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FMS1 QUIZ 2 (WEEK 5–7) – Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not correct concerning the function of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG)?

a)

HbA has higher affinity to 2,3-BPG compared to O

b)

2,3-BPG compensates low O pressure at high altitude

c)

2,3-BPG persuades hemoglobin to release O in periphery tissue

d)

HbF has lower affinity to 2,3-BPG, supporting a better O exchange between mother and fetus

e)

2,3-BPG compensates high O pressure at low altitude

2.

Under aerobic condition pyruvate is converted by pyruvate dehydrogenase to

a)

Phosphoenol pyruvate

b)

Acetyl CoA

c)

Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate

d)

Lactate

e)

Oxaloacetate

3.

Fructose intolerance is a disease caused by deficiency of

a)

Phosphofructokinase

b)

Aldolase B

c)

Galactokinase

d)

Galactose-1-phosphate-uridyl-transferase

e)

Fructokinase

4.

Why hereditary fructose intolerance (HFI) can lead to hypoglycemia?

a)

Glycogenolysis is inhibited due to unavailability of inorganic phosphates

b)

Glycogenesis is stimulated, more glucose is stored as glycogen

c)

Gluconeogenesis is blocked

d)

Glucose uptake from blood into the cells is increased

e)

All glucose molecules are converted into fructose

5.

Patients of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome do not have HGPRT enzyme. Which nucleotide metabolism is affected in this syndrome?

a)

Both salvage and de novo pathway of pyrimidine

b)

Salvage pathway of purine

c)

De novo pathway of purine

d)

Salvage pathway of pyrimidine

e)

De novo pathway of pyrimidine

6.

How is gluconeogenesis regulated?

a)

When energy status of cell is low, glycolysis should be off

b)

When energy status is high, glucose should be rapidly degraded to provide energy

c)

Gluconeogenesis and glycolysis are totally reversible pathways, regulation is not needed

d)

When energy status is low, gluconeogenesis should be on

e)

When energy status of cell is high, glycolysis should be off

7.

During hyperammonemia the concentration of glutamine as product of ammonia detoxication is characteristically increased. This life threatening condition in infants usually is due to

a)

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

b)

Maple Syrup Disease

c)

Phenylketonuria

d)

Urea cycle disorder

e)

TCA cycle disorder

8.

As a cancer drug 5 Fluorouracil (5-FU) kills cancer cells, because

a)

5-FU inhibits the synthesis of IMP

b)

5-FU inhibits the synthesis of UMP

c)

5-FU inhibits the synthesis of thymidine by thymidylate synthase

d)

5-FU inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

e)

5-FU inhibits the salvage pathway of pyrimidine

9.

Most multi-cellular organisms obtain energy for the synthesis of ATP during oxidative phosphorylation from

a)

High energy phosphate compounds

b)

A proton gradient across the cell membrane

c)

A proton gradient across the outer mitochondrial membrane

d)

A proton gradient across the endoplasmatic reticulum membrane

e)

A proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane

10.

Which of the following is correct sequence of processes in cellular respiration?

a)

TCA/Krebs cycle – electron transport – glycolysis

b)

Glycolysis – electron transport – Krebs cycle

c)

Glycolysis – TCA/Krebs cycle – electron transport

d)

TCA/Krebs cycle – glycolysis – electron transport

e)

Electron transport – glycolysis – TCA/Krebs cycle

11.

What are the differences between fatty acid biosynthesis and breakdown?

a)

β-oxidation is in mitochondria, fatty acid biosynthesis is in cytosol

b)

FA-breakdown uses NADH/NAD+; biosynthesis uses NADPH/NADP+

c)

β-oxidation removes two C atom at the time; biosynthesis adds two C atom at the time

d)

All of these

e)

None of these

12.

Amino acids that can be used in the gluconeogenesis to produce glucose after removal of their NH2-group are called

a)

Ketogenic

b)

Ketoneogenic

c)

Glucogenic

d)

Gluconeogenic

e)

Glycolytic

13.

Which compound cannot serve as the starting material for the synthesis of glucose via gluconeogenesis?

a)

Acetate

b)

Oxaloacetate

c)

Lactate

d)

Pyruvate

e)

Glycerol

14.

Concerning ATP production in red blood cell (RBC), which of the following is correct

a)

ATPs in the RBC are supplied via anaerobic glycolysis

b)

ATPs in the RBC are produced at the end of electron transport chain

c)

ATP production in RBC depends on intact mitochondria inner membranes

d)

ATPs in the RBC are produced via oxidative phosphorylation

e)

ATP production in RBC uses proton motive force

15.

Glucagon and epinephrine

a)

Stimulate glycogenolysis and glycolysis

b)

Inhibit glycogenolysis and glycolysis

c)

Stimulate glycogenolysis and inhibit glycolysis

d)

Inhibit glycogenolysis and stimulate glycolysis

e)

Do not have any effects of both glycogenolysis and glycolysis

16.

Pyruvate is initially converted to which of the following in the gluconeogenesis?

a)

Glycerol

b)

Oxaloacetate

c)

Acetyl CoA

d)

Malate

e)

Phosphoenol pyruvate

17.

The key enzyme in the regulation of fatty acid synthesis is

a)

Pyruvate carboxylase

b)

Acetyl-CoA carboxylase

c)

AMP activated protein kinase

d)

None of these

e)

Liver phosphorylase

18.

Which one of the following is not a function of pentose phosphate pathways?

a)

Provides NADPH for biosynthesis fatty acid synthesis

b)

Provides NADPH to maintain reduced state of cells

c)

Helps to protect RBC from oxidative agents (free radicals, ROS, etc.)

d)

Produces ribose-5-P for nucleic acid biosynthesis

e)

Provides intermediates for TCA/Krebs cycle

19.

A researcher discovered a very effective aldose reductase inhibitor. In an experiment with a rodent diabetic model, he found out that the inhibitor can reduce cataract formation in the lens of diabetic animals. How can you explain this?

a)

The inhibitor inhibits sorbitol accumulation in the lens, hence no cataract is formed

b)

Sorbitol accumulated in the lens now can be converted into fructose

c)

No relevant explanations

d)

The inhibitor increases the affinity of the enzyme towards glucose

e)

The inhibitor increases the flow and efficiency of the polyol-pathway

20.

Which effect of insulin is correct?

a)

Stimulates glycolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis

b)

Stimulates gluconeogenesis and inhibits glycolysis

c)

Inhibits both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis

d)

Has no effect on carbohydrate metabolism

21.

Diabetes can lead to a condition in which the body switches to burning fatty acids and producing high levels of acetone, acetoacetate and β‑hydroxybutyrate. The accumulation of these acidic substances results in symptoms such as vomiting, dehydration, deep gasping breathing, confusion and occasionally coma. This condition is called __________

a)

Diabetic Acidoketosis

b)

Diabetic Ketoacidosis

c)

None of above

d)

Lactic acidosis

e)

Diabetic acetoacidosis

22.

Some of the acetyl‑CoA produced by fatty acid oxidation in the liver mitochondria is converted to acetone, acetoacetate and β‑hydroxybutyrate. These molecules are fuel sources for the brain, heart and muscle during starvation. These metabolites are called __________

a)

Gluconolacton bodies

b)

Aceton bodies

c)

Acidic bodies

d)

Anti‑bodies

e)

Ketone bodies

23.

How many ATPs are formed during complete oxidation of palmitate?

a)

96

b)

35

c)

131

d)

38

e)

129

24.

What do coenzyme A, CO2\mathrm{CO_2} , oxaloacetate, and FADH2\mathrm{FADH_2} all have in common?

a)

They are part of the reactions of lactic acid fermentation

b)

They are part of the pentose phosphate pathway

c)

They are all elements of oxidative deamination and transamination

d)

They are all components or products of the TCA cycle

e)

They are all elements of oxidative phosphorylation (electron transport chain)

25.

Most of the enzymes of the TCA/Krebs cycle in a eukaryotic cell are located in the

a)

Intermembrane space

b)

Mitochondrial matrix

c)

Nucleus

d)

Inner mitochondrial membrane

e)

Cytosol

26.

Metastasis is the movement or spreading of cancer cells from one part of the body, organ or tissue to another. Cancer cells usually spread through the bloodstream or the lymph system. Which one of the following is the correct order of metastasis?

a)

Intravasation, Extravasation, Transport, Colonization, Invasion

b)

Invasion, Intravasation, Extravasation, Transport, Colonization

c)

Invasion, Intravasation, Transport, Extravasation, Colonization

d)

Intravasation, Extravasation, Transport, Invasion, Colonization

e)

Intravasation, Extravasation, Invasion, Transport, Colonization

27.

Which one of the following statements best describes the role of BRCA1 in breast carcinogenesis?

a)

Creates the Angelina Effect

b)

Excess of Estrogen Receptor

c)

Induces Angiogenesis

d)

Loss of Genomic stability if mutated

e)

Single Strand Break Repair

28.

The three steps of carcinogenesis are initiation, promotion and progression. The following statement is correct, except:

a)

The effects of initiators are irreversible

b)

Initiators are able to cause changes in DNA

c)

Promoters promote cell proliferation

d)

Progression describes transformation of benign to malignant tumor

e)

The effects of promoters are irreversible

29.

Which of the following is an example of paracrine signaling?

a)

Adrenaline increases blood pressure and heart rate

b)

Acetylcholine as excitatory neurotransmitter in muscle

c)

Binding of Fas ligand to Fas protein on viral infected cell will induce apoptosis

d)

Thyroid hormone stimulates various cell metabolism

e)

Rise of Na influx induces K outflux after reaching threshold

30.

What is the malfunction in Myasthenia Gravis?

a)

Failure in acetylcholine exocytosis

b)

Blocked acetylcholine receptor

c)

Failure in production of acetylcholine vesicles

d)

Dysregulation of Ca channel

e)

Blockade of Na channel in axon

31.

Cytokine receptor is usually associated with …

a)

Janus Kinase

b)

Protein Serine/Threonine Kinase

c)

cAMP

d)

Inositol phospholipid

e)

Grb protein

32.

Sodium–potassium pump passes

a)

K and Na in the same direction

b)

3 Na+ in and 2 K+ out

c)

2 Na+ in and 3 K+ out

d)

2 Na+ out and 3 K+ in

e)

3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in

33.

The following DNA repair system is active in the G1 phase of the cell cycle, except:

a)

Non‑Homologous End Joining

b)

Nucleotide Excision Repair

c)

Mismatch Repair

d)

All DNA repair mechanisms are active in G1 Phase

e)

Base Excision Repair

34.

Deamination of cytosine results in the formation of __________, which is corrected by __________

a)

Adenine, Nucleotide Excision Repair

b)

Uracil, Base Excision Repair

c)

Uracil, Nucleotide Excision Repair

d)

Thymine, Base Excision Repair

e)

Thymine, Nucleotide Excision Repair

35.

Following is the predisposition of type II diabetes mellitus, except:

a)

Obesity

b)

Lack of exercise

c)

Congenital destruction of β\beta cell pancreas

d)

Pregnancy

e)

None of the above

36.

Proto‑oncogene may become oncogene by the following mechanisms

a)

Mutation

b)

Over‑expression

c)

Chromosomal translocation forming new protein fusion

d)

A and B

e)

A, B and C

37.

Which of the following is not a possible malfunction in diabetes mellitus type 2?

a)

Suppression in GLUT4 mRNA transcription

b)

Insulin resistance in tissue

c)

Reduce of insulin release from pancreatic β\beta ‑cell

d)

Suppression of IRS‑1 protein expression

e)

Failure of glycogen synthase activation

38.

This molecule is known to cause cancer by forming a DNA adduct with guanine:

a)

Alcohol

b)

Cytosine

c)

Aflatoxin B1

d)

Methyl

e)

Uracil

39.

Which is not a plasma membrane property?

a)

Consist of lipid bilayer

b)

Impermeable to small polar uncharged molecule

c)

Mosaic and fluid

d)

Boundary of living cell with its surrounding

e)

Amphipathic

40.

What is the reason for salty sweat of CF patients?

a)

CF patients’ sweat glands are blocked by sticky mucus

b)

CF patients’ sweat glands produce less water

c)

CF patients’ secretory coil excretes hypertonic sweat

d)

CF patients’ skin surface constantly discharges salt through skin pores

e)

CF patients’ reabsorptive ducts absorbs less NaCl

41.

Extracellular signal molecules which are produced by cells to signal their neighboring cells or to cells further away is …

a)

Enzyme

b)

First messenger

c)

Adapter protein

d)

Transducer

e)

Second messenger

42.

In order to sustain the uncontrolled growth rate, cancer cells have adopted a different mechanism to gain energy. Which statement best describes the reprogramming of cell metabolism in cancer cell?

a)

Cancer cells rely on glycolysis to produce energy

b)

In cancer cells, glucose transporters (GLUT) are overexpressed

c)

Under aerobic conditions cancer cells metabolize glucose to lactate

d)

A and B

e)

A, B and C

43.

Pancreas takes up glucose from blood through …

a)

GLUT 1

b)

GLUT 2

c)

GLUT 5

d)

GLUT 4

e)

GLUT 3

44.

Which of the following is the correct response of liver cell to glucagon?

a)

Increase of IRS‑1 phosphorylation

b)

Inactivation of glycogen phosphorylase

c)

Activation of G‑protein

d)

Activation of PKC

e)

Activation of glycogen synthase

45.

Tumor suppressor gene (TSG) is a gene that protects a cell from one step on the path to cancer. The following statement is true for TSG, except

a)

P53’s function is to promote apoptosis

b)

Two hit mutation in normal cell can lead to sporadic cancer

c)

Recessive loss of function mutation

d)

Example is cyclin kinase inhibitor

e)

First hit mutation in normal cell can lead to familial cancer

46.

Hypermethylation of BRCA1 is often observed in ovarian cancer. Which of the following statements about DNA methylation is not true?

a)

DNA methylation plays a role in regulating gene expression

b)

DNA methylation is equally distributed over the genome

c)

DNA methylation is reversible

d)

DNA methylation is implicated in numerous diseases, not only cancer

e)

Methyl group for DNA methylation is found in dietary sources

47.

The deregulation of caspase expression and activation contributes to cancer and resistance to cancer therapies. Which of the following hallmarks of cancer best describes this feature?

a)

Sustained angiogenesis

b)

Self‑sufficiency in growth signal

c)

Evading apoptosis

d)

Reprogramming metabolism

e)

Limitless replicative potential

48.

Which of the following statement is correct about protein kinase?

a)

It phosphorylates signaling protein and activates it

b)

A kind of transport protein

c)

It breaks phosphate group

d)

It is a part of GPCR subunit

e)

Cell recognition protein

49.

The movement of cells out of a blood vessel into tissue during inflammation or metastasis is called:

a)

Colonization

b)

Extravasation

c)

Translocation

d)

Transportation

e)

Intravasation

50.

Depolarization in nerve signaling

a)

The charge of cell shifts from negative to positive

b)

Triggered by K+ influx

c)

Inside of the cell more negative relative to the outside

d)

Has an inhibitory effect at synapse

e)

Triggered by Na+ outflux

51.

A tumor is any abnormal proliferation of cells, which may be either benign or malignant. How do the cells of benign and malignant tumors differ?

a)

Malignant cells are not encapsulated; benign cells are encapsulated

b)

Benign cells have metastasis potential; malignant cells have apoptosis potential

c)

Benign cells grow fast and are small; malignant cells grow slow but large

d)

Benign cells growth into adjacent tissue; malignant cells displace adjacent tissue

e)

Malignant cells have well defined border; benign cells' border are less defined

52.

Which of the following statement is true?

a)

Osmosis results equal solute concentration

b)

Facilitated diffusion is energetically favorable

c)

Animal cell will shrivel if placed in hypotonic solution

d)

a and b

e)

a, b and c

53.

Which of the following is not the common type of membrane phospholipid?

a)

Phosphatidylserine

b)

Phosphatidylcholine

c)

Sterol

d)

GTP binding protein

e)

Galactocerebroside

54.

BRCA1 and BRCA2 are proteins involved in ____________, which corrects __________

a)

Base Excision Repair, Single Strand Break

b)

Nucleotide Excision Repair, Double Strand Break

c)

Mismatch Repair, Single Strand Break

d)

Homologous Recombination Repair, Double Strand Break

e)

Non Homologous End Joining Repair System, Double Strand Break

55.

Nucleotide Excision Repair is activated when the following condition occurs

a)

Double strand DNA damage

b)

Damage of single nucleotide

c)

DNA insertion mutation

d)

Mismatch of nucleotide

e)

Helix-distorting DNA lesions

56.

Intracellular signaling protein which increases the signal by producing large amount of intracellular mediators or activating downstream intracellular proteins, called as

a)

Adapter protein

b)

Amplifier protein

c)

Scaffold protein

d)

Second messenger

e)

Latent gene regulatory protein

57.

The following epigenetic modification results in the conversion of open chromatin to condensed chromatin:

a)

DNA Methylation

b)

Histone deacetylation

c)

Histone methylation

d)

A and B

e)

A, B and C

58.

Several viruses are known to cause cancer in human. How does virus infection contribute to carcinogenesis?

a)

Infection induced inflammatory microenvironment

b)

Integration of the viral genome into the cell genome

c)

By producing immunosuppression

d)

A and B

e)

A, B and C

59.

Which is TRUE about membrane protein?

a)

Integral protein is also called as peripheral protein

b)

Transmembrane protein spans the plasma membrane

c)

Transmembrane protein is hydrophobic

d)

Membrane protein cannot move laterally across membrane

e)

All of the above

60.

Which of the following best describes Angiogenesis?

a)

Movement of cancer cells from one part of the body to another to spread the tumor to a new location.

b)

Movement of cancer cells through the body inducing the production of more red blood cells.

c)

Growth of blood vessels that allows tumor cells to pass certain checkpoints in the cell cycle.

d)

Growth of blood vessels to bring in more immune cells to the tumor.

e)

Growth of blood vessels that provides the tumor with nutrients and oxygen.

61.

Which type of chloride channel protein is defective in Cystic Fibrosis?

a)

Calcium ion sensitive chloride channels

b)

Cation-chloride cotransporters

c)

Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator

d)

CLC chloride channels and transporters

e)

None of the above

62.

An example of inhibitory neurotransmitter is ..

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

GABA

c)

Noradrenaline

d)

Glutamate

e)

Histamine

63.

A tumor is an abnormal growth of cells that serves no purpose. There are two main classifications of tumors. One is known as benign and the other as malignant. Which of the following is characteristic of a malignant rather than a benign tumor?

a)

Grows without needing a growth signal

b)

Undergoes metastasis

c)

Develops a blood supply

d)

Cells divide an unlimited number of times

e)

Insensitive to anti-growth signal

64.

What does cAMP stand for?

a)

Calcium Activator and Messenger Phosphatase

b)

Cyclic Adenosine Messenger Protein

c)

Cyclic Amyloid Messenger Protein

d)

Cyclic Adenosine Monophosphate

e)

Calcium Adapter Monoprotein

65.

Which one of the following sequences best describe the steps leading to tumor angiogenesis? 1. Endothelial cell activation 2. Endothelial cell proliferation 3. HIF1-alpha activation 4. Sprouting 5. VEGF expression 6. Basement membrane degradation

a)

5, 3, 1, 2, 6, 4

b)

3, 1, 2, 5, 4, 6

c)

5, 1, 3, 2, 4, 6

d)

3, 5, 1, 6, 2, 4

e)

5, 1, 6, 3, 4, 2

66.

Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder due to a mutation in the cystic fibrosis trans membrane protein (CFTR) which regulates chloride (Cl-) transport. CFTR is important in the regulations of cell activity in various organs. Which of the following is INCORRECT in term of CFTR and its function?

a)

Reabsorb sodium chloride (NaCl) as the sweat passes along the tubule of sweat gland ducts and producing a hypertonic sweat

b)

Coordinates the regulation of Na+ absorption by ENaC and Cl- secretion by CFTR maintains the correct depth and composition of the ASL in trachea

c)

CFTR is located in apical membrane of pancreatic duct cells and plays a key role in ductal bicarbonate (HCO3-) secretion

d)

CFTR is located in apical membrane of pancreatic duct cells and plays a key in maintaining the appropriate volume and pH of pancreatic secretions

e)

CFTR protein is a channel protein that controls the flow of H2O and Cl- ions in and out of cells inside the lungs

67.

Homeostasis of blood sugar is regulated by two main hormones that are secreted by pancreas, i.e. insulin and glucagon. Glucagon is activated during fasting where blood sugar is low. Glucagon acts as signal for liver to breakdown glycogen, through …

a)

Inactivation of glycogen phosphorylase

b)

Stimulate the movement of GLUT to the membrane

c)

Inactivation of glycogen synthase

d)

Activation of insulin signaling

e)

Activation of IRS-1 protein

68.

Which of following statement is CORRECT about passive transport?

a)

Movement of substance against concentration gradient with energy cost

b)

Movement of water from hypertonic solution to hypotonic solution without energy cost protein

c)

Movement of substance down its electrochemical gradient with or without carrier protein

d)

Na+/K+ pump

e)

None of the above

69.

Which of the following is CORRECT mechanisms of biochemical basis for signal transduction?

a)

protein conformational changes

b)

covalent protein modifications

c)

altered rates of gene expression

d)

None of above

e)

All of above

70.

The invasion of cancer cells through the basal membrane into a blood or lymphatic vessel, is also called:

a)

Extravasation

b)

Inflammation

c)

Intravasation

d)

Infiltration

e)

Colonization

71.

Which of the following best describes Oncogene?

a)

An oncogene codes for DNA Glycosylase

b)

An oncogene is a dominantly expressed mutated gene that gives a cell a growth advantage

c)

An oncogene codes for cell cycle control protein

d)

BRCA1 is an example of Oncogene

e)

An oncogene codes for a protein that prevents the cell from undergoing apoptosis

72.

Epigenetic mechanisms are essential for tissue-specific gene expression patterns in mammals. Cancer therapeutic strategies in Epigenetics may include inhibition of following enzymes, except:

a)

Histone Demethylase

b)

Histone Deacetylase

c)

DNA Glycosylase

d)

Histone Methyltransferase

e)

DNA Methyltransferase

73.

Modes of cell to cell signaling which two adjacent cells must make physical contact in order to communicate is …

a)

Endocrine

b)

Neuronal

c)

Paracrine

d)

Juxtacrine

e)

Autocrine

74.

Membrane protein that functions by binding the signal, or ligand that leads to the production of second signal that causes a cellular response is …

a)

Extracellular matrix

b)

Membrane receptor

c)

Insulin

d)

First messenger

e)

Cadherin

75.

Main types of membrane receptors are G-protein linked, enzyme-linked and ion-channel linked receptor. The INCORRECT characteristic of G-protein linked receptor is …

a)

Example of G-protein linked receptor is epinephrine receptor

b)

The binding of ligand to G-protein linked receptor activates dimerization of receptor

c)

Receptor activation causes dissociation of α subunits from βγ subunits

d)

Each is made of a single polypeptide chain that threads back and forth across the lipid bilayer seven times

e)

Indirectly regulate activity of a separate plasma-membrane-bound target protein (could be enzyme or ion channel)

76.

Stimulus to the neuron triggers the signaling across neuron that open/close the ion channel and results in action potential across the neuron. Action potential is an all-or-none electrical signal, which appears as a positive wave when recording internally. Which of the following is INCORRECT statement of action potential?

a)

The repolarization is maintained by active Na+/K+ pump

b)

Membrane resting potential is at -70 mV

c)

Stimulus will open Na+ channel that results in the reduced membrane negativity

d)

Initiated by opening of K+ channel

e)

Initiated by depolarization of membrane potential

77.

What DNA virus has been linked to a type of human cancer?

a)

Human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1

b)

Human Immunodeficiency Virus

c)

Hepatitis C Virus

d)

Dengue Virus

e)

Hepatitis B Virus

78.

The second messenger that is resulted from the activation of receptor tyrosine kinase is …

a)

G-protein

b)

Calmodulin

c)

Adenylyl cyclase

d)

Diacylglycerol

e)

CAM-kinase

79.

Cancer in situ means it __________

a)

dies quickly

b)

spreads quickly

c)

invades normal tissue

d)

not infectious

e)

is found in one place

80.

The initiation of signal transduction is when the first signal binds to its receptor on target cell thus initiates the changes/activity in the cells. There are several types of signal molecules. Acetylcholine is a signal molecule that categorized as …

a)

Contact-dependent signal molecules

b)

Local mediators

c)

Hormones

d)

Neurotransmitters

e)

Cytokines

81.

The killing/apoptosis of cell by lymphocytes through Fas binding to Fas ligand on viral infected cell, is an example of cell communication through …

a)

Endocrine

b)

Autocrine

c)

Contact-dependent

d)

Paracrine

e)

Neuronal

82.

Angiogenesis is an important mediator of tumor progression in which new blood vessels form from preexisting vessels. As tumors expand, diffusion distances from the existing vascular supply increase resulting in a condition called:

a)

Hypoxia

b)

Anoxia

c)

Dyslexia

d)

Normoxia

e)

Hypoxemia

83.

Chemical synapses can be excitatory or inhibitory. Which of the following is the CORRECT statement of inhibitory neurotransmitters?

a)

Open cation channels such as Na+

b)

Causes depolarization

c)

Example of inhibitory neurotransmitter is adrenaline

d)

Open Cl− or K+ channels

e)

All above are correct

84.

Intracellular signaling protein that modifies the activity of signaling proteins, called as

a)

Modulator protein

b)

Latent gene regulatory protein

c)

Messenger protein

d)

Anchoring protein

e)

Relay protein

85.

Which error in DNA is most likely generated during DNA Replication?

a)

Deamination

b)

Alkylation

c)

Depurination

d)

Depyrimidination

e)

Mismatch

86.

The first hallmarks of cancer comprise six biological capabilities acquired during the multistep development of human tumors. Which one of the following statements is not characteristic of cancer cells?

a)

activate metastasis

b)

sustain proliferative signaling

c)

avoiding growth suppressors

d)

sensitive to cell death

e)

induce angiogenesis

87.

The flux of substance transport in passive transport, depends on various factors. Which is the INCORRECT factor affecting diffusion rate?

a)

Molecular size

b)

Gravitational force

c)

Steepness of concentration gradient

d)

Transcription factors

e)

Temperature

88.

What is the correct order of steps in Carcinogenesis?

a)

Promotion, Initiation, Progression

b)

Promotion, Progression, Initiation

c)

Initiation, Promotion, Progression

d)

Initiation, Progression, Promotion

e)

Progression, Promotion, Initiation

89.

Cell’s plasma membrane is selective permeable by means it regulates the passage of some substances while preventing others from entering the cell. Following is the correct order or substances based by its permeability crossing the membrane from the highest to the lowest:

a)

Ion – small nonpolar molecule - small uncharged polar molecule – large uncharged polar molecule

b)

Small uncharged polar molecule – small nonpolar molecule – ion – large uncharged polar molecule

c)

Small nonpolar molecule - small uncharged polar molecule — large uncharged polar molecule ion

d)

Small uncharged polar molecule – small nonpolar molecule – large uncharged polar molecule ion

e)

Ion - small uncharged polar molecule – small nonpolar molecule – large uncharged polar molecule

90.

Two broad classes of genes — proto-oncogenes and tumor-suppressor genes — play a key role in cancer induction. Of the many known oncogenes, all but a few are derived from normal cellular genes (i.e., protooncogenes) whose products participate in cellular growth-controlling pathways. Proto-oncogenes can be transformed to oncogenes by all of the following mechanisms, EXCEPT:

a)

Chromosomal rearrangements

b)

Insertions that lead to a hyperactive gene product

c)

Mutations in the promoter region that lead to increased transcription

d)

Gene amplification

e)

Elimination of their start signals for translation

91.

Controls that link the integrity of the genome with progression through the cell cycle are known as:

a)

receptors

b)

transcription factors

c)

deacetylators

d)

checkpoints

e)

growth factors

92.

Positron emission tomography (PET) imaging using 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose (18F-FDG) has been a powerful cancer imaging tool for many decades. Of the many hallmarks of cancer, which one is put to use when imaging cancer using PET:

a)

Limitless replicative potential

b)

Sustained angiogenesis

c)

Self-sufficiency in growth signal

d)

Evading apoptosis

e)

Reprogramming metabolism

93.

The followings best describe epigenetic related events that may contribute to the formation of cancer:

a)

Hypermethylation of BRCA1

b)

Overexpression of DNA methyl transferase

c)

Overexpression of Histone Deacetylase

d)

A and B

e)

A, B and C

94.

Cancer is often the result of activation of ____ to ____ and the inactivation of ____ genes.

a)

oncogenes, proto-suppressor genes, proto-genes

b)

oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes, proto-oncogenes

c)

proto-oncogenes, oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes

d)

oncogenes, proto-oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes

e)

proto-suppressor genes, suppressors, oncogenes

95.

Glucose transporter is a passive facilitated transport protein that takes up glucose from blood stream into the cells. The steps of glucose intake by cells through facilitated diffusion are: 1. Translocation of vesicles 2. Insulin binds to receptor 3. Release of large number of glucose transporter to membrane 4. Insulin dissociation 5. High blood sugar The correct order of glucose transport into the cells is:

a)

2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5

b)

5 – 2 – 3 – 1 – 4

c)

1 – 2 – 3 – 5 – 4

d)

2 – 3 – 1 – 4 – 5

e)

5 – 2 – 1 – 3 – 4

96.

The correct type of membrane protein that functions to help cells stick together to form tissue is ...

a)

GTP binding protein

b)

Adenylyl cyclase

c)

MHC

d)

Signal transduction protein

e)

Cadherin

97.

Phospholipids are the major structural component of membranes and consist of hydrophobic tail and hydrophilic head. Which is not common type of phospholipid membrane?

a)

Sterol

b)

Phosphatidylserine

c)

Phospholipase C

d)

Phosphatidylcholine

e)

Galactocerebroside

98.

Type of membrane transport protein that can transport two different substances simultaneously into the cell, but acts as passive transport for a substance and active transport for the other substance, known as ...

a)

Antiporter

b)

ATP-binding cassette transporter

c)

ATP-powered pump

d)

Uniporter

e)

Symporter

99.

Which of the following is true of methyl groups’ effect in the epigenetic mechanism? They directly inhibit ________

a)

Transcription

b)

Protein translation

c)

Ribosome assembly

d)

Protein stability

e)

Nuclear pore transport

100.

Angiogenesis is a fundamental step in the transition of tumors from a benign state to a malignant one. Why do you think this process is important for tumor growth?

a)

Supply of nutrients

b)

Contribution to metastasis

c)

Removal of waste products

d)

A and B

e)

A, B and C

101.

Glycogenolysis is

a)

Reaction series that converts glucose to pyruvate

b)

The synthesis of glycogen from glucose

c)

The synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrates

d)

Substances that remove or add H atoms in oxidation and reduction reactions

e)

The breakdown of glycogen into glucose

102.

What is blocked in Myasthenia Gravis?

a)

Acetylcholine receptor

b)

Axons

c)

Dendrites

d)

Acetylcholine vesicles

e)

Myelin sheath

103.

When chemical carcinogens are internalized by cells, they are often metabolized, and the resulting metabolic products are retained by the cell. Inside the cell, carcinogens or their metabolic products can induce cellular change by genotoxic or non-genotoxic mechanisms. The followings are example of non-genotoxic effects, except:

a)

Activation of Receptor proteins

b)

Inflammation

c)

Formation of Reactive Oxygen Species

d)

Suppression of immune system

e)

Formation of DNA adducts

104.

Following are viruses that have been identified to exhibit cancer-causing properties in human, except:

a)

Hepatitis C Virus

b)

Adeno Virus

c)

Hepatitis B Virus

d)

Epstein Barr Virus

e)

Human Papilloma Virus

105.

With regard to DNA repair mechanisms in the cell, the following statements are correct, except:

a)

Damage by Alkylation is corrected by Base excision repair mechanism

b)

Homologous recombination repair is active in the G2 phase

c)

Nucleotide excision repair is activated as a response of single strand DNA breaks

d)

Mismatch repair is active in the G1 phase

e)

Non-Homologous end joining may result in loss of nucleotides

106.

Intravasation is a key step in cancer metastasis. Which of the following statements best describe Intravasation?

a)

The movement of cells out of a blood vessel into tissue

b)

Neoplastic cell proliferation in their normal habitat

c)

The invasion of cancer cells through the basal membrane into a blood vessel

d)

Loss of specialized function

e)

Self- sufficiency in growth signal

107.

Oncogenes have been implicated in the development of a number of human neoplasms. Oncogene activation is required to the process of carcinogenesis. Which of the following potential mechanisms are relevant to this process?

a)

Chromosome translocation

b)

Amplification

c)

Gene deletion

d)

A and B

e)

A, B and C

108.

Benign tumor displays following features, except:

a)

Possible growth displacement

b)

Similarity to original cell structure

c)

Growth into adjacent cells

d)

Slow growing

e)

Well defined borders

109.

Which molecule is formed in the urea cycle and at the same time also an intermediate of the TCA/Krebs cycle?

a)

Malate

b)

Aspartate

c)

Fumarate

d)

a-ketoglutarate

e)

Oxaloacetate

110.

Certain prostaglandins, when binding to their receptor, induce an increase in intracellular calcium levels. The signal that leads to the elevation of intracellular calcium is initiated by which of the following enzymes?

a)

Phospholipase A2

b)

Cyclooxygenase

c)

Protein kinase A

d)

Phospholipase C

e)

Protein kinase

111.

DNA Hypermethylation generally results in

a)

Inactive DNA methyltransferase

b)

Transcription factor docking

c)

Gene silencing

d)

Gene overexpression

e)

None of the above

112.

One of the cells responses against viral infection is by the secretion of antiviral cytokine. Cytokines may affect the cell itself and its surrounding. Cytokine receptor is usually associated with

a)

Calmodulin

b)

Grb protein

c)

Janus Kinase

d)

Inositol phospholipid

e)

Protein Serine/Threonine Kinase

113.

With regard to Epigenetic modification, the following may lead to the formation of cancer, except:

a)

Hyperacetylation of Histone on proto-oncogenes

b)

Hypermethylation of CpG island of Cyclin dependent Kinase

c)

Hypomethylation of CpG island of DNA repair gene

d)

Overexpression of Histone Deacetylases

e)

Overexpression of DNA methyl transferase

114.

In electron transport, electrons ultimately pass to

a)

ADP

b)

Cytochrome b

c)

O2

d)

H2O

e)

None of these

115.

Patients of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome do not have HGPRT enzyme. Which nucleotide metabolism is affected in this syndrome?

a)

Salvage pathway of pyrimidine

b)

De novo pathway of purine

c)

Salvage pathway of purine

d)

Both salvage and de novo pathways of pyrimidine

e)

De novo pathway of pyrimidine

116.

The tumor angiogenesis signaling cascade includes the following, except:

a)

Activation of transcription factor in endothelial cell

b)

Activation of relay proteins in epithelial cell

c)

Breakdown of extracellular matrix

d)

Release of VEGF from cancer cells

e)

Binding of VEGF with its receptor

117.

If a spontaneous deamination of Cytosine to Uracil in a DNA sequence is left unrepaired/ uncorrected; this may cause a change of Guanine to ______ ?

a)

Thymine-dimer

b)

Adenine

c)

Thymine

d)

Hypoxanthine

e)

06-Methylguanine

118.

Intracellular signaling protein that is activated at the cell surface by activated receptors and then migrate to the nucleus to stimulate gene transcription is ...

a)

Relay protein

b)

Amplifier protein

c)

Latent gene regulatory protein

d)

Adaptor protein

e)

Scaffold protein

119.

Active metabolic reprogramming is required to support sustained cancer cell proliferation and malignant progression, as observed by Otto Warburg in the 1930s. Which of the following statements best describe this cancer characteristics?

a)

Glucose uptake is much greater in tumor cells than in normal cells

b)

Hypoxia increases expression of certain Glucose transporter

c)

Hexokinase activity is elevated in cancer cells

d)

A and B

e)

A, B and C

120.

Prior to becoming invasive, Neoplasia goes through a dysplastic stage. Which of the following statements best describe Dysplasia?

a)

Decrease in cell numbers

b)

Increase in cell volume

c)

Reversible when stimulus is withdrawn

d)

Poorly regulated cell division

e)

Increase in cytoplasma

121.

Malignant Neoplasm display following characteristics, except:

a)

Invasion

b)

Spread to other locations through lymphatic system

c)

Loss of specialized function

d)

Defined tissue boundary

e)

Uncontrolled growth

122.

The depolarization in post-synapse neuron caused the opening of Na channel and further pass the electrical signal along next axon. The stimulus of Na channel opening post-synaptic neuron is ...

a)

Neurotransmitter

b)

Ca2+

c)

Hyperpolarization of membrane

d)

Concentration gradient of ion