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1111 exam 5 outcome.1

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which finding indicates circulatory overload?

a)

Decreased blood pressure

b)

Crackles in the lungs

c)

Slow heart rate

d)

Warm, dry skin

2.

Which assessment finding should the nurse report for suspected fluid overload?

a)

Jugular vein distention

b)

Flat neck veins

c)

Sunken eyes

d)

Dry mucous membranes

3.

Which client statement supports fluid volume overload?

a)

I feel dizzy when I stand up.

b)

My mouth feels dry.

c)

I have swelling in my ankles.

d)

I’m always thirsty.

4.

Which task can be safely delegated to an assistive personnel (AP)?

a)

Obtaining vital signs for a stable postoperative client

b)

Teaching use of an incentive spirometer

c)

Assessing pain level

d)

Evaluating IV site

5.

The nurse can delegate which activity to an AP?

a)

Administering an enema to an unstable client

b)

Assisting with ambulation after surgery

c)

Assessing a dressing

d)

Explaining a diet

6.

Which action must the nurse perform, not the AP?

a)

Evaluating effectiveness of pain medication

b)

Measuring urine output

c)

Making a bed

d)

Obtaining weight

7.

Which finding is expected with paralytic ileus?

a)

Hyperactive bowel sounds

b)

Absent bowel sounds

c)

Frequent stools

d)

Active peristalsis

8.

Which intervention is priority for paralytic ileus?

a)

Maintain NPO status and insert NG tube

b)

Increase oral fluids

c)

Administer laxatives

d)

Encourage ambulation only

9.

Which diagnostic test confirms paralytic ileus?

a)

CT brain scan

b)

Abdominal x-ray

c)

Chest x-ray

d)

Colonoscopy

10.

The nurse should take which action for a malfunctioning electrical pump?

a)

Attempt repair

b)

Remove it and tag for inspection

c)

Continue use if minor issue

d)

Cover the cord with tape

11.

To prevent electrical shock, the nurse should:

a)

Plug cords into extension outlets

b)

Use grounded electrical outlets

c)

Overload sockets

d)

Pull cords to disconnect

12.

Which finding requires removing electrical equipment from service?

a)

Frayed or exposed wires

b)

Slight discoloration

c)

Label missing

d)

Long cord length

13.

Which food is highest in calcium?

a)

Apples

b)

Chicken breast

c)

Yogurt

d)

Rice

14.

Which statement shows correct understanding of calcium intake?

a)

I will include more dairy and leafy greens.

b)

I will drink more soda.

c)

I will cut down on milk.

d)

I will avoid fish.

15.

The nurse teaches that calcium absorption improves with:

a)

Vitamin D intake

b)

Low sodium intake

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Fiber supplements

16.

Which client is most at risk for wound dehiscence?

a)

A. A 22-year-old with appendectomy

b)

B. An obese client after abdominal surgery

c)

C. A 40-year-old with ankle sprain

d)

D. A young adult with mild burn

17.

Which postoperative practice increases dehiscence risk?

4 lines
18.

Which postoperative practice increases dehiscence risk?

a)

Coughing forcefully without splinting

b)

Wearing an abdominal binder

c)

Using an incentive spirometer

d)

Adequate protein intake

19.

Which lab finding increases risk for wound separation?

a)

Sodium 140 mEq/L

b)

Albumin 2.8 g/dL

c)

Potassium 4.0 mEq/L

d)

Calcium 9.5 mg/dL

20.

What is the nurse’s priority during the first hour after surgery?

a)

Assess airway and breathing

b)

Assess urine output

c)

Measure temperature

d)

Inspect incision

21.

Which nursing action prevents DVT post-surgery?

a)

Elevate head of bed

b)

Encourage leg exercises

c)

Restrict fluids

d)

Keep bed flat

22.

Which finding requires immediate intervention?

a)

Mild nausea

b)

Small amount of drainage

c)

O₂ saturation of 85%

d)

Pain 4/10

23.

Kayexalate is prescribed for which condition?

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Hyponatremia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypercalcemia

24.

What should the nurse monitor for after giving kayexalate?

a)

Frequent loose stools

b)

Constipation

c)

Decreased bowel sounds

d)

Bradycardia

25.

Which finding shows effectiveness of kayexalate?

a)

Potassium 6.2 mEq/L

b)

Potassium 4.0 mEq/L

c)

Sodium 136 mEq/L

d)

Calcium 9.0 mg/dL

26.

Which adverse effect may occur from excess calcium?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Hypotension

27.

Which adverse effect may occur from excess calcium?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Hypotension

c)

Constipation

d)

Hypocalcemia

28.

Which client statement indicates a side effect of calcium supplements?

a)

I feel dizzy when I stand.

b)

I bruise easily.

c)

I’m having frequent kidney stones.

d)

My vision is blurry.

29.

Which medication increases risk for hypercalcemia when taken with calcium?

a)

Iron

b)

Thiazide diuretics

c)

Loop diuretics

d)

Beta blockers

30.

Which vitamin deficiency is most associated with chronic alcohol use?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Thiamine (B1)

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Vitamin K

31.

Which withdrawal symptom requires immediate attention?

a)

Tremors and hallucinations

b)

Nausea

c)

Mild anxiety

d)

Insomnia

32.

Which intervention promotes recovery in alcohol use disorder?

a)

Administer caffeine

b)

Refer to Alcoholics Anonymous

c)

Encourage isolation

d)

Limit nutrition

33.

Which statement demonstrates correct understanding of diffusion?

a)

“It’s the movement of molecules from high to low concentration.”

b)

“It’s the pumping of ions using energy.”

c)

“It’s water movement only.”

d)

“It’s passive filtration.”

34.

Which body process uses diffusion?

a)

Blood clotting

b)

Gas exchange in alveoli

c)

Peristalsis

d)

Active transport

35.

Which factor affects diffusion rate?

a)

pH levels only

b)

Membrane thickness

c)

Blood pressure only

36.

Which ECG finding indicates hypokalemia?

a)

Peaked T waves

b)

Prolonged PR interval

c)

Flattened T waves

d)

Short QT interval

37.

Which clinical sign suggests low potassium?

a)

Muscle twitching

b)

Weak, irregular pulse

c)

Rapid respirations

d)

Hypertension

38.

The nurse expects which finding in hypokalemia?

a)

Muscle weakness and leg cramps

b)

Tremors

c)

Hyperreflexia

d)

Sweating

39.

Which action should the nurse take first before starting an IV infusion?

a)

Verify provider’s prescription

b)

Choose the largest catheter available

c)

Ask AP to start IV

d)

Apply sterile gloves

40.

The nurse should select which vein for adult IV initiation?

a)

Femoral

b)

Neck

c)

Dorsal hand or forearm

d)

Foot

41.

Which solution requires the nurse to check for infiltration most frequently?

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypertonic

c)

Hypotonic

d)

Dextrose

42.

During a continuous IV infusion, which nursing action is essential?

a)

Measure blood glucose every hour

b)

Monitor infusion rate and site condition regularly

c)

Flush IV every 30 minutes

d)

Apply warm compress to site

43.

Which sign indicates an air embolism during IV therapy?

a)

Sudden shortness of breath and chest pain

b)

Low-grade fever

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Local redness at site

44.

What is the priority nursing action for suspected air embolism?

a)

Start chest compressions

b)

Elevate client’s legs

c)

Place client on left side in Trendelenburg position

d)

Administer oral fluids

45.

Which finding is a complication of spinal anesthesia?

a)

Severe headache from CSF leak

b)

Fever and chills

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Constipation

46.

The nurse recognizes which symptom as spinal anesthesia complication?

a)

Restlessness

b)

Vomiting

c)

Hypotension and bradycardia

d)

Hypertension

47.

Which nursing action minimizes post-spinal headache?

a)

Ambulate immediately

b)

Encourage supine position and fluids

c)

Limit fluid intake

d)

Apply ice to incision

48.

Which complication may occur with central venous catheter placement?

a)

Urinary retention

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Constipation

49.

Which finding indicates a problem with a central line?

a)

Clear, dry dressing

b)

Stable oxygen level

c)

Swelling or pain at insertion site

d)

Clean connections

50.

To prevent catheter-related infection, the nurse should:

a)

Use sterile technique for dressing changes

b)

Replace line weekly

c)

Avoid flushing line

d)

Use tap water

51.

Which factor increases risk for surgical complications?

a)

Regular exercise

b)

Balanced diet

c)

Smoking history

d)

Normal BMI

52.

Which client condition poses increased perioperative risk?

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Iron deficiency

c)

Lactose intolerance

d)

Nearsightedness

53.

The nurse identifies which as a surgical risk factor?

a)

Age 25, healthy

b)

Normal labs

c)

Obesity and hypertension

d)

Stable vital signs

54.

A client receives 250 mL IV fluid over 4 hours. How many mL per hour should the pump deliver?

a)

50 mL/hr

b)

63 mL/hr

c)

70 mL/hr

d)

80 mL/hr

55.

If a client receives 1,000 mL of fluid over 8 hours, what is the hourly rate?

a)

100 mL/hr

b)

125 mL/hr

c)

75 mL/hr

d)

90 mL/hr

56.

How much total intake is recorded for 6 hours if the client drinks 480 mL and receives 600 mL IV?

a)

900 mL

b)

950 mL

c)

1,080 mL

d)

1,000 mL

57.

Which instruction is appropriate for a client scheduled for a colonoscopy?

a)

You may eat a light breakfast the morning of your test.

b)

You will be on clear liquids and take a bowel prep before the procedure.

c)

You will need to fast for 48 hours.

d)

Avoid walking after the test.

58.

Which finding requires notifying the provider before colonoscopy?

a)

Active rectal bleeding

b)

Mild nausea

c)

Anxiety about procedure

d)

Past appendectomy

59.

Which action is appropriate after colonoscopy?

a)

Begin solid diet immediately

b)

Encourage bed rest

c)

Monitor for signs of perforation

d)

Remove IV immediately

60.

The nurse recognizes which postoperative complication risk for a client who smokes?

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Constipation

c)

Delayed wound healing

d)

Hyperglycemia

61.

A nurse should prioritize which intervention for a post-op smoker?

a)

Encourage sugar intake

b)

Restrict fluids

c)

Monitor oxygen saturation closely

d)

Limit ambulation

62.

Smoking increases a client’s risk for which complication?

a)

A. Respiratory depression after anesthesia

b)

B. High blood calcium

c)

C. Low platelet count

d)

D. Hypothermia

63.

When administering oral potassium supplements, which action is correct?

a)

Give on empty stomach

b)

Crush before giving

c)

Administer with full glass of water

d)

Skip if client has nausea

64.

Which route is used for severe hypokalemia requiring rapid replacement?

a)

Oral

b)

Subcutaneous

c)

Intravenous (diluted)

d)

Topical

65.

What is a safe nursing action for IV potassium administration?

a)

Use infusion pump and never give as IV bolus

b)

Push IV quickly for immediate effect

c)

Mix with antibiotics

d)

Inject into muscle

66.

Which instruction should be included when teaching about DVT prevention?

a)

Limit leg movement

b)

Cross legs often

c)

Perform ankle flexion exercises

d)

Avoid fluids

67.

Which finding suggests deep vein thrombosis?

a)

Pallor and cold skin

b)

Calf pain and warmth

c)

Equal leg size

d)

No pulse changes

68.

Which medication helps prevent DVT after surgery?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Enoxaparin

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Vitamin D

69.

Which instruction should the nurse give for using an incentive spirometer?

a)

Inhale slowly and hold breath for 3–5 seconds

b)

Exhale forcefully into the device

c)

Use once daily

d)

Sit flat in bed

70.

Which statement indicates correct understanding of incentive spirometry?

a)

It helps lower my blood pressure.

b)

It clears my throat.

c)

It prevents pneumonia after surgery.

d)

It measures my oxygen level.

71.

The nurse teaches that the client should use an incentive spirometer how often?

a)

Once daily

b)

10 times every hour while awake

c)

Every 4 hours

d)

Only before meals

72.

The nurse knows the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity is:

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Calcium gluconate

c)

Potassium chloride

d)

Sodium phosphate

73.

Which finding indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity?

a)

Depressed deep tendon reflexes

b)

Hypertension

c)

Restlessness

d)

Tachycardia

74.

Which intervention should the nurse anticipate for magnesium toxicity?

a)

Increase magnesium dose

b)

Restrict fluids

c)

Stop infusion and administer calcium gluconate

d)

Apply warm compresses

75.

Which nursing action ensures accuracy when calculating IV intake?

a)

Record all oral fluids only

b)

Include all IV fluids and piggybacks administered

c)

Count irrigation fluids only

d)

Exclude flushes

76.

A client received 500 mL normal saline and 250 mL antibiotics. How much intake should be documented?

a)

500 mL

b)

750 mL

c)

600 mL

d)

800 mL

77.

Which should the nurse do when documenting IV fluid intake?

a)

Record total volume on intake/output sheet every shift

b)

Record intake only at end of day

c)

Estimate hourly rate

d)

Combine oral and IV volumes together without separation

78.

When planning preoperative care, which instruction should be given?

a)

Eat breakfast before surgery

b)

Wear jewelry to surgery

c)

Remove nail polish and makeup

d)

Continue all home medications

79.

The nurse includes which point in preoperative teaching?

a)

Demonstrate deep-breathing and coughing exercises

b)

Restrict all fluids for 24 hours

c)

Avoid explaining procedure

d)

Omit incentive spirometer teaching

80.

Which teaching should the nurse provide preoperatively?

a)

Ambulate every 8 hours post-op

b)

Avoid any leg movements

c)

Perform leg and ankle exercises frequently

d)

Expect to remain in bed for 2 days

81.

Which finding indicates wound dehiscence postoperatively?

a)

Sudden opening of the incision with drainage

b)

Mild redness around edges

c)

Slight pain at site

d)

Intact staples with no drainage

82.

What should the nurse do first if wound dehiscence occurs?

a)

Remove sutures

b)

Cover with sterile saline-soaked dressing

c)

Apply dry gauze

d)

Tape wound closed

83.

Which client is at highest risk for dehiscence?

a)

Obese client after abdominal surgery

b)

Child after tonsillectomy

c)

Elderly client after cataract surgery

d)

Adult after dental procedure

84.

Which food is the best dietary source of potassium?

a)

White rice

b)

Bananas

c)

Cheese

d)

Applesauce

85.

The nurse should teach which statement about potassium?

a)

Potassium keeps my blood sugar normal.

b)

Potassium helps my muscles contract and heart beat regularly.

c)

It builds strong bones.

d)

It controls my temperature.

86.

Which condition increases potassium loss?

a)

Kidney failure

b)

Diuretic therapy

c)

Hypovolemia

d)

Increased sodium intake

87.

Which nursing action is essential during continuous IV infusion?

a)

Check IV site and infusion rate every hour

b)

Add medications without orders

c)

Allow air bubbles to enter line

d)

Flush only once per shift

88.

When regulating an IV pump, the nurse should:

a)

Ensure the roller clamp is open and monitor flow rate closely

b)

Let gravity control flow

c)

Keep pump alarms off

d)

Ignore air-in-line warnings

89.

Which client statement shows understanding of continuous IV therapy?

a)

It will run until my pain goes away.

b)

I can disconnect the line for a walk.

c)

The nurse will check the site frequently for swelling or redness.

d)

I can adjust the pump if it beeps.

90.

What is the first action when a client develops air embolism signs?

a)

Notify the physician only

b)

Sit client upright

c)

Turn client on left side and lower head of bed

d)

Increase IV rate

91.

Which symptom indicates air embolism during infusion?

a)

Dyspnea, tachycardia, and hypotension

b)

Fever and chills

c)

Local swelling

d)

Slow respirations

92.

Which measure prevents air embolism in central line removal?

a)

Have client cough repeatedly

b)

Instruct client to perform Valsalva maneuver during removal

c)

Remove during inspiration

d)

Clamp line after removal

93.

Which finding indicates complication of spinal anesthesia?

a)

Numbness at incision site

b)

Persistent headache and back pain

c)

Normal reflexes

d)

Stable blood pressure

94.

What should the nurse monitor closely after spinal anesthesia?

a)

Skin turgor

b)

Pupil size

c)

Blood pressure and sensation level

d)

Bowel sounds

95.

Which nursing action helps prevent spinal anesthesia complications?

a)

Encourage client to remain flat for several hours

b)

Ambulate immediately

c)

Restrict fluids

d)

Avoid monitoring vitals

96.

Which complication can result from central venous catheter use?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Catheter-related bloodstream infection

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hypernatremia

97.

Which assessment finding after central line insertion is most concerning?

a)

Cough

b)

Sudden shortness of breath

c)

Clear breath sounds

d)

Slight bruising

98.

To prevent central line infection, the nurse should:

a)

Change transparent dressing every 7 days or when damp

b)

Use clean gloves for insertion

c)

Flush with tap water

d)

Avoid hand hygiene

99.

Which factor increases the client’s risk for surgical complications?

a)

Advanced age and obesity

b)

Stable vital signs

c)

Balanced nutrition

d)

Limited medication use