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Advanced Accounting

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which financial statement reports the financial condition of an entity at a specific point in time?

a)

Income Statement

b)

Statement of Cash Flows

c)

Balance Sheet

d)

Statement of Owner's Equity

2.

The primary purpose of an Income Statement is to report the entity's:

a)

Total assets and liabilities.

b)

Changes in equity.

c)

Financial performance over a period of time.

d)

Cash inflows and outflows.

3.

Which account is NOT found on an Income Statement?

a)

Revenue

b)

Cost of Goods Sold

c)

Retained Earnings

d)

Operating Expenses

4.

Before preparing the formal financial statements, a company would typically complete a(n):

a)

Post-closing trial balance

b)

Bank reconciliation

c)

Adjusted trial balance

d)

Statement of Cash Flows

5.

The Statement of Owner's Equity articulates with the Income Statement because it uses the:

a)

Total assets reported.

b)

Net income (or loss) calculated.

c)

Ending cash balance.

d)

Total liabilities reported.

6.

Which tool organizes financial data and is used to facilitate the preparation of adjusting entries and financial statements?

a)

General Journal

b)

T-Account

c)

Worksheet (8 or 10 columns)

d)

Schedule of Accounts Receivable

7.

An increase in revenue ultimately affects the Balance Sheet by increasing:

a)

A. Liabilities

b)

B. Non-current assets

c)

C. Owner's/Stockholders' Equity

d)

D. Long-term debt

8.

Which metric helps management determine acceptable levels of financial performance for decision-making?

a)

Debt ratio

b)

Gross profit margin

c)

Working capital

d)

All of the above

9.

The Balance Sheet equation is:

a)

Revenue - Expenses = Net Income

b)

Beginning Equity + Net Income - Dividends = Ending Equity

c)

Assets = Liabilities + Equity

d)

Cash Flows from Operations ± Investing ± Financing = Change in Cash

10.

In accounting terminology, the term used to classify resources owned by the entity that will provide future economic benefit is:

a)

Liabilities

b)

Equity

c)

Assets

d)

Revenue

11.

A corporation is typically formed by filing:

a)

Bylaws

b)

Partnership Agreement

c)

Articles of Incorporation

d)

Articles of Organization

12.

Which class of stock generally carries the right to vote on corporate matters?

a)

Treasury Stock

b)

Preferred Stock

c)

Common Stock

d)

Subscribed Stock

13.

The costs incurred during the initial formation of a corporation, such as legal and state fees, are typically debited to which account?

a)

Selling Expense

b)

Retained Earnings

c)

Organization Costs

d)

Capital Stock

14.

When a company declares a cash dividend, the transaction includes a debit to:

a)

Cash

b)

Capital Stock

c)

Retained Earnings

d)

Dividends Payable

15.

Which corporate action increases the number of shares outstanding but decreases the par value per share?

a)

Stock dividend

b)

Stock subscription

c)

Stock split

d)

Treasury stock purchase

16.

The metric that measures the amount of net income earned for each share of common stock outstanding is:

a)

Debt ratio

b)

Return on equity

c)

Earnings Per Share (EPS)

d)

Price-earnings ratio

17.

The final step in the accounting cycle for a corporation is:

a)

Preparing the financial statements.

b)

Journalizing and posting the closing entries.

c)

Preparing the post-closing trial balance.

d)

Preparing the adjusted trial balance.

18.

In a corporate closing process, the balance of the Revenue account is transferred to:

a)

Dividends Payable

b)

Capital Stock

c)

Income Summary

d)

Cash

19.

The distinguishing characteristic of a Subchapter S Corporation for tax purposes is:

a)

Unlimited liability.

b)

Pass-through taxation (no corporate tax).

c)

All shareholders must be corporations.

d)

Limited to 50 shareholders.

20.

A Limited Liability Company (LLC) generally offers its owners:

a)

No corporate tax and unlimited liability.

b)

Corporate tax and limited liability.

c)

Pass-through taxation and limited liability.

d)

No voting rights.

21.

A key characteristic of a partnership that allows any partner to legally bind the business to a contract is:

a)

Limited liability

b)

Separate legal entity

c)

Mutual agency

d)

Unlimited life

22.

The admission of a new partner requires the approval of:

a)

The court.

b)

Only the managing partner.

c)

All existing partners.

d)

The majority of the existing partners.

23.

Which statement is prepared before the Balance Sheet for a partnership?

a)

Statement of Cash Flows

b)

Distribution of Net Income Statement (or Owner's Equity Statement)

c)

Post-Closing Trial Balance

d)

Income Tax Return

24.

If a partnership's income sharing ratio is 2:1 for Partner A and Partner B, and net income is $90,000, how much does Partner A receive?

a)

$30,000

b)

$45,000

c)

$60,000

d)

$90,000

25.

In the closing process for a partnership, the partners' Drawing accounts are closed directly to their respective:

a)

Income Summary accounts

b)

Cash accounts

c)

Capital accounts

d)

Accounts Payable

26.

During the dissolution (liquidation) of a partnership, the gain or loss on the sale of non-cash assets is distributed to the partners based on their:

a)

Percentage of capital contribution

b)

Income-sharing ratio

c)

Drawing account balance

d)

Debt ratio

27.

For financial statement purposes, the owners' claims in a partnership are called:

a)

Stockholders' Equity

b)

Liabilities

c)

Partners' Equity

d)

Retained Earnings

28.

In the initial formation of a partnership, a partner's contribution of assets (other than cash) should be recorded at their:

a)

Original cost

b)

Historical book value

c)

Fair market value

d)

Net realizable value

29.

Which entry is not typically found in the year-end closing process for a partnership?

a)

Closing Expenses to Income Summary

b)

Closing Net Income to Capital Accounts

c)

Closing Dividends to Retained Earnings

d)

Closing Drawings to Capital Accounts

30.

The primary document that establishes the rights and duties of the partners is the:

a)

Articles of Incorporation

b)

Balance Sheet

c)

Partnership Agreement

d)

General Ledger

31.

Horizontal analysis of financial statements involves comparing:

a)

Different companies in the same year.

b)

Different accounts within the same year.

c)

A company's financial data across different years.

d)

An asset account to a liability account.

32.

Vertical analysis of an Income Statement expresses each item as a percentage of:

a)

Net Income

b)

Gross Profit

c)

Net Sales

d)

Total Assets

33.

Which ratio measures a company's ability to pay its short-term obligations using only its most liquid assets?

a)

Current ratio

b)

Debt ratio

c)

Equity ratio

d)

Acid-test (Quick) ratio

34.

If a company has Current Assets of 50,000andCurrentLiabilitiesof50,000 and Current Liabilities of 20,000, its Current Ratio is:

a)

0.40

b)

1.50

c)

2.00

d)

2.50

35.

Working Capital is calculated as:

a)

Total Assets ÷ Total Liabilities

b)

Net Income ÷ Common Shares Outstanding

c)

Current Assets - Current Liabilities

d)

Cash + Accounts Receivable

36.

The Debt Ratio measures:

a)

The proportion of total assets financed by owner's equity.

b)

The profitability of the company.

c)

The proportion of total assets financed by debt.

d)

The amount of cash on hand.

37.

The analytical technique that focuses on how costs and revenues change with varying levels of activity is:

a)

Vertical analysis

b)

Differential analysis

c)

Horizontal analysis

d)

Equity ratio analysis

38.

A company is using differential analysis to decide whether to replace or repair old equipment. The key factors considered would be the:

a)

Original cost of the old equipment.

b)

Depreciation expense on the old equipment.

c)

Future costs of repairing versus the purchase price and operating costs of the new equipment.

d)

Total sales revenue.

39.

In the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable, a change in the cost of raw materials (independent) would likely cause a change in the cost of goods sold (dependent). This is an example of:

a)

Horizontal analysis

b)

Cause and effect analysis

c)

Acid-test calculation

d)

Vertical analysis

40.

If a company's Equity Ratio is 70%, its Debt Ratio must be:

a)

70%

b)

170%

c)

30%

d)

1.00

41.

When merchandise is sold on account, the entry includes a debit to:

a)

Sales Revenue

b)

Cash

c)

Accounts Receivable

d)

Accounts Payable

42.

The ledger used to track the individual balances owed by customers is the:

a)

General Ledger

b)

Materials Ledger

c)

Accounts Receivable Subsidiary Ledger

d)

Accounts Payable Subsidiary Ledger

43.

Which method for recording uncollectible accounts expense directly violates the matching principle?

a)

Percentage of sales method

b)

Aging accounts receivable method

c)

Direct write-off method

d)

Allowance method

44.

The method that estimates bad debt expense based on the probability that older accounts receivable balances will not be collected is the:

a)

Percentage of sales method

b)

Aging accounts receivable method

c)

Direct write-off method

d)

Percentage of net purchases method

45.

A promissory note signed by a customer who promises to pay the company a specified sum on a specified date is a:

a)

Note Payable (for the company)

b)

Note Receivable (for the company)

c)

Trade Payable

d)

Credit Card Sale

46.

When a company issues a Note Payable, the journal entry to record the interest expense at the end of the period is typically an:

a)

Reversing entry

b)

Closing entry

c)

Adjusting entry

d)

Post-closing entry

47.

Cash received in advance from a customer for services not yet performed is initially recorded as a liability called:

a)

Accrued Revenue

b)

Prepaid Expense

c)

Unearned Revenue

d)

Accounts Receivable

48.

At the end of the period, the adjusting entry to record accrued salaries includes a credit to:

a)

Cash

b)

Salaries Expense

c)

Salaries Payable

d)

Prepaid Salaries

49.

Net Purchases is calculated as:

a)

Purchases + Purchase Returns and Allowances

b)

Purchases - Purchase Returns and Allowances - Purchase Discounts

c)

Purchases - Cost of Goods Sold

d)

Purchases + Freight-In

50.

The purpose of a reversing entry is to:

a)

Correct an error in a prior period.

b)

Close temporary accounts.

c)

Simplify the recording of subsequent cash transactions.

d)

Write off an uncollectible account.

51.

A budget that provides separate budgeted amounts based on the level of activity actually achieved is a:

a)

Master budget

b)

Operating budget

c)

Flexible budget

d)

Capital budget

52.

The comprehensive planning document that includes all the individual budgets (sales, production, cash, etc.) is the:

a)

Flexible budget

b)

Master budget

c)

Performance report

d)

Differential analysis

53.

A performance report compares:

a)

Actual results from different periods.

b)

Projected budgeted amounts with the actual amounts.

c)

Operating activities with financing activities.

d)

Cost of goods sold with net sales.

54.

The margin used in cost-volume-profit (CVP) analysis that shows the amount remaining from sales revenue after deducting variable costs is the:

a)

Gross profit margin

b)

Operating profit margin

c)

Contribution margin

d)

Net profit margin

55.

In the Statement of Cash Flows, cash from the purchase or sale of property, plant, and equipment is classified as a:

a)

Operating activity

b)

Investing activity

c)

Financing activity

d)

Non-cash activity

56.

The issuance of common stock for cash is reported as a cash flow from:

a)

Operating activities

b)

Investing activities

c)

Financing activities

d)

Non-cash activities

57.

Which financial statement section is most directly affected by the collection of Accounts Receivable?

a)

Investing Activities

b)

Financing Activities

c)

Operating Activities

d)

Statement of Retained Earnings

58.

The formula for the Contribution Margin Ratio is:

a)

Net Sales + Variable Costs

b)

Fixed Costs ÷ Net Sales

c)

Contribution Margin ÷ Net Sales

d)

Net Income ÷ Net Sales

59.

When calculating the cash flow from operating activities using the indirect method, depreciation expense is:

a)

Subtracted from net income.

b)

Ignored.

c)

Added back to net income.

d)

Classified as an investing activity.

60.

Which activity is the first step in the budget preparation process?

a)

Preparing the cash budget

b)

Reviewing revenues, expenditures, trends, and priorities

c)

Calculating the contribution margin

d)

Preparing the flexible budget

61.

Which of the following is NOT a cost unique to a manufacturing process?

a)

A. Direct Materials

b)

B. Factory Overhead

c)

C. Direct Labor

d)

D. Selling Expenses

62.

The total cost of all work completed during a period is calculated on the:

a)

Income Statement

b)

Schedule of Cost of Goods Manufactured

c)

Statement of Owner's Equity

d)

Finished Goods Ledger

63.

Which cost remains constant in total, regardless of changes in production volume within the relevant range?

a)

Variable cost

b)

Direct labor cost

c)

Fixed cost

d)

Mixed cost

64.

The primary goal of Cost Accounting is to:

a)

Satisfy external investors.

b)

Determine the cost of products and inventory.

c)

Prepare tax returns.

d)

Analyze market share.

65.

65. Factory utilities, indirect labor, and depreciation on factory equipment are all classified as:

a)

Direct Materials

b)

Selling Expenses

c)

Factory Overhead

d)

Administrative Expenses

66.

The Break-Even Point is the level of activity where:

a)

Total variable costs equal fixed costs.

b)

Contribution margin equals sales revenue.

c)

Total revenue equals total costs (Net Income is zero).

d)

Fixed costs equal zero.

67.

To calculate the Cost of Goods Manufactured, you add the beginning Work in Process inventory to:

a)

Finished Goods Inventory

b)

Total Manufacturing Costs

c)

Direct Materials Inventory

d)

Selling Expenses

68.

Costs that contain both a fixed and a variable component are known as:

a)

Prime costs

b)

Conversion costs

c)

Mixed costs

d)

Direct costs

69.

In a manufacturing environment, the ledger used to track the quantity and cost of individual raw materials is the:

a)

General Ledger

b)

Materials Ledger

c)

Finished Goods Ledger

d)

Accounts Payable Ledger

70.

The primary purpose of using various allocation methods (e.g., activity-based costing) is to

a)

Assign overhead and indirect costs to products or departments.

b)

Reduce the total amount of direct materials

c)

Simplify the computation of break-even points

d)

Eliminate all fixed costs.

71.

In departmentalized accounting, the main benefit of creating a departmental statement of gross profit is to:

a)

Calculate net income for the entire company.

b)

Simplify the closing process.

c)

Evaluate the profitability of each separate department.

d)

Determine the acid-test ratio.

72.

When a sale on account is made by Department A, the transaction is recorded in a:

a)

General Journal

b)

Cash Payments Journal

c)

Sales Journal

d)

Purchases Journal

73.

The journal used to record the payment of the weekly payroll for all departments is the:

a)

Sales Journal

b)

General Journal

c)

Purchases Journal

d)

Cash Payments Journal

74.

When maintaining payroll records for a departmentalized business, the payroll expenses are generally recorded based on:

a)

Total company sales revenue.

b)

Where the employees work (e.g., Sales Department, Admin Department).

c)

The owner's salary.

d)

The amount of freight-in.

75.

In departmentalized accounting, the year-end closing entries:

a)

Are eliminated.

b)

Close the temporary accounts for each department (e.g., Dept. Sales, Dept. Expenses).

c)

Only close the General Ledger accounts.

d)

Close only the liability accounts.

76.

The ethical standard that requires accountants to avoid using private company information for personal gain is:

a)

Integrity

b)

Objectivity

c)

Confidentiality

d)

Justice

77.

Financial statements prepared with integrity ensure that the information is:

a)

The most favorable to the company.

b)

Hidden from competitors.

c)

Complete, accurate, and free from material error.

d)

Approved by the CEO.

78.

Implementing security measures, such as strong passwords and access controls, primarily helps to:

a)

Lower the tax rate.

b)

Maintain data security and minimize loss.

c)

Increase sales revenue.

d)

Complete tax forms.

79.

The most significant reason for an accountant to adhere to high ethical standards in preparing financial statements is to:

a)

Simplify journalizing.

b)

Create trust for internal and external users.

c)

Reduce the time required for audits.

d)

Increase company profits.

80.

Failing to disclose a conflict of interest when interpreting financial data violates the principle of:

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Integrity/Objectivity

c)

Responsibility

d)

Compliance

81.

Which tax form is typically used by employers to report quarterly Federal Income Tax, Social Security Tax, and Medicare Tax withheld from employees?

a)

W-4

b)

W-2

c)

Form 941

d)

Form 1099

82.

The term used to describe income reported on the Income Statement before taxes, which is often different from the amount used for calculating taxes, is:

a)

Taxable income

b)

Pretax financial income (or book income)

c)

Deferred income

d)

Corporate worksheet income

83.

The difference between tax avoidance and tax evasion is that:

a)

Tax evasion is legal, and tax avoidance is illegal.

b)

Both are illegal.

c)

Tax avoidance is the legal use of the tax code, and tax evasion is the illegal misrepresentation of facts.

d)

Tax avoidance is only for corporations.

84.

The choice of a depreciation method (e.g., MACRS for tax vs. Straight-Line for GAAP) primarily causes a difference between:

a)

Current assets and current liabilities.

b)

Pretax financial income and taxable income.

c)

Sales revenue and cost of goods sold.

d)

Investing and financing activities.

85.

Deferred income taxes are generally created when:

a)

The company has a net loss.

b)

There are timing differences between GAAP and tax law recognition of revenues and expenses.

c)

The tax rate changes unexpectedly.

d)

An asset is traded for another asset.

86.

Which inventory costing method assumes that the last goods purchased are the first goods sold?

a)

FIFO (First-In, First-Out)

b)

Weighted-Average

c)

LIFO (Last-In, First-Out)

d)

Retail method

87.

During a period of rising costs, which inventory method will result in the lowest Net Income?

a)

FIFO

b)

LIFO

c)

Weighted-Average

d)

Gross Profit

88.

The ratio that measures the number of times a company sells its average level of inventory during a period is the:

a)

Acid-test ratio

b)

Merchandise turnover ratio

c)

Debt-to-equity ratio

d)

Earnings per share

89.

Which inventory estimation method is most often used to estimate inventory loss due to fire or theft?

a)

LIFO

b)

FIFO

c)

Gross Profit method

d)

Retail method

90.

The cost of inventory that can no longer be sold due to damage or obsolescence should be recognized as a loss and its value should be reduced to its:

a)

Original cost

b)

Net Realizable Value

c)

Replacement cost

d)

Zero

91.

When merchandise is returned by a customer, the seller records the transaction in the:

a)

Purchases Journal

b)

General Journal

c)

Cash Receipts Journal

d)

Sales Returns and Allowances Journal (or General Journal)

92.

The process of transferring amounts from journals to ledger accounts is called:

a)

Journalizing

b)

Ruling

c)

Posting

d)

Proving

93.

A check received from a customer for payment on account is recorded in the:

a)

General Journal

b)

Cash Payments Journal

c)

Cash Receipts Journal

d)

Sales Journal

94.

The adjusting entry to record the use of supplies during the period includes a credit to:

a)

Supplies Expense

b)

Supplies (Asset account)

c)

Cash

d)

Accounts Payable

95.

In a voucher system, the primary document authorizing a cash payment to a vendor is the:

a)

Purchase order

b)

Invoice

c)

Voucher

d)

Check

96.

The tax paid entirely by the employer and not deducted from the employee's gross pay is:

a)

Federal Income Tax Withholding

b)

Employee FICA Tax

c)

Federal Unemployment Tax (FUTA)

d)

State Income Tax Withholding

97.

An employee working at an hourly rate who is paid one and a half times their regular rate for hours over 40 is receiving:

a)

Piece rate earnings

b)

Commission earnings

c)

Salary

d)

Overtime pay

98.

The journal entry to record the payment of the total net pay to employees includes a credit to:

a)

Salaries Expense

b)

Payroll Tax Expense

c)

Cash

d)

FICA Payable

99.

The government form given to employees at the end of the year to report their annual earnings and all amounts withheld is the:

a)

Form W-4

b)

Form W-2

c)

Form 940

d)

Form 1099

100.

Which of the following is classified as a current liability on the Balance Sheet?

a)

Retained Earnings

b)

Accounts Receivable

c)

Notes Payable due in 6 months

d)

Equipment

101.

Which financial statement shows the results of operations over a specific period?

a)

Statement of Owner's Equity

b)

Income Statement

c)

Balance Sheet

d)

Trial Balance

102.

What is the main purpose of the Statement of Cash Flows?

a)

To report cash inflows and outflows during a period

b)

To show the company's profitability

c)

To list all assets and liabilities

d)

To calculate earnings per share