maintain the patient’s airway

b)

Assess the patient’s ability to swallow

c)

Place the patient in a prone position

d)

Continue giving the patient oral glucose to increase the blood sugar

40.

What are the classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia?

a)

Warm, dry skin; hunger, abdominal pain; deep, rapid respirations

b)

Warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia, rapid respirations

c)

Cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; hunger; deep, rapid respirations

d)

Cool, clammy skin; feeling of fullness; tachycardia; rapid respirations

41.

A severe allergic reaction in which bronchial constriction, airway obstruction, and hypotension occur is referred to as:

a)

Psychogenic shock

b)

Respiratory shock

c)

Cardiogenic shock

d)

Anaphylactic shock

42.

A patient suffering from an allergic reaction may tell you their skin feels:

a)

Cool and dry

b)

Tingling and itchy

c)

Hot and dry

d)

None of the above

43.

In an allergic reaction, exposure to an allergen will cause the blood vessels to:

a)

Constrict

b)

Spasm

c)

Close completely

d)

Dilate

44.

Which of the following actions does epinephrine cause when given for an allergic reaction?

a)

Dilate blood vessels and dilates bronchi

b)

Dilate blood vessels and constricts bronchi

c)

Constricts blood vessels and dilates bronchi

d)

Constricts blood vessels and constrict bronchi

45.

Which among the following is classified as a stimulant?

a)

Heroin

b)

Phenobarbital

c)

Valium

d)

Cocaine

46.

Drugs classified as opioids may cause:

a)

Rapid, weak, pulse

b)

Increased blood pressure

c)

Slow, deep respirations

d)

Dilated pupils

47.

Your first priority in responding to a drug or alcohol emergency is to:

a)

Protect your own safety

b)

Protect your patient’s airway

c)

Find an antidote

d)

Disarm any hostile patient

48.

Alcohol is classified as a/an:

a)

Opiate

b)

Stimulant

c)

Narcotic

d)

Depressant

49.

Carbon monoxide, chlorine, and ammonia are examples of ______ poisons:

a)

Ingested

b)

Injected

c)

Inhaled

d)

Absorbed

50.

In tagging the body which is not part of the documentation:

a)

Sex

b)

Body number

c)

Collector

d)

Location

51.

Which of these is NOT a secondary identifying description:

a)

Clothing

b)

Tattoo

c)

Birthmarks

d)

Dentures

52.

When performing tagging and documentation, the body has a wrist watch and noticed that the arm was swelling:

a)

Remove the wrist watch

b)

Do not remove the wrist watch

c)

Keep it and hand it over to DVI

d)

A and C

53.

Management of the bereaved families is the responsibility of the:

a)

DSWD

b)

LSWD

c)

DOH

d)

PNP

54.

There is no significant public health risks associated with dead bodies to cause outbreaks from natural disasters. Victims are normally killed by injury, drowning or fire not by disease.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

MAYBE

d)

IT DEPENDS

55.

Dead bodies are hosts of disease agents present in endemic areas, however there should be presence of other risk factor to cause spread of infectious disease.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

MAYBE

d)

IT DEPENDS

56.

The surviving population is more likely to spread disease due to poor sanitation and unhygienic practices.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

MAYBE

d)

IT DEPENDS

57.

Burial of bodies in common graves or use of mass cremation shall be done in all circumstances to avoid spread of diseases.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

MAYBE

d)

IT DEPENDS

58.

The public health approach to the management of the dead EXCEPT:

a)

Identification of dead bodies

b)

Evidence

c)

Documentation

d)

Mass burial

59.

The management of the bereaved actions are all of these except:

a)

Social

b)

Biological

c)

Psychological

d)

Financial

60.

Mass fatality incident in natural disaster, identification shall be primarily done by:

a)

LGU

b)

SRR

c)

PNP

d)

NBI

61.

In human generated activities, identification shall be primarily done by:

a)

LGU

b)

SRR

c)

PNP

d)

NBI

62.

Visual recognition of cadavers or their photographs by acquaintances of the deceased is simplest form for identification but prone to errors:

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

MAYBE

d)

IT DEPENDS

63.

In having temporary burials, which of these is not true:

a)

Use individual burials for a small number of bodies and trench burial for large numbers

b)

Burial should be 1.5m deep and at least 20m from drinking water sources

c)

Leave 0.4m between bodies

d)

Lay bodies in one layer only (not on top of each other)

64.

It is a condition involving mass casualty and or major damages to property, disruption of means of livelihoods, roads and normal way of life of people in the affected areas as a result of the occurrence of natural or human-induced hazard.

a)

Emergency

b)

Sate of calamity

c)

Disaster

d)

Response

65.

The vice chair of disaster response:

a)

DSWD

b)

DOST

c)

AFP

d)

DPWH

66.

Accreditation, mobilization and protection of Disaster Volunteers & National Service Reserve Corp, CSO’s and the Private Sector is in both PD 1566 and RA10121:

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

MAYBE

d)

IT DEPENDS

67.

If the IRA is 100,000, how much will be allocated used to support disaster risk management activities such as, but not limited to, pre-disaster preparedness programs including training, purchasing life-saving rescue equipment, supplies and medicines, for post-disaster activities, and for the payment of premiums on calamity insurance:

a)

50,000

b)

70,000

c)

30,000

d)

90,000

68.

How much shall be allocated as Quick Response Fund (QRF) or stand-by fund for relief and recovery programs:

a)

30,000

b)

50,000

c)

70,000

d)

90,000

69.

The declaration and lifting of the state of calamity may also be issued by the _____, upon the recommendation of the LDRRMC, based on the results of the damage assessment and needs analysis.

a)

SK Chairman Nahial with SK Ratunil

b)

Mayor

c)

Local Sanggunian

d)

Barangay Captain

70.

The charge nurse in the ICU is notified of a bus accident with multiple injuries, and clients are being brought to the ER. The hospital is implementing the disaster policy. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

a)

Determine which clients could be transferred out of the ICU

b)

Call any off-duty nurses to notify them to come in to work.

c)

Assess the staffing to determine which staff could be sent to ER

d)

Request all visitors to leave the hospital as soon as possible.

71.

Bring the future into the present; what can you do today to ensure success tomorrow?

a)

Proactive

b)

Predicting

c)

Planning

d)

Preventing

72.

Take responsibility for your life and decisions, and focus on what you can control

a)

Proactive

b)

Predicting

c)

Planning

d)

Preventing

73.

Begin with an END IN MIND mentality

a)

Proactive

b)

Predicting

c)

Planning

d)

Preventing

74.

You take ownership of your performance and hold yourself accountable

a)

Proactive

b)

Predicting

c)

Performing

d)

Planning

e)

Preventing

75.

“Work on the things we can do something about.”

a)

Proactive

b)

Predicting

c)

Performing

d)

Reaacting

76.

It is the periodic collection of information to assess progress in changing the practices and well being of target populations

a)

Monitoring

b)

Mitigation

c)

Planning

d)

Evaluation

77.

It is designed to evaluate policies, roles and responsibilities, capabilities and procedures, of single or multiple emergency management functions or agencies

a)

Evaluation and monitoring

b)

Drill exercise

c)

Table top exercise

d)

Functional Exercise

78.

It is full-scale exercises are seldom used to evaluate a specific emergency response program by itself, but rather as a component of a total response system.

a)

Evaluation and monitoring

b)

Drill exercise

c)

Table top exercise

d)

Functional Exercise

79.

The Health Information Pathway

a)

Knowledge, Information, Data, Evidence

b)

Data, Information, Evidence, Knowledge

c)

Information, Data, Evidence, Knowledge

d)

Data, Evidence, Information, Knowledge

80.

It is an end product of data management processes that involves data collection, processing, analysis and dissemination.

a)

Knowledge

b)

Information

c)

Evidence

d)

Data

81.

When information becomes integrated with information and evaluated in terms of the issues confronting the health system, it becomes a:

a)

Data

b)

Evidence

c)

Knowledge

d)

Chismis

82.

When it is synthesized, formatted in a form that changes their understanding of health issues and needs, it becomes:

a)

Data

b)

Evidence

c)

Knowledge

d)

Chismis

83.

Facts extracted from a set of data (interpreted data); meaningful and useful, it becomes:

a)

Data

b)

Evidence

c)

Knowledge

d)

Information

84.

It is the identifying the information needs data collection, processing information, decision making, dissemination and sharing of information, and monitoring

a)

Interpretation

b)

Evidence based

c)

Information management

d)

Operations management

85.

It is needed to enhance the capacity of a community to manage its risks through risk awareness, prevention, preparedness, response and recovery.

a)

Information

b)

Evidence

c)

Knowledge

d)

Chismis

86.

It is needed by disaster workers, managers and authorities to enable optimal actions and decisions

a)

Information

b)

Evidence

c)

Knowledge

d)

Chismis

87.

It is a continuous process that produces data and information.

a)

Information Cycle

b)

Disaster Continuum

c)

Health Reports

d)

Quality Data

88.

Its objectives are to establish priorities, follow trends, identify vulnerable groups, high risk situations and reassess priorities

a)

Information Cycle

b)

Disaster Continuum

c)

Health Reports

d)

Surveillance Data

89.

Ensure routine mechanisms to provide data to program managers in comprehensible format of the analysis and presentation

a)

Information Cycle

b)

Disaster Continuum

c)

Health Reports

d)

Surveillance Data

90.

As you assess a conscious patient for a spinal injury, you should examine the lower extremities for

a)

Strength

b)

Priapism

c)

Distension

d)

Distraction

91.

The primary concern for patients with facial trauma should be

a)

Damage to the teeth

b)

Facial disfigurement

c)

Airway patency

d)

Permanent loss of vision

92.

An injury to the eye should be treated by

a)

Applying direct pressure and bandaging the injured eye

b)

Avoiding direct pressure and bandaging the injured eye

c)

Applying direct pressure and bandaging both eyes

d)

Avoiding direct pressure and applying eye patches both eyes

93.

The most important step when treating for chemical burns of the eye is to

a)

Immediately flush the injured eye with sterile water or saline

b)

Transport the patient quickly to a medical facility

c)

Flush the injured eye with copious amounts of tap water

d)

Neutralize the chemical agent

94.

Your patient has an impaled object through the cheek into the mouth. The patient is experiencing dyspnea due to bleeding from the impaled object. Your treatment should include

a)

Suctioning the airway and stabilizing the object in place

b)

Suctioning the airway and applying a bandage inside the mouth, leaving object in place

c)

Removing the object, suctioning the airway, then bandage the wound inside the mouth and on the cheek

d)

Remove the object, lean the patient forward to drain blood, then bandage the wound on the cheek

95.

Venous hemorrhage can usually be suspected if the color is

a)

bright red and the flow steady

b)

bright red and the flow is intermittent and spurting

c)

dark red and the flow steady

d)

dark red and the flow is intermittent and spurting

96.

During the initial assessment, you find a severe arterial bleeding from an extremity. What is the first method to control the bleed?

a)

Direct pressure

b)

Tourniquet

c)

Pressure points

d)

Elevation of the limb

97.

A 39-year-old patient crashed their car into a tree. He is conscious and complaining severe pain in the right anterior chest and difficulty of breathing. After ensuring an adequate airway, you should next

a)

Give supplemental oxygen

b)

Observe and record their vital signs

c)

Control any obvious external bleeding

d)

Cover any penetrating wounds into the chest cavity

98.

You are evaluating a 32 year old male who sustained a stab wound in the abdomen. You note fat and intestines protruding through the open wound. In managing the patient, you should

a)

replace the organs through the open wound and apply a bandage

b)

cover the organs with sterile dry gauze and apply a dressing

c)

not apply any dressing onto the exposed organs

d)

apply a moist gauze then apply a dressing

99.

The urgency of transport for female patients with injuries to the genitalia will depend on the following EXCEPT

a)

The presence of associated injuries

b)

The severity of the pain

c)

The presence of shock

d)

The amount of hemorrhage

100.

You are evaluating a 56-year-old male with bleeding from the nose. You should

a)

place the patient in a supine position then apply direct pressure, pinching the fleshy part of the nostrils for 15 minutes.

b)

apply ice over the patient's forehead then pinch the fleshy part of the nostrils for 15 minutes.

c)

make the patient sit and lean forward then pinch the fleshy part of the nostrils for 15 minutes.

d)

make the patient sit and lean his head backward then pinch the fleshy part of the nostrils for 15 minutes.