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OCD Treatment Practice Questions

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which criterion best describes a necessary feature for participants to be included in Lovell’s study on OCD?

a)

Adults diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder using standardized clinical criteria

b)

Children with generalized anxiety but no compulsions

c)

Volunteers without any mental health diagnosis

d)

Individuals currently in long-term inpatient care for psychosis

2.

In clinical psychology, what does ERP stand for in the context of treating OCD?

a)

Exposure and Response Prevention

b)

Extended Relapse Protection

c)

Emotional Regulation Practice

d)

Evidence-based Recovery Protocol

3.

What was the primary aim of Lovell et al.’s study regarding OCD treatment?

a)

To evaluate the effectiveness of a specific OCD treatment approach

b)

To map the global prevalence of OCD across cultures

c)

To compare the genetic basis of OCD with anxiety disorders

d)

To design a new diagnostic test for OCD

4.

Which pair lists two appropriate outcome measures that could be used in Lovell’s study of OCD treatment?

a)

Standardized OCD symptom severity scale and patient-reported anxiety ratings

b)

Blood glucose levels and resting heart rate

c)

Visual acuity test and hearing threshold

d)

Time to complete a maze and number of puzzles solved

5.

Which treatment is more directly linked to the nature perspective in psychology, and why?

a)

SSRI, because it acts biologically on serotonin systems

b)

ERP, because it changes learned environmental triggers

c)

CBT, because it focuses on thought patterns shaped by experience

d)

Family therapy, because it modifies social environments

6.

What is the main process emphasized in Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) for OCD?

a)

Identifying and restructuring irrational thoughts and behaviors

b)

Administering sedatives to reduce acute anxiety

c)

Practicing free association to uncover unconscious conflicts

d)

Using hypnosis to access suppressed memories

7.

How does negative reinforcement help explain the maintenance of OCD behaviors?

a)

Compulsions are performed to remove or reduce anxiety, which strengthens the behavior

b)

Compulsions provide social approval from others, increasing the behavior

c)

Punishments reduce the frequency of compulsions over time

d)

Positive rewards for avoiding rituals decrease anxiety

8.

In Lehmkuhl’s case study of “Jason,” how was the procedure adapted to accommodate his needs?

a)

Tailored ERP steps were individualized to Jason’s specific obsessions and compulsions

b)

A standardized protocol was applied without any modifications

c)

Only pharmacotherapy was used with no behavioral component

d)

The study avoided any exposure-based tasks entirely

9.

Which statement highlights evidence supporting SSRIs as an explanation or treatment for OCD?

a)

Clinical studies report symptom reduction when serotonin reuptake is inhibited

b)

OCD symptoms worsen when patients practice ERP

c)

Serotonin levels remain unchanged after SSRI treatment

d)

CBT shows no effect on OCD compared to waitlist controls

10.

According to the lesson goals, which task involves recalling basic information about OCD interventions?

a)

Understanding the different types of treatments used for OCD

b)

Planning a new clinical trial for OCD

c)

Designing a hospital ward for OCD patients

d)

Predicting long-term societal impacts of OCD

11.

Which objective best reflects applying knowledge of research methods rather than simple recall?

a)

Memorizing the acronym OCD

b)

Describing the key features of the named studies

c)

Listing common OCD symptoms

d)

Recalling the year OCD was added to diagnostic manuals

12.

A student is asked to judge whether a specific OCD therapy is effective by weighing evidence from named studies. Which listed learning objective does this align with most directly?

a)

To understand the different types of treatments used for OCD

b)

To be able to describe the key features of the named studies

c)

To evaluate the treatments used for OCD

d)

To memorize all OCD diagnostic criteria

13.

Which statement best defines SSRIs in the context of treating OCD?

a)

Serotonin Suppression and Release Inhibitors

b)

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors

c)

Systemic Serotonin Redistribution Interventions

d)

Sequential Serotonin Response Inducers

14.

According to the material, how do SSRIs improve OCD symptoms?

a)

By increasing serotonin production in the liver

b)

By blocking serotonin reabsorption so levels remain higher in the brain

c)

By converting dopamine into serotonin in muscle tissue

d)

By decreasing neuronal communication across synapses

15.

What is the immediate clinical effect described when serotonin levels remain higher due to SSRIs?

a)

Increase in compulsive rituals to relieve stress

b)

Decrease in anxiety, reducing the need to engage in OCD behaviours

c)

Onset of tolerance within one week leading to relapse

d)

Increase in Y-BOCS scores indicating symptom severity

16.

Soomro et al.'s meta-analysis reported which outcome regarding SSRIs?

a)

SSRIs were less effective than placebo and increased Y-BOCS scores

b)

SSRIs were more effective than placebo and reduced Y-BOCS scores

c)

SSRIs had no difference from placebo and did not affect Y-BOCS scores

d)

SSRIs were only effective in adults over 50 years old

17.

Which detail characterizes the Rapoport case study of Charles?

a)

Charles was a 14-year-old with extensive washing rituals; serotonin-targeting antidepressants relieved symptoms but tolerance developed after a year and he relapsed

b)

Charles was a 10-year-old with checking compulsions; antipsychotics eliminated symptoms permanently

c)

Charles was a 14-year-old with hoarding behaviours; therapy alone reduced symptoms with no relapse

d)

Charles was a 20-year-old with contamination fears; SSRIs had immediate, lifelong effects

18.

Which mechanism-of-action description aligns with SSRIs as presented?

a)

They enhance serotonin reabsorption after transmission between neurons

b)

They block serotonin from being reabsorbed after a message passes, keeping synaptic serotonin higher

c)

They increase norepinephrine availability by inhibiting MAO

d)

They stimulate dopamine release to counteract anxiety

19.

Based on the evidence provided, which inference is most supported about SSRIs for OCD?

a)

They reduce anxiety and OCD behaviours, with research showing superiority over placebo, though individual tolerance can lead to relapse

b)

They increase anxiety while reducing compulsions, with placebo outperforming SSRIs

c)

They only work by lowering Y-BOCS scores without affecting patient behaviour

d)

They guarantee permanent symptom relief with no risk of tolerance

20.

Which statement best defines ERP in the context of OCD treatment?

a)

A medication protocol to reduce intrusive thoughts

b)

A form of CBT that combines facing feared triggers with resisting compulsions

c)

A relaxation-only technique focused on deep breathing exercises

d)

A psychoanalytic method emphasizing dream analysis

21.

In ERP, what does the exposure component specifically involve?

a)

Avoiding all contact with feared objects to lower anxiety

b)

Gradually confronting situations that trigger obsessive thoughts or anxiety

c)

Immediately performing compulsions to reduce distress

d)

Rehearsing alternative thoughts without real-world practice

22.

According to the material, which outcome is expected over time when a person refrains from compulsions during ERP?

a)

Anxiety permanently increases with each exposure

b)

Anxiety stays the same and requires medication to change

c)

Anxiety decreases on its own due to habituation

d)

Anxiety disappears only if compulsions are allowed

23.

Which example illustrates response prevention in ERP?

a)

Touching a 'contaminated' door handle

b)

Washing hands immediately after touching a doorknob

c)

Not checking the oven even when anxious about whether it is off

d)

Avoiding supermarkets to reduce anxiety

24.

Which statement captures the key idea of ERP presented in the text?

a)

People confirm their feared outcomes through repeated checking

b)

People learn that feared outcomes don’t actually happen and they can tolerate anxiety without compulsions

c)

People must eliminate all anxiety before confronting fears

d)

People rely on relaxation to remove obsessions

25.

Based on the cycle diagram described, what typically follows an obsession such as repeated thoughts about the oven being left on?

a)

Immediate relief without action

b)

A compulsion like repeatedly checking the oven

c)

A reduction in anxiety due to ignoring the thought

d)

An improvement in memory that prevents future obsessions

26.

In the cycle explanation, why is the relief after a compulsion problematic?

a)

It eliminates anxiety permanently

b)

It strengthens the obsessive response for the future

c)

It proves the feared outcome was real

d)

It prevents habituation during exposure

27.

What is the purpose of a fear thermometer in ERP?

a)

To measure physiological temperature changes during anxiety

b)

To rank feared situations and build exposure gradually so the compulsion does not occur

c)

To time how long compulsions are delayed

d)

To select which relaxation technique to use

28.

Which step would likely be near the bottom of a fear hierarchy for contamination concerns, based on the example?

a)

Going to toilet in public toilets

b)

Touching doors and objects outside home at the supermarket

c)

Touching own waste bin with rubber gloves on

d)

Going to eat outside the home

29.

A client with OCD worries about germs. Which ERP plan aligns with the hierarchy approach described?

a)

Start with public toilets, then move to home tasks

b)

Begin by touching their own waste bin with gloves, then without gloves, and progress to public spaces

c)

Avoid all waste bins until anxiety disappears

d)

Perform handwashing after each step to feel safe

30.

Which combination best represents the two core elements of ERP?

a)

Exposure to triggers and allowance of compulsions

b)

Exposure to triggers and prevention of the compulsive response

c)

Relaxation training and mindfulness only

d)

Medication management and psychoeducation only

31.

According to the case study, what was the primary aim of Lehmkuhl et al. (2008)?

a)

To compare medication versus therapy for adult OCD

b)

To test how well ERP works in treating OCD in a child with Autism Spectrum Disorder

c)

To evaluate school-based programs for social skills in ASD

d)

To develop a new diagnostic scale for OCD severity

32.

Which description best matches the participant in the case study?

a)

A 12-year-old boy with high-functioning autism and OCD

b)

An 8-year-old girl with generalized anxiety disorder

c)

A 16-year-old adolescent with depression and ASD

d)

A 12-year-old boy with ADHD and social anxiety

33.

Which of Jason’s symptoms were specifically noted at the start of treatment?

a)

Paranoia and hallucinations

b)

Contamination fears and excessive handwashing

c)

Sleep paralysis and nightmares

d)

Phobias of heights and flying

34.

What key adaptation was made to ERP to suit Jason’s autism?

a)

Using only group therapy settings

b)

Excluding imaginary exposure exercises because pretend situations were difficult

c)

Increasing session length to 90 minutes

d)

Replacing exposure with mindfulness only

35.

In the adapted procedure, which coping strategy did Jason learn to use during anxiety?

a)

Catastrophizing statements like “Something bad will happen”

b)

Coping statements such as “I know that nothing bad will happen”

c)

Silence and avoidance of triggers

d)

Immediate reassurance seeking from parents

36.

Which examples were used for step-by-step exposure during Jason’s ERP?

a)

Public speaking and crowded concerts

b)

Elevator buttons and door handles

c)

Heights and roller coasters

d)

Dogs and spiders

37.

What was the structure of Jason’s therapy schedule?

a)

10 sessions of 50 minutes over 16 weeks

b)

8 sessions of 30 minutes over 8 weeks

c)

12 sessions of 60 minutes over 12 weeks

d)

6 sessions of 45 minutes over 6 weeks

38.

Which statement best describes Jason’s Y-BOCS score change following treatment?

a)

Increased from 3 (normal range) to 18 (severe)

b)

Dropped from 18 (severe) to 3 (normal range)

c)

Remained at 18 (severe) with no change

d)

Fluctuated between 10 and 15 with mild improvements

39.

What outcome was reported three months after treatment?

a)

Symptoms returned to severe levels with frequent rituals

b)

Symptoms remained low, with improved daily functioning and better participation in school and social activities

c)

No change in symptoms, but improved sleep only

d)

Complete relapse requiring hospitalization

40.

Which conclusion did the case study support about ERP?

a)

ERP is ineffective for patients with comorbid ASD

b)

ERP can be highly effective for OCD and can be adapted to individual needs

c)

ERP works only when combined with medication

d)

ERP is suitable only for adults with OCD

41.

During Sessions 3–8, which tasks were emphasized as part of the procedure?

a)

Learning relaxation only and stopping exposure

b)

Filling reports on distress and using coping statements during distress for response prevention

c)

Practicing imaginary exposure exclusively

d)

Engaging in competitive games to distract from anxiety

42.

Which statement reflects Jason’s learning about his anxiety responses as therapy progressed?

a)

His anxiety increased in duration after each session

b)

They reduced quickly within a few minutes as therapy progressed

c)

They stayed constant regardless of exposure

d)

They disappeared only during imaginary exercises

43.

Recall: According to the overview, what core process does CBT use to create positive changes in emotional and behavioural responses?

a)

Teaching relaxation without addressing thoughts

b)

Challenging irrational thoughts after understanding them

c)

Avoiding stressful situations to reduce exposure

d)

Strengthening only behavioural habits without cognition

44.

Skill/Concept: Which statement best describes imaginal desensitization as presented in the overview?

a)

A technique where patients repeatedly confront real-life stressors without guidance

b)

A method that trains patients to suppress emotions when stressed

c)

A process where patients visualise stress-inducing images and practise relaxation techniques

d)

A behavioural drill that focuses solely on changing habits through rewards

45.

Recall: In this overview, what does ERP most likely refer to as a component within CBT?

a)

Emotion Regulation Practice

b)

Exposure and Response Prevention

c)

Enhanced Relaxation Procedure

d)

Expressive Reframing Protocol

46.

Strategic Thinking: A client believes, "If I make one mistake, I will fail at everything." Using CBT’s described mechanism, which initial therapist action aligns best with the approach?

a)

Ignore the thought and teach the client time management

b)

Identify and then challenge the irrational belief to promote adaptive responses

c)

Encourage the client to avoid tasks that trigger the belief

d)

Provide rewards for perfect performance to reinforce accuracy

47.

Skill/Concept: Which sequence reflects the CBT flow implied by the overview?

a)

Behavioural change first, then identify emotions, then list rational thoughts

b)

Understand the individual's thoughts, challenge irrational beliefs, then aim for positive emotional and behavioural change

c)

Visualise stressors, avoid them, and wait for emotions to subside

d)

Begin with ERP, skip cognitive work, and focus on habit formation

48.

According to the context provided, what is a noted advantage of CBT in relation to OCD?

a)

CBT is primarily used for phobias, not OCD

b)

CBT is very effective for treating OCD

c)

CBT is only effective when delivered in group settings

d)

CBT has limited evidence for mental health conditions

49.

Face-to-face CBT sessions for OCD are typically described as which of the following?

a)

10–15 minutes, twice daily for one week

b)

45–60 minutes, once a week for several weeks

c)

90 minutes, once a month for one year

d)

30 minutes, only as a single session

50.

Which challenge associated with traditional face-to-face CBT is highlighted in the context?

a)

It is inexpensive and quick to deliver

b)

It often has long waiting lists

c)

It eliminates the need for therapist training

d)

It is only available via computerised platforms

51.

Which rationale is given for offering shorter telephone CBT sessions?

a)

They increase pressure on services and reduce accessibility

b)

They reduce waiting lists and make services more accessible

c)

They require longer travel times for patients

d)

They are less acceptable to patients with family/work commitments

52.

Which accessibility factor is specifically mentioned as improved by telephone CBT?

a)

Access to specialized inpatient wards

b)

Support for transport, family/work commitments, and anxiety about travel

c)

Availability of home visits by therapists

d)

Guaranteed same-day appointments

53.

What was the stated aim of Lovell et al. (2006) regarding CBT for OCD?

a)

To replace all face-to-face therapy with computerised self-help

b)

To compare the effectiveness of telephone-based CBT to face-to-face when treating OCD

c)

To prove that ERP is ineffective for OCD

d)

To analyze long-term outcomes of pharmacological treatments for OCD

54.

Identify the hypothesis tested by Lovell et al. (2006).

a)

ERP by phone will have worse outcomes than face-to-face

b)

ERP by phone will have similar outcomes to face-to-face

c)

ERP by phone will outperform all other therapies

d)

ERP by phone will only benefit mild cases of OCD

55.

Which experimental design features characterize Lovell et al. (2006)?

a)

Matched pairs and quasi-experimental

b)

Independent groups and randomized control trial

c)

Cross-sectional survey and case study

d)

Longitudinal cohort without randomization

56.

In Lovell et al. (2006), what were the two independent variable conditions compared? Choose the best answer.

a)

Face-to-face ERP therapy versus ERP therapy via telephone

b)

Group CBT versus individual CBT

c)

Medication management versus placebo

d)

Inpatient intensive ERP versus outpatient supportive counseling

57.

Which age range best describes the participants recruited in Lovell et al. (2006)?

a)

12–25 years

b)

16–65 years

c)

18–80 years

d)

21–40 years

58.

According to the study, participants needed a baseline Y-BOCS score of at least what value to be included?

a)

8 or more

b)

12 or more

c)

16 or more

d)

20 or more

59.

Which measure, alongside Y-BOCS, was completed by participants to assess mood?

a)

HAM-A

b)

BDI

c)

GAD-7

d)

PANSS

60.

Which of the following was an exclusion criterion in Lovell et al. (2006)?

a)

Mild depression without suicidal intent

b)

Organic brain disease

c)

Prior CBT experience

d)

Being older than 50

61.

Which statement accurately describes the randomization in Lovell et al. (2006)?

a)

Participants self-selected into treatment

b)

Participants were randomly assigned to telephone or face-to-face ERP

c)

Clinicians assigned patients based on symptom severity

d)

Assignment alternated every other patient without randomization

62.

At which time points were Y-BOCS and BDI repeated after the initial treatment completion, according to the procedure?

a)

At 2, 4, and 8 weeks

b)

At 1, 3, and 6 months

c)

At 6 and 12 months only

d)

Weekly for 12 weeks

63.

What step occurred four weeks after the initial pre-treatment assessments?

a)

Client satisfaction questionnaire only

b)

Y-BOCS and BDI were completed again

c)

Random assignment to treatment conditions

d)

Therapist supervision session

64.

Which safeguard enhanced internal validity by reducing assessor bias in Lovell et al. (2006)?

a)

Open-label assessment by treating therapist

b)

Blinding: the researchers did not know which condition participants were assigned to

c)

Video-recorded sessions for later review

d)

Double-entry of questionnaire data

65.

Which paired set correctly identifies the primary outcome and the satisfaction measure used in Lovell et al. (2006)?

a)

Primary outcome: PANSS; Satisfaction: CSQ-8

b)

Primary outcome: Y-BOCS; Satisfaction: client satisfaction questionnaire

c)

Primary outcome: GAD-7; Satisfaction: therapist rating scale

d)

Primary outcome: HDRS; Satisfaction: exit interview only

66.

Reasoning task: Given the exclusion of severe depression with suicidal intent and substance misuse, which threat to validity was the study attempting to minimize?

a)

Testing effect increasing scores over time

b)

Confounding from comorbid conditions influencing outcomes

c)

Selection bias from random assignment

d)

Placebo effects due to therapist expectations