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Worksheets

Page 1

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the module on industrial safety, what is stated as the primary objective of industrial safety?

a)

To increase production

b)

To prevent accidents and injuries

c)

To reduce workforce

d)

To improve profit margins

2.

Which option identifies a direct cause of an industrial accident as presented in the introduction to industrial safety?

a)

Unsafe act

b)

Good housekeeping

c)

Adequate training

d)

Proper supervision

3.

Who is primarily responsible for implementing safety policy in an organization, based on the provided material?

a)

Workers

b)

Safety Officer

c)

Suppliers

d)

Visitors

4.

In the context of industrial safety, what does an 'unsafe condition' refer to?

a)

A situation likely to cause harm

b)

A safe working environment

c)

A company policy

d)

A training session

5.

Select the statement that best distinguishes an 'unsafe act' from an 'unsafe condition' using the provided definitions.

a)

An unsafe act is a hazardous environment; an unsafe condition is a behavior that increases risk

b)

An unsafe act is a decision by management; an unsafe condition is a training requirement

c)

An unsafe act is a risky behavior; an unsafe condition is a situation likely to cause harm

d)

An unsafe act and unsafe condition are identical concepts in safety management

6.

Which rationale most closely explains why industrial safety prioritizes preventing accidents and injuries?

a)

Accident prevention directly aligns with the primary objective stated for industrial safety

b)

Increasing production is the most efficient route to safety

c)

Reducing workforce minimizes exposure to hazards by removing people

d)

Improving profit margins inherently reduces risk without additional measures

7.

Given the roles listed, which position is most likely to coordinate safety procedures and ensure policy implementation?

a)

Visitors, because they provide external oversight

b)

Suppliers, because they control materials entering the site

c)

Safety Officer, because they lead implementation of safety policy

d)

Workers, because they set organizational policy

8.

Which of the following is least likely to be categorized as a direct cause of an industrial accident under the provided framework?

a)

Unsafe act

b)

Inadequate housekeeping

c)

Adequate training

d)

Lack of supervision

9.

Choose the best example that fits the description of an 'unsafe condition' from the material.

a)

Operating machinery without PPE due to haste

b)

A wet, unmarked floor in a high-traffic area

c)

Ignoring lockout/tagout procedures to save time

d)

Bypassing a guard because production is behind

10.

If an organization wants to address a direct cause of industrial accidents identified in the material, which immediate focus should it choose?

a)

Eliminating unsafe acts through behavior-based safety programs

b)

Expanding profit margins through cost-cutting

c)

Reducing the workforce to lower exposure

d)

Increasing production targets to motivate safer performance

11.

According to the material, theories of accident causation are primarily used to do which of the following?

a)

Reduce productivity

b)

Analyze and prevent accidents

c)

Prepare financial reports

d)

Recruit employees

12.

What is identified as the main purpose for forming a safety committee within an organization?

a)

Supervise workers

b)

Enforce discipline

c)

Promote and monitor safety

d)

Increase production

13.

Which option best characterizes a dangerous occurrence as described in the material?

a)

An event causing injury

b)

A near-miss event with potential for injury

c)

Routine inspection

d)

Daily maintenance

14.

How is the relationship between safety and productivity described?

a)

Independent

b)

Mutually exclusive

c)

Interdependent

d)

Opposing concepts

15.

Which department is noted as playing a crucial role in safety promotion?

a)

Finance

b)

Maintenance

c)

Management

d)

Procurement

16.

In the context provided, which statement aligns with the definition of hazard?

a)

A situation likely to cause harm

b)

An unavoidable risk inherent to all tasks

c)

Any event that results in injury

d)

A routine operational deviation without consequences

17.

Select the best rationale for why safety committees focus on monitoring safety rather than enforcing discipline.

a)

Monitoring identifies trends and mitigates hazards proactively

b)

Discipline is a legal requirement but not related to safety

c)

Monitoring replaces the need for worker training

d)

Discipline ensures higher productivity than safety monitoring

18.

Which statement most directly supports the idea that safety and productivity are interdependent?

a)

Safe systems typically reduce downtime and errors

b)

Safety measures always slow operations significantly

c)

Productivity goals should ignore safety considerations

d)

Safety and productivity cannot be balanced in practice

19.

What is the most immediate action indicated by theories of accident causation when a near-miss occurs?

a)

Record the event and continue normal operations

b)

Analyze root causes to prevent future accidents

c)

Assign blame to individuals involved

d)

Ignore it unless an injury results

20.

Which of the following best distinguishes a dangerous occurrence from an accident causing injury?

a)

A dangerous occurrence is a routine check without hazards

b)

A dangerous occurrence is a near-miss with potential; an accident results in actual injury

c)

A dangerous occurrence always leads to property damage

d)

A dangerous occurrence is unrelated to workplace safety

21.

What is the primary purpose of a safety policy as described: it sets the organization’s formal stance and expectations regarding safety across operations?

a)

To set guidelines for accident reporting

b)

To define the organization’s safety commitment

c)

To manage employee salaries

d)

To maintain attendance records

22.

Industrial safety’s main goal focuses on outcomes that affect workers and processes. Which statement best captures this goal?

a)

Reduce production cost

b)

Increase downtime

c)

Prevent accidents and injuries

d)

Improve machinery speed

23.

An unsafe act is best defined as which of the following?

a)

A violation of safety rules by a worker

b)

A mechanical fault in a machine

c)

A dangerous workplace condition

d)

An unavoidable accident

24.

Identify the option that is NOT a function of a safety committee.

a)

Accident prevention

b)

Promoting safety awareness

c)

Replacing top management

d)

Investigating accidents

25.

A reportable accident refers to which situation?

a)

Any minor injury

b)

Only fatal accidents

c)

Any accident requiring official reporting

d)

A property damage only incident

26.

Which option best describes the role of management in safety?

a)

Ignoring unsafe conditions

b)

Ensuring compliance and providing resources

c)

Punishing workers for injuries

d)

Delegating safety to workers only

27.

Which of the following agencies is voluntary in nature?

a)

Directorate of Industrial Safety

b)

Factory Inspectorate

c)

Professional safety associations

d)

National legislative bodies

28.

A company wants to reduce injury rates without slowing production. Which action aligns with the main goal of industrial safety?

a)

Increase scheduled downtime to avoid machine wear

b)

Implement controls to prevent accidents and injuries

c)

Replace top management to reset priorities

d)

Focus on attendance tracking to improve punctuality

29.

A supervisor observes a worker bypassing a lockout-tagout procedure. How should this behavior be classified?

a)

Unsafe act

b)

Unsafe condition

c)

Unavoidable accident

d)

Mechanical failure

30.

A safety committee reviews an incident and runs awareness campaigns but does not restructure leadership. Which statement best explains why?

a)

Committees are responsible for replacing top management

b)

Investigating accidents is outside committee duties

c)

Promoting safety awareness is not a committee function

d)

Replacing top management is not a committee function

31.

Which organization is identified as responsible for national safety promotion in the provided content?

a)

National Safety Council

b)

State Government Department

c)

International Labor Organization

d)

Local Municipal Authority

32.

A Safety Policy should primarily include which element according to the material?

a)

Production targets

b)

Salary structures

c)

Management commitment to safety

d)

List of daily tasks

33.

According to the text, theories of accident causation primarily help to:

a)

Reduce safety investment

b)

Identify root causes of accidents

c)

Increase work pressure

d)

Avoid audits

34.

Which of the following is identified as an example of an unsafe condition?

a)

Ignoring warning signs

b)

Wet floor near machinery

c)

Wearing PPE

d)

Following procedure

35.

Who is stated as responsible for enforcing the safety policy?

a)

Government

b)

Supervisor

c)

Safety Officer

d)

All of the above

36.

Which law governs safety and health in Indian factories according to the passage?

a)

The Factories Act, 1948

b)

The Labor Act, 1965

c)

The OSHA Act, 1970

d)

The Safety Code, 1999

37.

ISO 45001:2018 most directly relates to which domain?

a)

Environmental management

b)

Occupational health and safety management systems

c)

Quality management systems

d)

Information security management

38.

Based on the material, which statement best reflects the purpose of a safety policy?

a)

To set production quotas for departments

b)

To define salary bands and incentives

c)

To formalize management’s commitment to safety practices

d)

To list daily tasks for individual workers

39.

If incident analyses rely on accident causation theories, what is the intended outcome emphasized in the text?

a)

Cutting budget for training

b)

Pinpointing root causes to prevent recurrence

c)

Increasing audit frequency

d)

Assigning blame to supervisors

40.

Which of the following choices aligns with the example of unsafe condition given, and why?

a)

Dry floor beside idle machinery, because it prevents slips

b)

Wet floor near machinery, because it increases slip and entanglement hazards

c)

Clean, well-lit walkway, because visibility reduces trips

d)

Proper PPE use, because it controls exposure

41.

According to the content, which domain is the focus of the audits discussed?

a)

Financial auditing

b)

Occupational health and safety

c)

Product quality management

d)

Environmental compliance

42.

Which of the following is identified as a key element of the Factories Act, 1948?

a)

Employee bonuses

b)

Health, safety, and welfare

c)

Marketing policies

d)

Tax regulations

43.

IS 14489:1998 is described as specifying requirements for which activity?

a)

Environmental safety

b)

Occupational safety and health audit

c)

Machinery maintenance

d)

Industrial hygiene

44.

Hazard Identification and Risk Analysis (HIRA) is categorized under which broader area?

a)

Product quality control

b)

Risk management standards

c)

Marketing strategy

d)

Financial analysis

45.

Which organization is stated to issue national safety standards in India?

a)

BIS

b)

WHO

c)

ISO

d)

ILO

46.

A code of practice relating to hazard identification would most directly support which process?

a)

Annual financial reporting

b)

Supplier quality audits

c)

Risk assessment within safety management

d)

Employee performance appraisals

47.

Based on the content, IS 14489:1998 most likely guides organizations to perform which of the following?

a)

Routine equipment calibration

b)

Structured occupational safety and health audits

c)

Market risk hedging

d)

Tax compliance reviews

48.

If an organization aims to align with national safety standards in India, which body’s publications should it consult?

a)

International Labour Organization

b)

Bureau of Indian Standards

c)

World Health Organization

d)

International Organization for Standardization

49.

Within the scope of factory regulation, what triad is emphasized as essential?

a)

Production, profit, and tax

b)

Health, safety, and welfare

c)

Hiring, training, and promotion

d)

Design, testing, and deployment

50.

Which statement best connects HIRA to organizational practices mentioned in the material?

a)

HIRA is a marketing analytics tool for customer segmentation.

b)

HIRA forms part of risk management standards used to identify and analyze hazards.

c)

HIRA is solely an accounting method for auditing balance sheets.

d)

HIRA is a tax compliance checklist mandated by revenue authorities.

51.

Which Indian Standard specifies requirements relevant to the context described: IS 15656:2006, IS 1200:1992, IS 875:2008, or IS 2345:2001? Select the correct standard code.

a)

IS 15656:2006

b)

IS 1200:1992

c)

IS 875:2008

d)

IS 2345:2001

52.

Which international body promotes global occupational safety standards?

a)

ILO

b)

UNESCO

c)

WHO

d)

FAO

53.

Which document defines welfare provisions for workers within industrial settings?

a)

Factories Act

b)

ISO Manual

c)

OSHA Guidelines

d)

HR Handbook

54.

What is the main aim of an occupational safety audit?

a)

Ensure financial compliance

b)

Evaluate safety management systems

c)

Train accountants

d)

Replace safety officers

55.

The Factories Act, 1948 is mainly concerned with which area?

a)

Taxation

b)

Industrial health, safety, and welfare

c)

Production increase

d)

Employee bonuses

56.

ISO 45001:2018 primarily deals with which management system domain?

a)

Food Safety Management

b)

Environmental Management

c)

Occupational Health and Safety Management

d)

Quality Management

57.

Identify the most appropriate organization for setting international labor standards among the following.

a)

International Labour Organization

b)

World Health Organization

c)

United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization

d)

Food and Agriculture Organization

58.

In an industrial compliance review, which statute would you consult first for worker welfare provisions?

a)

Factories Act

b)

Company Law

c)

Trade Marks Act

d)

Information Technology Act

59.

When planning a safety audit, which goal aligns best with recognized practice?

a)

Verify tax filings

b)

Assess safety management systems for effectiveness

c)

Increase quarterly production targets

d)

Restructure HR compensation

60.

Which standard provides a framework for systematically managing workplace health and safety risks?

a)

ISO 45001:2018

b)

ISO 14001:2015

c)

ISO 22000:2018

d)

ISO 9001:2015

61.

IS 14489:1998 relates to which area of occupational safety practice?

a)

Firefighting techniques

b)

Safety audits

c)

Risk insurance

d)

Disaster management plans

62.

Hazard Identification and Risk Analysis (HIRA) primarily aims to do which of the following?

a)

Eliminate hazards completely

b)

Identify and evaluate workplace risks

c)

Create a safety committee

d)

Reduce salaries

63.

According to the Factories Act, which welfare measures are ensured among the following options?

a)

Leave policies only

b)

Canteens, restrooms, and first aid

c)

Bonus and gratuity

d)

Worker insurance only

64.

The main objective of safety standards is best described as which option?

a)

Increase work pressure

b)

Maintain uniform safety practices

c)

Decrease documentation

d)

Promote unregulated work

65.

IS 15656:2006 is a code of practice focused on which topic?

a)

Hazard identification and risk analysis

b)

Fire safety management

c)

Personal Protective Equipment

d)

Disaster relief

66.

Safety signs are classified into which categories?

a)

Prohibition, Warning, Mandatory, and Emergency

b)

Informative and decorative

c)

Color-based only

d)

Temporary and permanent

67.

Which standard emphasizes continual improvement in Occupational Health & Safety (OH&S)?

a)

ISO 9001

b)

ISO 45001

c)

IS 14489

d)

IS 15656

68.

Which option best explains why HIRA is essential in industrial settings? Use the stated aim to support your choice.

a)

It focuses on salary optimization to improve morale.

b)

It provides a committee structure for managing human resources.

c)

It identifies and evaluates workplace risks to inform controls.

d)

It eliminates all hazards through enforcement only.

69.

Choose the statement that aligns with the objective of safety standards as presented.

a)

They streamline paperwork by reducing documentation requirements.

b)

They unify safety practices across operations to maintain consistency.

c)

They intensify workload to meet production targets.

d)

They remove the need for regulatory compliance.

70.

Select the correct pairing between the standard and its scope based on the text.

a)

IS 14489 — Firefighting techniques

b)

IS 15656 — Hazard identification and risk analysis

c)

ISO 9001 — Continual improvement in OH&S

d)

ISO 45001 — Continual improvement in OH&S

71.

According to the material, risk assessment primarily aims to do which of the following?

a)

Eliminate hazard source

b)

Identify and control potential risks

c)

Assign safety officers

d)

Design layout

72.

What is the stated purpose of a toolbox talk?

a)

Discuss production targets

b)

Review daily safety procedures

c)

Assign overtime

d)

Handle employee grievances

73.

Mock drills are conducted primarily to achieve which outcome?

a)

Train workers for emergencies

b)

Increase profits

c)

Reduce insurance costs

d)

Improve attendance

74.

Who is identified as the leader of the safety committee?

a)

HR manager

b)

Safety officer

c)

Senior technician

d)

Supervisor

75.

Based on the listed activities, which statement best reflects the primary aim of safety training?

a)

To eliminate all hazards permanently

b)

To review and reinforce safe procedures and emergency readiness

c)

To assign disciplinary actions to violators

d)

To reduce attendance issues through stricter oversight

76.

Which activity focuses on daily reinforcement of safe practices rather than long-term planning?

a)

Risk assessment

b)

Toolbox talk

c)

Committee leadership

d)

Mock drill

77.

Which option correctly distinguishes mock drills from toolbox talks?

a)

Mock drills review procedures verbally; toolbox talks simulate emergencies physically

b)

Mock drills simulate emergencies; toolbox talks review procedures verbally

c)

Both are primarily for profit increase

d)

Toolbox talks are led by HR managers while mock drills are led by supervisors

78.

In the given roles, which position is responsible for leading formal safety governance?

a)

Senior technician

b)

Supervisor

c)

Safety officer

d)

Production manager

79.

Which statement aligns with the function of risk assessment as presented?

a)

It assigns staff to committees

b)

It designs facility layouts

c)

It identifies and controls potential risks

d)

It handles employee grievances

80.

Choose the best example of a short, focused meeting intended to review daily safety procedures.

a)

Risk assessment session

b)

Toolbox talk

c)

Emergency evacuation drill

d)

Safety committee annual review

81.

Which initiative primarily aims to build safety awareness and skills among employees?

a)

Improve work speed through time-saving drills

b)

Build safety awareness and skills via training and reminders

c)

Reduce workforce size to streamline operations

d)

Improve marketing with safety-themed campaigns

82.

Human error assessment is most directly used for which purpose?

a)

Evaluating machine design specifications

b)

Identifying operator mistakes to guide corrective actions

c)

Reducing wages through performance penalties

d)

Increasing work hours to meet production quotas

83.

Select the correct sequence included in the 5S of housekeeping.

a)

Sorting, set in order, shine, standardize, sustain

b)

Simplify, standardize, save, sustain, sort

c)

Sort, simplify, save, standardize, shine

d)

Simplify, shine, store, sort, sustain

84.

Monitoring safety performance typically involves calculating which metric set?

a)

Profit rate over quarters

b)

Frequency and severity rate for incidents

c)

Tax rate across departments

d)

Recruitment rate for new hires

85.

Safety posters and displays are primarily used to do what?

a)

Advertise company products to visitors

b)

Motivate employees on safety through visual reminders

c)

Record daily output for shift tracking

d)

Monitor time logs with posted schedules

86.

Given the 5S framework, which step focuses on arranging items so they are easy to access when needed?

a)

Sort (remove what is unnecessary)

b)

Set in order (organize needed items for use)

c)

Shine (clean the workspace and equipment)

d)

Sustain (maintain and review standards)

87.

Why would a safety team track both frequency and severity rates rather than only one of them?

a)

Frequency alone captures all dimensions of risk

b)

Severity alone ensures minor incidents are counted

c)

Together they show how often incidents occur and how serious they are

d)

Neither is useful for benchmarking across time

88.

Which option best describes the intent behind human error assessment in an industrial setting?

a)

To redesign products for customer appeal

b)

To detect operator mistakes and inform training or process changes

c)

To justify increasing overtime hours

d)

To reduce tax liabilities through compliance

89.

In applying 5S, which pair of steps most directly improves cleanliness and consistency across shifts?

a)

Sort and set in order

b)

Shine and standardize

c)

Standardize and sustain

d)

Set in order and save

90.

What is the most immediate communication function of safety posters on a shop floor?

a)

Provide marketing slogans to visitors

b)

Motivate and remind employees of safe behaviors

c)

List payroll policies for transparency

d)

Announce recruitment opportunities

91.

Which scenario most directly requires developing on-site emergency plans within an industrial facility?

a)

Natural disasters affecting the entire region

b)

Factory accidents and fire events occurring at the plant

c)

Company office parties for employee engagement

d)

Staff recruitment and onboarding activities

92.

Off-site emergency plans are primarily coordinated with which stakeholders to ensure community-level response?

a)

Fire department and local authorities

b)

Employees only

c)

Human Resources team

d)

External suppliers of raw materials

93.

The main purpose of toolbox talks in a workplace safety program is to:

a)

Train workers on job-specific safety topics through brief focused discussions

b)

Discuss production rates to meet quarterly targets

c)

Review payrolls for accurate wage distribution

d)

Allocate shift schedules for different departments

94.

A Safety Committee in an organization primarily serves to:

a)

Conduct recruitment for specialized roles

b)

Encourage participation in safety programs and initiatives

c)

Set marketing goals for product outreach

d)

Handle finance and budgeting decisions

95.

Effective safety training should be conducted:

a)

Only for new employees during orientation

b)

Regularly for all employees as a continuous process

c)

Only after an accident has occurred

d)

Once a year regardless of changes in risk

96.

Mock drills are organized chiefly to evaluate:

a)

Individual worker technical skills for certification

b)

Emergency preparedness and response coordination

c)

Production targets and throughput rates

d)

Accuracy of shift timings and attendance

97.

In occupational safety metrics, the frequency rate is intended to measure:

a)

Number of hours lost due to absenteeism

b)

How often recordable incidents occur over a standard exposure period

c)

The severity of injuries by lost days per case

d)

Compliance levels with training completion

98.

Which action best aligns with the objective of a toolbox talk when introducing a new chemical hazard?

a)

Explaining local marketing strategies for the product

b)

Demonstrating safe handling procedures and PPE requirements

c)

Calculating payroll adjustments for hazard duty pay

d)

Scheduling holiday office parties

99.

To strengthen emergency preparedness, which coordination is essential during off-site plan development for a facility near residential areas?

a)

Internal HR policy review only

b)

Joint planning with fire department and local authorities

c)

Negotiation with suppliers on delivery timelines

d)

Annual employee picnic organization

100.

Which practice most directly promotes an organization-wide safety culture according to the described roles?

a)

Irregular training conducted only after incidents

b)

Safety Committee driving participation in safety programs

c)

Focusing drills on production rate improvement

d)

Delegating safety to finance for budget control

101.

Which metric best indicates accident frequency in a workplace safety program?

a)

Number of injuries per working hours

b)

Number of safety audits

c)

Production speed

d)

Shift rotation count

102.

In the 5S methodology for housekeeping, which element is NOT one of the five pillars?

a)

Sort

b)

Shine

c)

Safety

d)

Sustain

103.

What is the primary purpose of an On-site Emergency Plan?

a)

Only to be used after an accident

b)

To handle emergencies within the plant

c)

To raise community awareness

d)

For routine operations scheduling

104.

Human error assessment primarily helps in which of the following?

a)

Improving safety training

b)

Reducing machine speed

c)

Increasing costs

d)

Reducing manpower

105.

Which outcome is most directly improved by good housekeeping practices?

a)

Morale and productivity

b)

Sales only

c)

Shift rotation efficiency

d)

Reporting time reduction

106.

Management’s role in safety monitoring most appropriately includes:

a)

Conducting safety reviews

b)

Reducing manpower

c)

Hiring only skilled labor

d)

Ignoring safety audits

107.

Which of the following is classified as a mechanical hazard?

a)

Moving machinery parts

b)

Electric shock

c)

Chemical exposure

d)

Noise from alarms

108.

Selecting the best indicator for accident trends requires distinguishing frequency from other measures. Which measure directly tracks how often injuries occur relative to time worked?

a)

Number of injuries per working hours

b)

Number of near-miss reports filed

c)

Average downtime per machine

d)

Total output units per shift

109.

Applying the 5S concept, identify the choice that incorrectly lists a pillar and explain by choosing the option that is not part of 5S.

a)

Sort is a 5S pillar

b)

Shine is a 5S pillar

c)

Safety is a 5S pillar

d)

Sustain is a 5S pillar

110.

A plant is developing procedures to respond quickly to fires, chemical leaks, or equipment failures on-site. Which plan specifically addresses these scenarios?

a)

On-site Emergency Plan

b)

Community Awareness Program

c)

Annual Production Plan

d)

Routine Maintenance Schedule

111.

Identify the primary mechanical hazard described: Which risk is specifically associated with equipment that has exposed components capable of physical contact?

a)

Moving machinery parts

b)

Noise exposure

c)

Radiation

d)

Chemical vapors

112.

Which hazard most directly arises from improper wiring in an industrial setting?

a)

Mechanical

b)

Electrical

c)

Biological

d)

Ergonomic

113.

Which practice constitutes a fire hazard due to increased ignition likelihood?

a)

Storing flammable materials near heat

b)

Keeping exits open

c)

Ensuring proper ventilation

d)

Conducting regular fire training

114.

On what basis are fire extinguishers classified according to the material?

a)

Type of fire

b)

Size of cylinder

c)

Weight of the extinguisher

d)

Duration of spray

115.

Which control best mitigates noise hazard for workers exposed to high sound levels?

a)

Using silencers and ear protection

b)

Increasing work hours

c)

Playing background music

d)

Avoiding PPE to improve comfort

116.

Musculoskeletal disorders are primarily caused by which occupational factor?

a)

Poor ergonomics and repetitive strain

b)

Exposure to ultraviolet radiation

c)

Short-duration tasks with frequent breaks

d)

High-quality seating with arm support

117.

Consider electrical safety. Which immediate action reduces risk when improper wiring is suspected?

a)

De-energize the circuit and tag out

b)

Increase load to test stability

c)

Ignore unless a fault occurs

d)

Replace insulation with tape alone

118.

Which statement best explains why storing flammable materials near heat is hazardous?

a)

Elevated temperatures can lower ignition thresholds

b)

Heat sources make materials heavier and stable

c)

Heat reduces vapor formation, preventing ignition

d)

Proximity to heat improves automatic suppression

119.

Which pairing correctly matches extinguisher class to the type of fire?

a)

Class A — ordinary combustibles; Class B — flammable liquids; Class C — energized electrical

b)

Class A — metals; Class B — electrical; Class C — cooking oils

c)

Class A — flammable gases; Class B — ordinary combustibles; Class C — metals

d)

Class A — energized electrical; Class B — metals; Class C — flammable liquids

120.

Which control is most appropriate to prevent injuries from moving machinery parts?

a)

Machine guarding and lockout/tagout

b)

Increasing ambient lighting only

c)

Posting warning signs without physical barriers

d)

Relying on PPE instead of engineering controls

121.

Which factor is most commonly linked to ergonomic injuries in office or assembly tasks?

a)

Repetitive motion and poor posture

b)

Chemical exposure during cleaning

c)

Electric shock from equipment

d)

Heat radiation from nearby machinery

122.

What is the most effective strategy to reduce ergonomic hazards in routine workstation tasks?

a)

Proper workstation design

b)

Reducing rest breaks

c)

Increasing production quotas

d)

Ignoring signs of fatigue

123.

Which index is specifically used to assess fire and explosion risk in industrial settings?

a)

Fire and explosion index

b)

Profit index

c)

Audit checklist score

d)

Production record trend

124.

In safety management terminology, what does an "unsafe act" most directly refer to?

a)

Violation of safety procedures

b)

Following standard operating procedures (SOPs)

c)

Wearing appropriate PPE

d)

Attending scheduled safety meetings

125.

Which type of personal protective equipment is designed to protect against respiratory hazards like dusts, fumes, or vapors?

a)

Helmet

b)

Gloves

c)

Respirator

d)

Safety boots

126.

Identify the predominant hazard category addressed when workers experience musculoskeletal strain from keyboarding or repeated tool use.

a)

Ergonomic hazard

b)

Biological hazard

c)

Radiological hazard

d)

Administrative hazard

127.

Select the design change that most directly mitigates repetitive strain injuries at a bench workstation.

a)

Adjusting workstation height and chair support to neutral posture

b)

Posting more warning signs near exits

c)

Replacing metal tools with plastic versions

d)

Adding extra shift hours to increase task rotation

128.

Which of the following best distinguishes an unsafe act from an unsafe condition?

a)

An unsafe act is a behavior violating procedure, while an unsafe condition is a hazardous environment

b)

Both terms describe the same situation and are interchangeable

c)

An unsafe act refers only to equipment failure, not human behavior

d)

An unsafe condition is always caused by chemical exposure events

129.

When evaluating facility risk, choosing an established quantitative metric for combustion hazards aligns with which approach?

a)

Using a fire and explosion index to compare potential incident severity

b)

Relying solely on profit index to infer safety performance

c)

Counting production units as a proxy for hazard exposure

d)

Skipping audits because they do not quantify hazard likelihood

130.

Which PPE choice would be prioritized for tasks involving solvent vapors in a confined space?

a)

Impact-rated helmet to prevent head injury

b)

Chemical-resistant gloves for hand protection

c)

Respirator appropriate to the contaminant concentration

d)

Steel-toe boots for foot protection

131.

According to the provided material, what is the best definition of a hazard?

a)

A potential source of harm

b)

An unavoidable event

c)

A safety measure

d)

A rule violation

132.

Which option identifies a mechanical hazard?

a)

Electrical shock

b)

Moving machinery parts

c)

Noise exposure

d)

Poor posture

133.

Fire caused by electrical equipment is classified into which fire class?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

134.

In the context of workplace safety, PPE most appropriately stands for which phrase?

a)

Personal Performance Equipment

b)

Personal Protective Equipment

c)

Public Protection Establishment

d)

Personal Protection Evaluation

135.

Ergonomics primarily focuses on which area?

a)

Machine design

b)

Work environment design to fit workers

c)

Production planning

d)

Marketing

136.

Which of the following is an example of an unsafe condition?

a)

Slippery floor

b)

Running on site

c)

Lack of training

d)

Wrong attitude

137.

Which extinguishing medium is recommended for electrical fires?

a)

Water

b)

Foam

c)

CO₂

d)

Sand

138.

REBA most accurately stands for which assessment?

a)

Rapid Entire Body Assessment

b)

Risk Evaluation and Behavior Analysis

c)

Radiation Exposure Body Assessment

d)

Rapid Entire Body Appraisal

139.

Select the statement that best distinguishes an unsafe condition from an unsafe act, based on the examples provided.

a)

An unsafe condition involves environmental or equipment states like a slippery floor, whereas an unsafe act refers to behaviors such as running on site.

b)

An unsafe condition refers to attitudes, while unsafe acts are strictly training deficits.

c)

Unsafe conditions always involve electricity, while unsafe acts do not.

d)

Unsafe acts are about machine design, while unsafe conditions are about marketing decisions.

140.

Which pairing correctly matches hazard type to example given in the material?

a)

Mechanical hazard — electrical shock

b)

Mechanical hazard — moving machinery parts

c)

Ergonomic hazard — marketing decisions

d)

Chemical hazard — CO₂ extinguishing agent

141.

Electrical insulating gloves are categorized under which type of personal protective equipment (PPE)?

a)

Hand protection

b)

Head protection

c)

Body protection

d)

Foot protection

142.

Fire-resistant clothing (FRC) primarily protects against which hazard?

a)

Burns and ignition hazards

b)

Noise

c)

Ergonomic stress

d)

Radiation only

143.

Job Safety Analysis (JSA) most directly focuses on which outcome?

a)

Production improvement

b)

Identifying job-related hazards

c)

HR management

d)

Marketing strategies

144.

What is the main purpose of Preliminary Hazard Analysis (PHA)?

a)

Identify potential hazards early

b)

Finalize project budgets

c)

Train workers

d)

Conduct financial audits

145.

Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is primarily used to:

a)

Predict system failures

b)

Improve product marketing

c)

Reduce worker attendance

d)

Maintain records

146.

Which statement best distinguishes JSA from PHA in practice?

a)

JSA analyzes tasks to find specific job hazards; PHA screens a project early to flag potential hazards.

b)

JSA is performed during budgeting; PHA is performed during hiring.

c)

JSA focuses on marketing risks; PHA focuses on training outcomes.

d)

JSA identifies ergonomic stress only; PHA identifies noise hazards only.

147.

An engineer selecting PPE for electrical work should choose insulating gloves primarily because they:

a)

Provide hand protection against electrical contact

b)

Shield the head from falling objects

c)

Offer full body flame resistance

d)

Protect feet from mechanical impacts

148.

Which tool is best suited for anticipating how a component failure could propagate through a system?

a)

Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)

b)

Job Safety Analysis (JSA)

c)

Preliminary Hazard Analysis (PHA)

d)

Marketing SWOT analysis

149.

When initiating a new project, which method should be used first to broadly identify potential hazards before detailed task studies?

a)

Preliminary Hazard Analysis (PHA)

b)

Job Safety Analysis (JSA)

c)

Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)

d)

Financial audit

150.

Fire-resistant clothing would be least appropriate as a control for which hazard?

a)

Exposure to ignition sources

b)

Thermal burn risk

c)

Excessive noise levels

d)

Flame spread on clothing