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COMD 700 – Quiz 3 Study Guide: Key Approaches

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In the Traditional (Van Riper) Articulation Approach, what is the correct hierarchical sequence of practice levels used to build accuracy?

a)

Isolation → Word → Syllable → Phrase → Sentence → Conversation

b)

Isolation → Syllable → Word → Phrase → Sentence → Conversation

c)

Syllable → Isolation → Word → Sentence → Phrase → Conversation

d)

Word → Syllable → Isolation → Phrase → Sentence → Conversation

2.

Which client profile is the Traditional Articulation Approach most often used for?

a)

Children with inconsistent speech errors across words and contexts

b)

Clients with few, consistent errors that benefit from modeling and motor practice

c)

Adults with acquired apraxia of speech requiring low feedback frequency

d)

Clients who need immediate generalization across varied targets from the outset

3.

According to Principles of Motor Learning (PML), which practice structure best supports generalization of a newly learned speech target?

a)

Blocked practice with the same target repeated

b)

Random practice with varied targets

c)

Massed practice without feedback

d)

Constant practice with identical stimuli only

4.

Within PML, what is the main advantage of high-frequency, immediate feedback during early training?

a)

It improves early performance but can hinder carryover

b)

It maximizes long-term retention and transfer

c)

It primarily supports generalization across contexts

d)

It reduces the number of trials needed per session

5.

Which feedback schedule is most associated with promoting retention of a speech motor skill?

a)

Continuous, immediate feedback after every attempt

b)

Knowledge of performance with detailed cues on each trial

c)

Reduced and delayed feedback over time

d)

Concurrent feedback delivered during production

6.

A clinician sets a session goal for optimal progress based on PML intensity guidelines. What is the recommended range of trials per session?

a)

10–30 trials per session

b)

30–60 trials per session

c)

60–120 trials per session

d)

120–200 trials per session

7.

Which statement best differentiates blocked from random practice under PML?

a)

Blocked practice varies targets to build generalization; random repeats the same target to aid acquisition

b)

Blocked practice repeats the same target to aid acquisition; random practice varies targets to aid generalization

c)

Blocked practice prevents acquisition; random practice prevents generalization

d)

Blocked practice and random practice are equivalent for all learning outcomes

8.

In the Traditional Approach, why might diphthongs and /ɚ/ present increased difficulty?

a)

They require reduced feedback schedules

b)

They are harder due to coarticulatory demands and vowel complexity

c)

They conflict with blocked practice principles

d)

They rely solely on knowledge of results feedback

9.

Which characteristic defines the Core Vocabulary Approach target population?

a)

Children with inconsistent speech errors

b)

Clients with a single phoneme error only

c)

Adults with motor speech disorders requiring random practice exclusively

d)

Children demonstrating perfect word production needing carryover

10.

What is the primary goal of the Core Vocabulary Approach?

a)

Eliminate all errors and achieve perfect articulation

b)

Achieve consistent word production rather than perfection

c)

Maximize immediate performance with high-frequency feedback

d)

Generalize accuracy across untrained targets from the first session

11.

Which statement best characterizes the Minimal Pairs approach in phonological therapy?

a)

Targets contrasts that differ by one feature to build phonological awareness of sound use

b)

Targets pairs that differ maximally across multiple features to drive generalization

c)

Uses one substituted sound contrasted with several targets to address system collapse

d)

Prioritizes nonstimulable, later-developing, complex sounds to promote generalization

12.

In Maximal Oppositions therapy, which target selection strategy is emphasized?

a)

Pairs that differ minimally by a single feature

b)

Pairs that differ maximally in features such as place, manner, or voicing

c)

Sequences organized by sonority from peaks to troughs

d)

Auditory discrimination before production

13.

Multiple Oppositions is most appropriate when:

a)

A single sound is substituted for several other sounds, indicating system collapse

b)

Only one feature contrast is missing for a few sounds

c)

Targets must be nonstimulable and later-developing to induce change

d)

The goal is primarily motor placement accuracy

14.

According to the Complexity Approach (Storkel, 2017), what types of sounds should be prioritized to promote generalization?

a)

Early-developing and highly stimulable sounds

b)

Nonstimulable, later-developing, and complex sounds

c)

Only sounds with minimal feature contrasts

d)

Sounds selected solely by frequency of occurrence in the child’s lexicon

15.

Which concept is central to predicting target selection in the Complexity Approach?

a)

Place-manner-voicing chart

b)

Sonority hierarchy

c)

Phonotactic probability alone

d)

Diadochokinetic rate

16.

Treatment intensity in speech therapy is defined by which three parameters?

a)

Accuracy, complexity, generalization

b)

Dose, frequency, and duration

c)

Place, manner, and voicing

d)

Baseline, progress, and dismissal

17.

What is the general relationship between treatment intensity and outcomes, assuming appropriate engagement?

a)

Higher intensity typically yields greater positive outcomes

b)

Higher intensity typically reduces generalization

c)

Lower intensity produces faster dismissal

d)

Intensity has no relationship to outcomes

18.

Dismissal from phonological therapy is considered when phonological processes are what level of productive?

a)

Greater than 50% productive

b)

30% productive or less

c)

Between 40–60% productive

d)

No longer productive but still above 30%

19.

Which additional criterion supports dismissal from phonological therapy?

a)

Intelligibility is below age norms

b)

The child shows some self-correction

c)

Motor speech tasks are consistently weak

d)

Prosody remains inappropriate

20.

Which CAS core feature reflects disrupted coordination between sounds?

a)

Consistent voicing errors only

b)

Lengthened or disrupted coarticulatory transitions

c)

Hypernasality on vowels

d)

Monotone speech due to weakness

21.

Which CAS assessment procedure specifically examines rate and sequencing of alternating movements?

a)

Phonotactic probability testing

b)

Dynamic motor speech tasks and diadochokinetic rate testing

c)

Minimal pairs discrimination tasks

d)

Maximal oppositions contrast probes

22.

When a child cannot complete diagnostic tasks but CAS is suspected, what documentation is recommended?

a)

Diagnose dysarthria and start strengthening

b)

Use the label "suspected CAS (sCAS)" and recommend diagnostic therapy (about 6 months)

c)

Delay therapy until full testing is possible

d)

Label as phonological disorder and proceed with minimal pairs

23.

Which description accurately differentiates CAS from dysarthria?

a)

CAS is a motor execution deficit with consistent weakness; dysarthria is programming

b)

CAS is a motor planning/programming deficit with inconsistent, groping, and disrupted transitions; dysarthria is a motor execution deficit with consistent weakness and slurred or monotone speech

c)

CAS is purely linguistic; dysarthria is purely cognitive

d)

CAS is defined by prosody only; dysarthria by resonance only

24.

Approximately what proportion of children with CAS may show comorbidity with Developmental Coordination Disorder (DCD)?

a)

About 10%

b)

About 25%

c)

About 50%

d)

About 75%

25.

What is the primary aim of input-focused interventions in speech sound disorders?

a)

Increase articulatory strength through drilling

b)

Strengthen perceptual and cognitive representations of speech sounds

c)

Maximize sonority differences between targets

d)

Reduce prosody variation

26.

Which activity is typically included in input-focused interventions before production practice?

a)

Diadochokinetic rate testing

b)

Multiple oppositions production contrasts

c)

Discrimination tasks and auditory awareness

d)

Maximal oppositions placement drills

27.

For articulation (motor-based) objectives, which outcome is most directly targeted?

a)

Rule-based error reduction

b)

Target sound accuracy and placement (motor performance)

c)

Prosodic control only

d)

Auditory discrimination without production

28.

Phonological (cognitive-linguistic) documentation should emphasize which areas?

a)

Motor programming and consistency

b)

Rule-based errors, intelligibility, and process reduction

c)

Diadochokinetic rate and strength

d)

Prosody exclusively

29.

For apraxia-focused documentation, which dimensions are prioritized?

a)

Articulatory strength and endurance

b)

Motor programming, consistency, and prosody

c)

Phonotactic probability and vocabulary size

d)

Resonance and airflow control

30.

Which therapy approach is explicitly described as promoting system-wide change through contrasting multiple targets against a single error substitution?

a)

Minimal pairs

b)

Maximal oppositions

c)

Multiple oppositions

d)

Complexity approach