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CBT BEDAH SARAF FK UGM

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The following is a picture of a newborn. This disorder is caused by failure of

a)

Primary neurulation

b)

Secondary neurulation

c)

Disjunction

d)

Ventral induction

e)

Migration

2.

The normal total blood volume of a normal full-term neonate is

a)

40mL/kg

b)

60mL/kg

c)

80mL/kg

d)

100mL/kg

e)

120mL/kg

3.

Which one of the following statements LEAST accurately describes CSF production?

a)

Neonates produce CSF at a rate of 25 ml/day

b)

Infants have a total CSF volume of 25 ml

c)

Adults produce CSF at a rate of approximately 0.35 ml/min

d)

Ventricles contain 25 ml of CSF

e)

Raised intracranial pressure does not affect formation of CSF at the choroid plexus

4.

A 5-month old infant presents with an abnormally shaped head. The parents note he is developing normally and had an uncomplicated delivery. On examination, he has scaphocephaly (boat-shaped head). Which of the following is associated with the development of secondary sagittal craniosynostosis?

a)

Vitamin D deficiency

b)

Vitamin A deficiency

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Hyperphosphatemia

e)

Hypercortisolemia

5.

You are caring for a 3-year-old boy who has been admitted to the pediatric ICU after nonaccidental trauma by the father that has caused severe TBI. He has elevated ICP and a poor clinical exam. The pediatric team asks you about the administration of steroids in an attempt to improve his cerebral edema. What effect do steroids have on severe pediatric TBI?

a)

Improvement in ICP and clinical outcome, no systemic complications

b)

Improvement in ICP and clinical outcome, increased systemic complications

c)

No improvement in ICP, improved clinical outcome, increased systemic complications

d)

Improvement in ICP, no clinical improvement, increased systemic complications

e)

No improvement in ICP, no clinical improvement, increased systemic complications

6.

Which of the following is LEAST suggestive of child abuse?

a)

Acute and healing long bone fractures

b)

Interhemispheric subdural hematoma

c)

Parietal skull fracture

d)

Retinal hemorrhages

e)

Tentorial subdural hematoma

7.

You are evaluating a patient in the trauma bay who was not wearing her seatbelt and was thrown from a vehicle during a high-velocity motor vehicle accident. She is comatose with anisocoria, left greater than right. This CT scan was obtained approximately 75 minutes after the accident. The risk of dangerous expansion of this hematoma is greatest at what time after injury?

a)

1 to 6 hours

b)

6 to 12 hours

c)

12 to 24 hours

d)

24 to 48 hours

e)

48 to 96 hours

8.

A 19-year-old male presents to the ER after being involved in a motorcycle accident. He complains of neck pain. decreased sensation and numbness and tingling in the fingers, as well as burning in the hands. On examination, he has grade 4 motor strength in the upper extremities proximally and grade 2 distally. The lower extremities and cranial nerves are intact. What syndrome does this patient have?

a)

Brown-Sequard syndrome

b)

Wartenberg's syndrome

c)

Anterior cord syndrome

d)

Posterior cord syndrome

e)

Central cord syndrome

9.

Pineal calcifications are considered abnormal if encountered in patients younger than

a)

6 years

b)

12 years

c)

18 years

d)

26 years

e)

30 years

10.

Pineal tumors usually displace the precentral cerebellar vein

a)

anterosuperiorly

b)

posterosuperiorly

c)

anteroinferiorly

d)

posteroinferiorly

e)

None of the above

11.

In cerebral salt wasting syndrome patients are usually

a)

hypervolemic and hypernatremic

b)

hypervolemic and hyponatremic

c)

hypovolemic and hypernatremic

d)

hypovolemic and hyponatremic

e)

none of the above

12.

A 56-year-old presents with a 2-month history of headache and visual disturbance. Confrontation testing revealed a bitemporal hemianopia. Routine bloods were normal and endocrine profile is: FT4 8.5 pmol/L (11.5-22), TSH 0.5 mU/L (0.35-5.5), FSH 1.0 U/L (1.4-18.1), LH 2.5 U/L (3-8), prolactin 900 mU/L (45-375), testosterone 3.5 nmol/L (8.4-28.7), 9 am cortisol 405 nmol/L. MRI is shown. Which one of the following is most likely?

a)

Non-functioning adenoma

b)

Thyrotropinoma

c)

GH-secreting pituitary adenoma

d)

Prolactinoma

e)

Cushing’s disease

13.

A 65-year-old man undergoes transsphenoidal surgery for a non-functioning macroadenoma. Postoperatively on day 1 the nurses notice he is passing large volumes of dilute urine via his catheter. Which one of the following criteria is LEAST suggestive of diabetes insipidus?

a)

Urine specific gravity <1.003 or osmolality <200 mOsmol/kg

b)

Urine output 250 ml/h for 2 consecutive hours

c)

Serum sodium normal or raised

d)

Primary adrenal insufficiency

e)

Inability to concentrate urine to 300 mOsmol/L in the presence of clinical dehydration

14.

Contrast-enhanced axial T1-weighted MRI scans of a 56-year-old man are shown in this image. The most likely symptoms he might have are

a)

Dizziness, ataxia, and balance problems

b)

Expressive aphasia with positive Romberg’s sign

c)

Tinnitus and reduced hearing in the right ear with frequent falling

d)

Ptosis of the right eye with weakness of external ocular muscles

e)

Weakness in the right side of body, especially in the upper limbs

15.

Which one of the following is most likely based on the T2-Weighted MRI shown below?

a)

Ependymoma

b)

Lipoma

c)

Neurofibroma

d)

Primary CNS lymphoma

e)

Schwannoma

16.

If the C6 nerve root is severed, all of the following may be affected except:

a)

Lateral cord

b)

Ulnar nerve

c)

Musculocutaneous nerve

d)

Median nerve

e)

Lower subscapular nerve

17.

Neurogenic shock is characterized by which of the following?

a)

Increased arteriolar tone

b)

Increased in peripheral vascular resistance

c)

Cool molten skin

d)

Hypertension

e)

Bradycardia

18.

Typical presentation of patients with conus medullaris lesions includes all of the following except:

a)

Saddle bilateral sensory deficit

b)

Symmetric motor loss

c)

Loss of ankle jerk

d)

Autonomic symptoms that occur late

e)

Urinary retention and atonic anal sphincter that cause overflow urinary incontinence and fecal incontinence

19.

Which large anastomotic vein joins the superior sagittal sinus?

a)

Trolard vein

b)

Labbe vein

c)

Sylvian vein

d)

Basal vein of Rosenthal

e)

Superficial middle cerebral vein

20.

Male, 25 years old, had an traffic accident. He couldn’t open his eyes nor sound with pain stimulus, but he could extend his hand abnormally. Based on the GCS in this patient, where is the location of the lesion?

a)

Supracerebral

b)

Between cerebral and diencepalon

c)

Between diencepalon and mesencepalon

d)

Between pons and the midbrain

e)

Lower medulla oblongata

21.

Which of the following is not a consideration in determining whether a substance will cross the blood–brain barrier (BBB)?

a)

Immunogenicity

b)

Charge

c)

Presence of specific transporter

d)

Molecular weight

e)

Lipid solubility

22.

How much platelet count increase after transfusing one unit of platelets?

a)

< 5.000

b)

5.000 – 10.000

c)

10.000 – 15.000

d)

15.000 – 20.000

e)

>20.000

23.

What type of temporal bone fractures more frequently result in external manifestations such as otorrhea of CSF and tympanic membrane  perforation?

a)

Transverse

b)

Longitudinal

c)

Oblique

d)

Spiral

e)

Curve

24.

Male, 75 years old, came to ER with sudden left hemiparesis. CT scan result showed infarction on the right hemisphere. What is another possibility sign or symptoms regarding this CT scan result?

a)

Broca aphasia

b)

Wernicke aphasia

c)

Ipsilateral hemihypoesthesia

d)

Contralateral eye deviation

e)

Hemineglect syndrome

25.

What is the most likely clinical symptom in a patient with a large unruptured cavernous sinus carotid aneurysm?

a)

Diplopia

b)

Trigeminal neuralgia

c)

Disfagia

d)

Decrease visual acuity

e)

Tic douloureux

26.

Female, 51 yo, was performed craniotomy clipping aneurysm on right ICA terminus. She hadn’t regained her consciousness after procedure, then performed CT scan non contrast and showed infarct. What the possible artery is occluded based on the infarct territory?

a)

Posterior communicating artery

b)

Anterior choroidal artery

c)

Superior hipophyseal artery

d)

Recurrent artery of Heubner

e)

Lenticulostriate artery

27.

A 33-year-old woman has the acute onset of right orbital pain after a tennis match. The following morning, her 10-year-old son comments that her right eye looks funny. On examination, she has a mild right ptosis and anisocoria. The right pupil is 2 mm smaller than the left, but both react normally to direct light stimulation. Visual acuity, visual fields, and eye movements are normal. The site of injury is due to interruption of fibers from which of the following structures?

a)

Optic tract

b)

Optic chiasm

c)

Cranial nerve III

d)

T1 nerve root

e)

Superior cervical ganglion

28.

After a severe motor vehicle accident, a 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency room unconscious and intubated. A computed tomography scan of his brain is shown here. After the assurance of proper respiratory and circulatory support, as well as spine imaging, which of the following is the next most appropriate evaluation?

a)

Cerebral angiogram

b)

Intracranial pressure monitoring

c)

Transcranial Doppler evaluation

d)

T-tube trial

e)

Electroencephalogram

29.

Apa nama struktur anatomi yang berjalan pada bagian yang ditunjuk, yang harus dihindari pada prosedur laminectomy tulang tersebut?

a)

Arteri cerebellaris superior

b)

Arteri spinalis anterior

c)

Arteri vertebralis

d)

Arteri spinalis posterior

e)

Arteri radicularis

30.

Pada kasus trigeminal neuralgia, kontak dengan pembuluh darah apakah dan dari arah manakah yang paling sering terjadi terhadap saraf trigeminus?

a)

Arteri cerebellaris anterior inferior, anteromedial

b)

Arteri cerebellaris superior, superomedial

c)

Arteri cerebellaris anterior inferior, inferolateral

d)

Vena petrous superior, superomedial

e)

Arteri cerebellaris posterior inferior, inferomedial

31.

Hemiballismus merupakan gangguan gerakan yang disebabkan karena kerusakan pada struktur mana?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

32.

Apa nama kelainan yang ditimbulkan akibat cedera struktur yang disilang?

a)

Erb Duchene palsy

b)

Klumpke paralysis

c)

Claw hand

d)

Hand of benedict

e)

Preacher hand

33.

Pada prosedur corpus callosotomy, sindrom apakah yang dapat terjadi pada pasien sebagai efek samping operasi?

a)

Aphasia sensorik

b)

Supplementary motor area syndrome

c)

Foster kennedy syndrome

d)

Disconnection syndrome

e)

Trephined syndrome

34.

Pada kasus hypothalamic hamartoma, kejang tipe apakah yang merupakan karakteristik utamanya?

a)

Absence seizure

b)

Gelastic seizure

c)

Drop attack seizure

d)

Myoclonic seizure

e)

Tonic-clonic seizure

35.

Manakah yang termasuk ke dalam axial pain?

a)

Facet joint pain

b)

Herniated disc

c)

Carpal tunnel syndrome

d)

Trigeminal neuralgia

e)

Radix dorsal compression

36.

Pemeriksaan apakah yang dapat mendukung diagnosis carpal tunnel syndrome?

a)

Pinch sign

b)

OK sign

c)

Tinnel test

d)

Finger to nose test

e)

Abduction test

37.

You are evaluating an 82-year-old man with a history of a mechanical aortic valve. He presented to the emergency department with a headache and sleepiness. His GCS is 13 (E3, V4, M6). What is the next best step?

a)

Intubate

b)

Bedside burr hole evacuation

c)

Start levetiracetam

d)

Check INR

e)

Start pentobarbital coma

38.

You see a 40-year-old man who was out drinking with friends and was involved in a car accident as an unrestrained passenger. He is sleepy in the trauma bay and his head CT is demonstrated below. The injured vessel in this setting enters the skull through what foramen?

a)

Foramen ovale

b)

Foramen rotundum

c)

Foramen spinosum

d)

Foramen lacerum

e)

Foramen magnum

39.

What is the normal range of intracranial pressure in adults (mm Hg)?

a)

1 to 4

b)

5 to 9

c)

10 to 15

d)

16 to 20

e)

20 to 24

40.

Which of these options is not a part of Cushing’s triad (signs of acute increased intracranial pressure)?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Hypertension

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Irregular respirations

e)

Apneustic respiration pattern

41.

Primary input to Brodmann areas 41 and 42 come from which region?

a)

Medial geniculate body

b)

Lateral geniculate body

c)

Inferior colliculus

d)

Superior colliculus

e)

Primary visual cortex

42.

Descending laterally across the posterior skull, which suture marks the border between the occipital and parietal bones?

a)

Squamosal

b)

Coronal

c)

Lambdoid

d)

Sphenosquamosal

e)

Pterion

43.

Which structure is not part of the deep cerebellar nuclei?

a)

Globose

b)

Fastigial

c)

Emboliform

d)

Vestibular

e)

Dentate

44.

You are evaluating a patient with double vision. When you are testing external ocular movements, the right eye fails to adduct when you attempt to make the patient track your finger to the patient’s left. What structure is likely damaged?

a)

Right abducens nerve

b)

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

c)

Left abducens nerve

d)

Medial lemniscus

e)

Lateral lemniscus

45.

An 18-year-old male is brought into the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. On examination, he will open his eyes to painful stimulation, makes incomprehensible sounds, and withdraws his extremities to painful stimulation. What is the patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale score?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

e)

9

46.

Through which of the following does the maxillary nerve exit the skull base?

a)

Superior orbital fissure 


b)

Foramen rotundum 


c)

Foramen ovale 


d)

Jugular foramen 


e)

  Foramen lacerum 


47.

A 42-year-old man develops vertical diplopia, which seems worst when watching television from bed. On examination, he has right hypertropia, which is exacerbated with downward gaze of an adducted right eye. If he tilts his head to the left, the vision improves. Which of the following is the affected cranial nerve?

a)

Right oculomotor nerve 


b)

Left abducens nerve 


c)

Left trochlear nerve 


d)

Right trochlear nerve 


e)

Right abducens nerve 


48.

In this spinal cord cross-sectional image, what letter corresponds to the location of the spinothalamic tract?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

49.

A patient presents with a suspected C7 radiculopathy. Which muscles would be expected to show abnormalities on electromyography?

a)

Biceps and brachioradialis 


b)

Triceps and flexor pollicis longus 


c)

First dorsal interosseous and abductor pollicis brevis 


d)

Extensor carpi radialis and anconeus 


e)

Extensor indices proprius and pronator quadratus 


50.

How does hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen change as blood passes through a capillary, and what shift occurs with the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve?

a)

The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen de­ creases, and the oxygen-hemoglobin dissocia­tion curve shifts to the left.

b)

The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen decreases, and the oxygen-hemoglobin dissocia­tion curve shifts to the right

c)

The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen in­ creases, and the oxygen-hemoglobin dissocia­tion curve shifts to the left.

d)

The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen in­ creases, and the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right.

e)

The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen remains the same, and the oxygen-hemoglobin dissoci­ation curve does not shift.

51.

A 65-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is admitted for a lobar intracranial hemorrhage. The patient is intu- bated and sedated. He suddenly develops pulseless electrical activity. Auscultation of the lungs reveals absent breath sounds on the right. The trachea is deviated to the left. What is the best next step in the patient’s management?

a)

Chest tube placement

b)

Chest radiograph

c)

Needle thoracotomy

d)

Ultrasound of the lungs

e)

Decrease the tidal volume on the ventilator

52.

The nucleus pulposus is the remnant of what embryonic structure?

a)

Neural tube 


b)

Anterior neuropore 


c)

Posterior neuropore 


d)

Neural plate 


e)

Notochord 


53.

What is the brain’s response to a rising PCO2 with regard to cerebral blood flow (CBF) and intracranial pressure (ICP)?

a)

Decrease CBF and increase ICP.


b)

Increase CBF and decrease ICP.


c)

Decrease CBF and decrease ICP.


d)

Increase CBF and keep ICP constant.

e)

Increase CBF and increase ICP.

54.

A patient presents with complaints of a herniated disk that correlates with imaging. MRI demonstrates a central disk herniation at L4/L5. What nerve root should be affected?

a)

L4 traversing nerve root 


b)

L4 exiting nerve root 


c)

L5 traversing nerve root 


d)

L5 exiting nerve root 


e)

  S1 traversing root

55.

The ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus sends information to which Brodmann area(s)?

a)

Areas 1, 2, and 3

b)

Area 4

c)

Area 17

d)

Areas 39 and 40

e)

Area 44

56.

A man with chronic alcoholism is recovering after an alcohol-induced traumatic cerebral contusion. He is neurologically intact awaiting discharge after eating several full meals when he suddenly develops ­quadriplegia, ­confusion, ­difficulty­ speaking, and­ trouble swallowing. Serum sodium is 139 mEq/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Beriberi

b)

Central pontine myelinolysis

c)

Pseudohyponatremia

d)

Cerebral edema

e)

Cervical spinal cord contusion

57.

A woman, 61 years old, came to emergency department with weakness on her right extremities started 3 hours ago. Another physical examination show that she had a good comprehension, non-fluent speech, good repetition in language area. What is the name of the language condition above?

a)

Broca’s aphasia 


b)

Conduction aphasia 


c)

Global aphasia 


d)

Transcortical motor aphasia 


e)

Transcortical sensory aphasia 


58.

Which one of the following tracts is most

likely depicted in the figure beside?

a)

Arcuate fasciculus

b)

Cingulum bundle

c)

Fornix

d)

Inferior longitudinal fasciculus

e)

Superior longitudinal fasciculus

59.

What is a characteristic of the lesion depicted in this CT image?

a)

Limited by sutures

b)

Usually crosses the midline

c)

Most commonly due to an arterial injury

d)

Occurs between the inner and outer layers of the dura

e)

Limited by dural reflections

60.

The following is a consideration in determining whether a substance will cross the blood–brain barrier (BBB), except…

a)

Immunogenicity 


b)

Charge 


c)

Presence of specific transporter 


d)

Molecular weight 


e)

  Lipid solubility 


61.

Which of the following most closely approximates the volume of circulating cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in an adult?

a)

500 mL 


b)

50mL 


c)

100 mL 


d)

150 mL 


e)

250 mL

62.

Through which of the following does the meningeal branch of mandibular nerve (Third branch of the trigeminal nerve) exit the skull base?

a)

Superior orbital fissure 


b)

Foramen rotundum 


c)

Foramen ovale 


d)

Foramen spinosum

e)

Foramen lacerum 


63.

An 18-year-old male is brought into the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. On examination, he will open his eyes to sound, makes incomprehensible sounds, and localising the painful stimulation. What is the patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale score?

a)

E1V1M3

b)

E2V1M3

c)

E2V1M4

d)

E3V2M5

e)

E2V2M5

64.

Intrauterine central nervous system development is divided into embryonic and fetal period. At 13 day of embryonic period, what is CNS development occurred?

a)

Closure of the caudal neuropore


b)

Closure of the cranial neuropore

c)

Formation of the notochord


d)

Formation of the primitive streak


e)

Fusion of the neural folds to form the neural tube

65.

The second-order neuron in the sympathetic pathway to the pupil arises from the…

a)

Ciliary ganglion to the iris 


b)

Edinger-Westphal nucleus to the ciliary ganglion 


c)

Hypothalamus to the lateral horn cells at C8 to T3 


d)

Lateral horn cells at C8 to T3 to the superior cervical ganglion 


e)

Superior cervical ganglion to the iris

66.

A 60-year-old man notes increasingly severe pain on the left side of his midface for about 3 days, followed by the eruption of a vesicular lesion on the side of his nose. He was later diagnosed with Herpes Zoster. Which of the following may he be at increased risk of experiencing?

a)

Ocular complication 


b)

Disseminated infection 


c)

Cavernous sinus invasion 


d)

Infectious meningitis 


e)

Chronic paranasal sinusitis 


67.

Number 2 in this image represents what structure?

a)

Pars orbitalis of inferior frontal gyrus

b)

Premotor gyrus

c)

Pars triangularis of inferior frontal gyrus

d)

Angular gyrus

e)

  Supramarginal gyrus

68.

What is the brain’s response to a rising PCO2 (>35 mmHg) with regard to cerebral

a)

Vasoconstriction that will decrease CBF and increase ICP

b)

Vasodilation that will increase CBF and decrease ICP

c)

Vasoconstriction that will decrease CBF and decrease ICP

d)

Vasodilation that will increase CBF and keep ICP constant

e)

Vasodilation that will increase CBF and increase ICP

69.

How do cytotoxic and vasogenic edema differ?

a)

Cytotoxic edema responds better to steroids than does vasogenic edema

b)

The blood–brain barrier is closed in cytotoxic edema and disrupted in vasogenic edema

c)

Cells shrink in vasogenic edema but expand in cytotoxic edema.


d)

Cytotoxic but not vasogenic edema occurs after ischemic injury.


e)

Proteins expand the extracellular space in cytotoxic edema.


70.

A 73 year old diabetic man presents with 3 months of headache after falling and confusion for the last 3 days. Which of the following is associated with the diagnosis shown in the image?

a)

A result of tearing bridging veins

b)

Associated with cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA)

c)

Associated with a skull fracture over the temporal region

d)

May occur with thrombosis of the sagittal sinus

e)

Result of a ruptured berry aneurysm


71.

A 42-year-old woman is being evaluated for gait difficulties. She also has dysdiadochokinesia and intentional tremor. This finding is most common with which of the following?

a)

Cerebellar dysfunction

b)

Parietal lobe damage

c)

Temporal lobe damage

d)

Ocular motor disturbances

e)

Dysesthesias in the feet

72.

The patellar tendon reflex involves sensory fibers of the femoral nerve that originate in spinal segments

a)

S3–S4

b)

S2–S3

c)

S1–S2

d)

L4–L5

e)

L2–L3

73.

What is the part of internal capsule which corticobulbar tract pass through?

a)

Anterior limb

b)

Posterior limb

c)

Genu

d)

Sublenticular limb

e)

Field of Forel

74.

The following is seen with a lesion of the facial nerve immediately distal to the geniculate ganglion, except

a)

Hyperacusis

b)

Impairment of lacrimation

c)

Impairment of salivary secretions

d)

Loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue

e)

Paralysis of ipsilateral facial muscles

75.

The medial lenticulostriate artery (recurrent artery of Heubner) is a branch of which of the following?

a)

Middle cerebral artery

b)

Anterior cerebral artery

c)

Internal carotid artery

d)

Common carotid artery

e)

Ophthalmic artery

76.

What is the normal pressure of cerebrospinal fluid in an adult (in cm H2O)?

a)

5

b)

12

c)

20

d)

30

e)

45

77.

Ice water is irrigated into a patient’s external ear canal as a part of brainstem reflex examination. Which of the following would be the expected response in a normal patient?

a)

There will be horizontal nystagmus toward the ipsilateral ear

b)

There will be horizontal nystagmus away from the ipsilateral ear

c)

There will be transient Horner syndrome of the ipsilateral ear

d)

The ipsilateral eye will deviate downward

e)

The ipsilateral eye will deviate upward

78.

Which one of the following best describes ions responsible for membrane hyperpolarization?

a)

Chloride and sodium

b)

Chloride and potassium

c)

Potassium and sodium

d)

Sodium and calcium

e)

Sodium only

79.

What clinical finding best characterizes cauda equina syndrome?

a)

Saddle anesthesia

b)

Foot drop

c)

Decreased patellar tendon reflex

d)

Sciatica

e)

Ankle plantar flexion weakness

80.

A patient with a severe traumatic brain injury has elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) despite sedation and administration of paralytics. An external ventricular drain is in place and is functioning. His ICP is now 28, serum osmolarity is 290. The following is an appropriate step for controlling increased ICP, except

a)

Hypoventilation

b)

Administration of hypertonic saline

c)

Hyperventilation

d)

Emergency decompressive craniectomy

e)

Barbiturate administration

81.

What is the name of radiological sign we can see in this lesion?

a)

Salt and Pepper sign

b)

Swirl sign

c)

Figure of 8 sign

d)

Snowman sign

e)

White cerebellar sign

82.

The following is a picture of a newborn. This disorder is caused by failure of

a)

Primary neurulation

b)

Secondary neurulation

c)

Disjunction

d)

Ventral induction

e)

Migration

83.

The normal total blood volume of a normal full-term neonate is

a)

40mL/kg

b)

60mL/kg

c)

80mL/kg

d)

100mL/kg

e)

120mL/kg

84.

Which of the following is associated with the development of secondary sagittal craniosynostosis?

a)

Vitamin D deficiency

b)

Vitamin A deficiency

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Hyperphosphatemia

e)

Hypercortisolemia

85.

What effect do steroids have on severe TBI presenting with the above radiological examination (severe cerebral edema)?

a)

Improvement in ICP and clinical outcome, no systemic complications

b)

Improvement in ICP and clinical outcome, increased systemic complications

c)

No improvement in ICP, improved clinical outcome, increased systemic complications

d)

Improvement in ICP, no clinical improvement, increased systemic complications

e)

No improvement in ICP, no clinical improvement, increased systemic complications

86.

Which of the following is LEAST suggestive of child abuse?

a)

Acute and healing long bone fractures

b)

Interhemispheric subdural hematoma

c)

Skull base fracture

d)

Retinal hemorrhages

e)

Tentorial subdural hematoma

87.

A 19-year-old male presents to the ER after being involved in a motorcycle accident. He experienced pain and temperature dissociation. On examination, he has stronger motor strength in the proximal upper extremities than the distal. The lower extremities and cranial nerves are intact. What syndrome does this patient have?

a)

Brown-Sequard syndrome

b)

Wartenberg's syndrome

c)

Anterior cord syndrome

d)

Posterior cord syndrome

e)

Central cord syndrome

88.

Pineal calcifications are considered abnormal if encountered in patients younger than

a)

6 years

b)

12 years

c)

18 years

d)

26 years

e)

30 years

89.

In cerebral salt wasting syndrome patients are usually

a)

hypervolemic and hypernatremic

b)

hypervolemic and hyponatremic

c)

hypovolemic and hypernatremic

d)

hypovolemic and hyponatremic

e)

none of the above

90.

Contrast-enhanced axial T1-weighted MRI scans of a 56-year-old man are shown in this image. The most likely symptoms he might have are

a)

Dizziness, ataxia, and balance problems

b)

Expressive aphasia with positive Romberg’s sign

c)

Tinnitus and reduced hearing in the right ear with frequent falling

d)

Ptosis of the right eye with weakness of external ocular muscles

e)

Weakness in the right side of body, especially in the upper limbs

91.

Contrast-enhanced axial T1-weighted MRI scans of a 56-year-old man are shown in this image. The most likely symptoms he might have are

a)

Dizziness, ataxia, and balance problems

b)

Expressive aphasia with positive Romberg’s sign

c)

Tinnitus and reduced hearing in the right ear with frequent falling

d)

Ptosis of the right eye with weakness of external ocular muscles

e)

Weakness in the right side of body, especially in the upper limbs

92.

What lesion is depicted on the T2-Weighted MRI shown below?

a)

Extradura intramedullary tumor

b)

Intradura extramedullary tumor

c)

Extradura extramedullary tumor

d)

Intradura intramedullary tumor

e)

Extracanal tumor

93.

If the C6 nerve root is severed, all of the following may be affected except:

a)

Lateral cord

b)

Ulnar nerve

c)

Musculocutaneous nerve

d)

Median nerve

e)

Lower subscapular nerve

94.

Neurogenic shock is characterized by which of the following?

a)

Increased arteriolar tone

b)

Increased in peripheral vascular resistance

c)

Cool molten skin

d)

Hypertension

e)

Bradycardia

95.

Typical presentation of patients with conus medullaris lesions includes all of the following except

a)

Saddle bilateral sensory deficit

b)

Symmetric motor loss

c)

Loss of ankle jerk

d)

Autonomic symptoms that occur late

e)

Urinary retention and atonic anal sphincter that cause overflow urinary incontinence and fecal incontinence

96.

Male, 25 years old, had an traffic accident. He couldn’t open his eyes nor sound with pain stimulus, but he could extend his hand abnormally. Based on the GCS (E1V1M2) in this patient, where is the location of the lesion?

a)

Supracerebral

b)

Between cerebral and diencepalon

c)

Between diencepalon and mesencepalon

d)

Between pons and the midbrain

e)

Lower medulla oblongata

97.

Male, 75 years old, came to the emergency room with sudden left hemiparesis. CT scan result showed infarction on the right hemisphere. What is another possibility sign or symptoms regarding this CT scan result?

a)

Broca aphasia

b)

Wernicke aphasia

c)

Ipsilateral hemihypoesthesia

d)

Contralateral eye deviation

e)

Hemineglect syndrome

98.

After a severe motor vehicle accident, a 50-year-old man was unconscious, intubated, with airway, breathing and circulation were clear. Which of the following is the next most appropriate evaluation?

a)

Cerebral angiogram

b)

Intracranial pressure monitoring

c)

Transcranial Doppler evaluation

d)

T-tube trial

99.

Which of the following belongs to axial pain?

a)

Facet joint pain

b)

Herniated disc

c)

Carpal tunnel syndrome

d)

Trigeminal neuralgia

e)

Radix dorsal compression

100.

Which of the following physical examination supports the diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome?

a)

Pinch sign

b)

OK sign

c)

Tinnel test

d)

Finger to nose test

e)

Abduction test

101.

An 82-year-old man with a history of a mechanical aortic valve, presented with headache and sleepiness. GCS was E3, V4, M6. What is the next best step?

a)

Intubate

b)

Bedside burr hole evacuation

c)

Start levetiracetam

d)

Check INR

e)

Start pentobarbital coma

102.

The injured vessel in the head CT Scan demonstrated below enters the skull through:

a)

Foramen ovale

b)

Foramen rotundum

c)

Foramen spinosum

d)

Foramen lacerum

e)

Foramen magnum

103.

Which of these options is not a part of Cushing’s triad (signs of acute increased intracranial pressure)?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Hypertension

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Irregular respirations

e)

Apneustic respiration pattern

104.

In this spinal cord cross-sectional image, what letter corresponds to the location of the lateral spinothalamic tract?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

105.

The nucleus pulposus is the remnant of what embryonic structure?

a)

Neural tube 


b)

Anterior neuropore 


c)

Posterior neuropore 


d)

Neural plate 


e)

Notochord 


106.

A 61 years old woman with a good language comprehension, non-fluent speech, and good repetition. What is the name of the language condition above?

a)

Broca’s aphasia 


b)

Conduction aphasia 


c)

Global aphasia 


d)

Transcortical motor aphasia 


e)

Transcortical sensory aphasia 


107.

Which of the following receptors is involved in autonomic preganglionic transmission for both sympathetic and parasympathetic systems?

a)

Muscarinic receptor

b)

Alpha 2 receptor

c)

N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor

d)

Mu receptor

e)

Nicotinic receptor

108.

Which of the following is an example of declarative memory?

a)

Tying one’s shoe 


b)

Predicting the weather based on environmental clues 


c)

Recalling a word when a related word is presented 


d)

Recalling a birthday 


e)

Expecting food when the oven timer ends 


109.

You use a 2-0 coated vicryl suture to close the galea during closure of a craniotomy. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a)

It is a synthetic, braided absorbable suture

b)

It is a synthetic, braided non-absorbable suture

c)

It is a synthetic, monofilament absorbable suture

d)

It is a natural, braided absorbable suture

e)

It is a synthetic, monofilament non-absorbable suture

110.

Pain and temperature fibers from the face are relayed to what nucleus?

a)

Mesencephalic nucleus of cranial nerve V

b)

Ventral posterior lateral nucleus of the thalamus

c)

Principal sensory nucleus of cranial nerve V

d)

Solitary nucleus

e)

Spinal nucleus of cranial nerve V

111.

How does hemoglobins affinity for oxygen change as blood passes through a capillary, and what shift occurs with the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve?

a)

The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen de­creases, and the oxygen-hemoglobin dissocia­tion curve shifts to the left

b)

The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen de­creases, and the oxygen-hemoglobin dissocia­tion curve shifts to the right

c)

The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen in­creases, and the oxygen-hemoglobin dissocia­tion curve shifts to the left

d)

The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen in­creases, and the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right

e)

The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen remains the same, and the oxygen-hemoglobin dissoci­ation curve does not shift

112.

A trial of a new antibiotic for meningitis finds that it reduces the mortality rate from 35% to 20%. What is the relative risk?

a)

0.0015

b)

0.015

c)

0.15

d)

1.5

e)

15

113.

A 38-year-old man notes that his shoe size has increased from 40 to 43 over the last year, his wedding band no longer fits his finger, and he has a new gap in his lower teeth. After appropriate blood work is performed, which of the following is the most rational test result to find in his blood?

a)

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

b)

Follicle-stimulating hormone

c)

Growth hormone 


d)

Prolactin

e)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

114.

Which one of the following statements regarding peripheral nerve injury is most accurate?

a)

Neuropraxia involves disruption of the myelin sheath only with some evidence of Wallerian degeneration

b)

Recovery after neuropraxia is likely to be incomplete

c)

Neurotmesis is ideally managed with expectant management

d)

Axonotmesis shows Wallerian degeneration distal to injury

e)

A dense motor and sensory deficit following a penetrating injury is due to neuropraxia

115.

Which one of the following combinations of clotting factors are affected by warfarin?

a)

II, IX, X, Protein C

b)

II, VII, IX, X

c)

II, VII, IX, X, Protein C, Protein S

d)

II, VII, X, Protein C

e)

II, VII, X, XII

116.

What is the average head circumference for a newborn and an adult?

a)

28 and 48 cm

b)

30 and 50 cm

c)

32 and 52 cm

d)

35 and 55 cm

e)

25 and 49 cm

117.

Failure of the posterior portions of vertebral elements to fuse without protrusion of meninges or neural elements is called what?

a)

Meningomyelocele

b)

Meningocele

c)

Spina bifida occulta

d)

Syringohydromyelia

e)

Spina bifida cystica

118.

Regarding cerebral autoregulation in adults, which one of the following statements is LEAST accurate?

a)

Increasing hypoxia results in increasing cerebral blood flow

b)

Cerebral blood flow is relatively constant over a range of cerebral perfusion pressures from 50 to 150 mmHg

c)

Cerebral blood flow is directly proportional to cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) when CPP is greater than 150 mmHg or less than 50 mmHg

d)

A pCO2 of 4.0 kPa (30 mmHg) is associated with an average cerebral blood flow of approximately 50 ml/100 g/min

e)

Cerebral blood flow = cerebral perfusion pressure/cerebral vascular resistance

119.

A70 kg man has lost 1.7 L of blood from a stab wound. Which one of the following is the LEAST likely to be showing?

a)

Respiratory rate 20-30

b)

Narrow pulse pressure

c)

Urine output 5-15 ml/h

d)

Confusion

e)

Pulse rate 120-140 bpm

120.

A 61-year-old male with a glioblastoma multiforme came with confusion and left hemiparesis. The doctor explained to the family that he will need a surgery. As you take the family back to his bedside, they ask you not to tell the patient about the likely diagnosis. Which one of the following principles would be most compromised by operating on him at this point in time?

a)

Autonomy

b)

Non-maleficence

c)

Justice

d)

Beneficence

e)

Futility

121.

What is the laboratory manifestations of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

a)

Decreased fibrinogen level

b)

Shorten PT

c)

Shorten PTT

d)

Thrombocytosis

e)

Unfragmented RBCs

122.

Which of the following exam findings best distinguishes an upper motor lesion of the facial nerve pathway from a lower motor lesion of the facial nerve?

a)

In upper motor lesions, both sides of the face will be affected

b)

In upper motor lesions, only the lower part of the face will be affected

c)

Hearing loss is more common with upper motor lesions

d)

Loss of taste sensation is rare in lower motor lesions

e)

In lower motor lesions, both sides of the face will be affected

123.

What incomplete spinal cord injury syndrome is associated with a poor prognosis for recovery and dissociated sensory loss?

a)

Central cord syndrome

b)

Anterior cord syndrome

c)

Brown-Séquard syndrome

d)

Posterior cord syndrome

e)

Cauda equina syndrome

124.

What involuntary movement disorder typically persists during sleep?

a)

Hemifacial spasm

b)

Blepharospasm

c)

Athetosis

d)

Facial myokymia

e)

Vasospasm

125.

What type of hematoma occurs in the loose connec- tive tissues of the scalp that may cross sutures, may require blood transfusions, and does not calcify?

a)

Subgaleal hematoma

b)

Subperiosteal hematoma

c)

Subdural hematoma

d)

Temporalis contusion

e)

Epidural hematoma

126.

A 43-year-old patient presents with a large, enhancing mass with a necrotic center with mass effect and significant vasogenic edema. Following resection, histology demonstrated neovasculariza- tion with endothelial proliferation and pseudopal- isading around areas of necrosis. Histopathology was significant for a TP53 mutation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Primary glioblastoma

b)

Secondary glioblastoma

c)

Rhabdoid meningioma

d)

Medulloblastoma

e)

Chordoma

127.

What vitamin should be coadministered with iso- niazid to prevent neuropathy?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin B12

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Vitamin B6

e)

Vitamin E

128.

A 35-year-old patient admitted to the neurology ICU following polytrauma becomes hypotensive. What hemodynamic parameters are compatible with hypovolemic shock?

a)

Decreased right atrial pressure, decreased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, decreased cardiac output, and increased systemic vascular resistance

b)

Normal or increased right atrial pressure, increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, decreased cardiac output, and increased systemic vascular resistance

c)

Variable right atrial pressure, variable pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, increased cardiac output, and decreased systemic vascular resistance

d)

Increased right atrial pressure, normal or decreased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, decreased cardiac output, and increased systemic vascular resistance

e)

Increased right atrial pressure, increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, decreased cardiac output, and increased systemic vascular resistance

129.

What inhalational neuroanesthetic does not reduce cerebral metabolism?

a)

Halothane

b)

Enflurane

c)

Nitrous oxide

d)

Isoflurane

e)

Desflurane

130.

A 2-month-old baby has a slowly growing midline mass over the anterior fontanelle, as shown in the MRI in this image. The most likely diagnosis is:

a)

Dermoid cyst

b)

Lipoma

c)

Epidermoid cyst

d)

Fibrous dysplasia

e)

Encephalocele