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Inflammation (NCLEX-style Questions)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client presents with redness, heat, swelling, and pain at a surgical incision site. Which finding indicates acute inflammation?

a)

Presence of macrophages as the primary cell

b)

Granulation tissue filling the wound

c)

Neutrophil accumulation and pus formation

d)

Collagen remodeling

2.

The nurse observes an elevated WBC with an increased number of band neutrophils. What does this indicate?

a)

Chronic inflammation

b)

Viral infection

c)

“Shift to the left” meaning acute bacterial inflammation

d)

Bone marrow suppression

3.

Which mediator is responsible for vasodilation and increased capillary permeability in inflammation?

a)

Renin

b)

Histamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

Dopamine

4.

Which finding is a systemic manifestation of inflammation?

4 lines
5.

A neutropenic patient may have an infection without obvious inflammation because:

a)

Neutrophils migrate too quickly

b)

They mount an excessive immune response

c)

They cannot form pus or typical inflammatory signs

d)

Fever response is intensified

6.

Which patient is at the highest risk for poor wound healing?

a)

25-year-old with mild anemia

b)

40-year-old taking vitamin C

c)

70-year-old on chronic corticosteroids

d)

35-year-old with healthy nutrition

7.

The nurse recognizes which scenario as primary intention wound healing?

a)

Surgical incision closed with sutures

b)

Large traumatic wound left open

c)

Wound packed and healing by granulation

d)

Delayed closure after infection resolves

8.

A client with fever of 103°F is shivering under blankets. What is the correct interpretation?

a)

Fever is breaking

b)

The set point is rising; body is generating heat to match new temperature

c)

Patient is hypothermic

d)

Patient has inadequate perfusion

9.

The nurse caring for an inflamed ankle applies ice during the first 24 hours because cold:

a)

Stimulates neutrophil production

b)

Increases blood flow

c)

Causes vasoconstriction reducing swelling and pain

d)

Prevents scar tissue formation

10.

Which is a correct teaching for NSAID use during inflammation?

a)

NSAIDs increase prostaglandin production

b)

NSAIDs raise the hypothalamic set point

c)

NSAIDs block prostaglandin synthesis

d)

NSAIDs must be taken with corticosteroids

11.

A patient taking infliximab (Remicade) should be monitored for:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Opportunistic infections

c)

Severe dehydration

d)

Hyperthyroidism

12.

Which finding in Crohn’s disease is expected but NOT seen in ulcerative colitis?

a)

Continuous inflammation starting at the rectum

b)

Mucosal layer involvement only

c)

Skip lesions and cobblestone appearance

d)

20 bloody stools per day

13.

A patient with UC reports 18 bloody stools/day and tachycardia. Which complication is the nurse concerned about?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Toxic megacolon

c)

Fistula formation

d)

Iron overload

14.

Which drug is first-line maintenance therapy for ulcerative colitis?

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Sulfasalazine (5-ASA)

c)

Infliximab

d)

Ciprofloxacin

15.

The nurse suspects peptic ulcer perforation when the patient reports:

a)

Pain relieved by food

b)

Burning pain 2–5 hours after meals

16.

Which medication is part of triple therapy for H. pylori?

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Famotidine

c)

Sucralfate

d)

Metronidazole alone

17.

Which diagnostic test confirms ulcerative colitis?

a)

Endoscopy of upper GI

b)

Urodynamic testing

c)

Colonoscopy

d)

CT angiography

18.

A client with hepatitis has clay-colored stools and dark urine. What lab is most important?

a)

Lipase

b)

Hepatitis panel

c)

ESR

d)

BNP

19.

Which hepatitis transmission route is correct?

a)

Hepatitis B is fecal-oral

b)

Hepatitis C is transmitted through food

c)

Hepatitis A is fecal-oral

d)

Hepatitis A is transmitted by needles

20.

A nurse caring for a patient with pancreatitis expects which intervention first?

a)

Encourage walking

b)

High-fat diet

c)

NPO and pain control

d)

Administer diuretics

21.

The MOST concerning finding in a patient with pancreatitis is:

a)

Nausea

b)

Severe epigastric pain

c)

Grey-Turner's sign (flank bruising)

d)

Mild bloating

22.

A patient receiving IV steroids for inflammation is at risk for:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Elevated glucose and immune suppression

d)

Decreased appetite

23.

A nurse suspects infection at a wound site when observing:

a)

Clear serous drainage

b)

Pink granulation tissue

c)

Purulent drainage and fever

d)

Scar contraction

24.

A patient reports periumbilical pain, diarrhea, and low-grade fever. Which condition fits?

a)

Gastric ulcer

b)

Urolithiasis

c)

Gastroenteritis/infectious diarrhea

d)

Stress incontinence

25.

After a cystoscopy, which finding must be reported immediately?

a)

Light pink urine

b)

Mild burning with urination

c)

Bright red urine or clots

d)

Frequency for 24 hours

26.

Which patient statement indicates understanding of corticosteroid therapy?

a)

I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.

b)

This medication may raise my blood sugar.

c)

I should avoid all foods with salt.

d)

This medication prevents all types of infections.

27.

Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient with suspected sepsis?

a)

Fever 101°F

b)

Warm, flushed skin

c)

Hypotension and altered mental status

d)

Increased appetite

28.

Which lab value supports acute inflammation?

a)

Low CRP

b)

Elevated ESR

c)

Low WBC

d)

High RBC

29.

A nurse is caring for a newborn with infection. Which fact explains their higher risk?

a)

Increased neutrophil production

b)

Stronger skin barrier

c)

Reduced inflammatory response

d)

Faster immune memory development

30.

Which lifestyle factor increases the risk of chronic inflammation?

a)

High protein diet

b)

Smoking

c)

Low sodium intake

d)

Moderate exercise

31.

Which order should the nurse question for a patient with compartment syndrome?

a)

Prepare for fasciotomy

b)

Notify the provider

c)

Ice the extremity

d)

Keep extremity at heart level

32.

Which finding suggests fat embolism syndrome?

a)

Tingling in fingers

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Petechiae and hypoxemia

d)

Hypertension

33.

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis states, “My joints feel stiff for hours when I wake up.” The nurse interprets this as:

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Fibromyalgia

c)

Classic RA stiffness pattern

d)

Medication reaction

34.

Which teaching is appropriate for osteoarthritis management?

a)

Avoid exercise to reduce stress on joints.

b)

Use heat before exercise and ice after.

c)

Take NSAIDs only on an empty stomach.

d)

Expect pain to fully resolve with medication.

35.

Which medication requires infection screening (TB, hepatitis) before starting?

a)

Famotidine

b)

Sucralfate

c)

Infliximab (Remicade)

d)

Metoclopramide

36.

A patient with Crohn’s is at greatest risk for which complication?

a)

Toxic megacolon only

b)

Fistula formation

c)

Continuous rectal bleeding

d)

No electrolyte imbalance

37.

Which finding requires immediate intervention in a patient with ulcerative colitis?

a)

Four loose stools/day

b)

Mild cramping

c)

Severe abdominal distention

d)

Low-grade fever

38.

A client receiving NSAIDs for inflammation should be monitored for:

a)

Hyponatremia

b)

Constipation

c)

Gastric irritation and bleeding

d)

Hypokalemia

39.

In peptic ulcer disease, which statement indicates gastric ulcer symptoms?

a)

My pain improves with eating.

b)

I have pain 1–2 hours after meals.

c)

Pain occurs late at night only.

d)

Pain rarely returns.

40.

A patient on sucralfate should take it:

a)

With meals

b)

After meals

c)

On an empty stomach before meals

d)

With antacids only

41.

Which vital sign trend suggests developing septic shock?

a)

HR 78 → 74

b)

BP 128/78 → 110/70

c)

HR 110 → 132 with dropping BP

d)

Temp 98.9 → 99.2

42.

Which intervention has priority for a patient with anaphylaxis?

a)

Give warm blankets

b)

Administer epinephrine IM

43.

The nurse identifies which electrolyte imbalance as a risk during diarrhea?

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hypermagnesemia

44.

A patient with peritonitis from a perforated ulcer will MOST likely have:

a)

Soft abdomen

b)

Hyperactive bowel sounds

c)

Rigid, board-like abdomen

d)

Pain relieved by food

45.

Which client should avoid live vaccines?

a)

Patient taking antacids

b)

Patient on infliximab (Remicade)

c)

Patient taking sucralfate

d)

Patient with constipation

46.

Which sign indicates possible GI bleeding?

a)

Clay-colored stool

b)

Hard, lumpy stool

c)

Black, tarry stool (melena)

d)

Pale-yellow stool

47.

Which is expected with chronic inflammation?

a)

High numbers of neutrophils

b)

Macrophage-dominated response

c)

Rapid resolution

d)

No tissue damage

48.

A nurse caring for a patient with osteoarthritis expects which exam finding?

a)

Symmetric joint swelling

b)

Systemic fever

c)

Heberden and Bouchard nodes

d)

Weight loss

49.

A client with acute pancreatitis develops decreased urine output and crackles. The nurse suspects:

a)

Constipation

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Rhabdomyolysis

d)

Fluid overload/AKI progression

50.

Which intervention decreases risk of pressure ulcers during inflammation recovery?

a)

Massage over bony areas

b)

Turn every 2 hours

c)

Keep heels flat on bed

d)

Use cold packs continuously

51.

Which finding differentiates Crohn’s disease from ulcerative colitis?

a)

Continuous inflammation beginning in the rectum

b)

Mucosal layer involvement only

c)

Skip lesions throughout the GI tract

d)

Large amounts of bloody diarrhea

52.

A patient with ulcerative colitis has severe dehydration. Which symptom is the nurse MOST concerned about?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Dry mouth

c)

Poor skin turgor

d)

Thirst

53.

Which medication is contraindicated in a patient with peptic ulcer disease?

a)

PPIs

b)

Sucralfate

c)

NSAIDs

d)

Antibiotics for H. pylori

54.

A nurse suspects a shift to the left when reviewing labs. What finding confirms this?

a)

Elevated lymphocytes

b)

Elevated eosinophils

c)

Increased band neutrophils

d)

Decreased monocytes

55.

Which patient is at highest risk for gastritis or PUD?

a)

Patient who drinks only water

b)

Patient on long-term NSAIDs

c)

Patient with high fiber diet

d)

Patient who avoids caffeine

56.

A client with rheumatoid arthritis is starting methotrexate. Which teaching is essential?

a)

This drug works immediately.

b)

You do not need lab monitoring.

c)

Report any signs of infection promptly.

d)

Take extra vitamin C for absorption.

57.

Which assessment finding in pancreatitis requires priority action?

a)

Mild abdominal pain

b)

Nausea after eating

58.

A patient with suspected UC undergoes colonoscopy. Which finding confirms severity?

a)

Pale mucosa

b)

Enlarged spleen

c)

20+ bloody stools/day

d)

Normal hemoglobin

59.

The nurse caring for a patient with sepsis expects which acid–base imbalance?

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Respiratory acidosis

60.

A patient being treated for pyelonephritis is improving when which occurs?

a)

Persistent flank pain

b)

Fever returns

c)

Pain improves and WBC trends down

d)

Hematuria worsens

61.

Which lab result is a priority for a patient with acute pancreatitis?

a)

Sodium 138

b)

Amylase elevated

c)

Lipase critically elevated

d)

Hemoglobin slightly low

62.

A patient with Crohn’s disease is experiencing severe weight loss. What is the likely cause?

a)

Hyperperistalsis

b)

Malabsorption

c)

Excess insulin

d)

Increased appetite

63.

Which finding differentiates gastric from duodenal ulcers?

a)

Gastric ulcers improve with eating

b)

Duodenal pain is relieved by vomiting

c)

Gastric ulcer pain worsens 1–2 hrs after meals

d)

Duodenal ulcers cause early satiety

64.

The nurse knows that prednisone use increases the risk for which condition?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Hypertension and infection

c)

Low cortisol levels only

d)

Urinary retention

65.

A patient with acute diarrhea is at highest risk for:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance

d)

High blood sugar

66.

Which symptom suggests a complication of Crohn’s disease?

a)

Joint pain

b)

Fistula formation

c)

Headache

d)

Productive cough

67.

A nurse receives report on four patients. Who should be seen first?

a)

RA patient with morning stiffness

b)

UC patient with mild cramping

c)

PUD patient with rigid abdomen

d)

Crohn’s patient with diarrhea

68.

A priority teaching for patients on PPIs is to:

a)

Avoid taking them with food

b)

Report black, tarry stools

c)

Increase sodium intake

d)

Take only with caffeine

69.

Which complication is more common in ulcerative colitis than Crohn’s?

a)

Perianal fistulas

b)

Cobblestoning

c)

Toxic megacolon

d)

Fistulas to bladder

70.

A client states, “I’m taking acetaminophen for inflammation.” What is the correct response?

a)

Acetaminophen reduces inflammation well.

b)

Acetaminophen does not reduce inflammation.

c)

You should double the dose.

d)

Avoid using NSAIDs with it.

71.

Which body system fails first in SIRS/sepsis progression?

a)

Endocrine

b)

Renal

c)

Respiratory

d)

Musculoskeletal

72.

Which medication decreases stomach acid by blocking histamine receptors?

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Sucralfate

c)

Famotidine (H2 blocker)

d)

Metronidazole

73.

A provider orders an NG tube for a patient with gastric outlet obstruction. The nurse knows its main purpose is:

a)

Improve peristalsis

b)

Remove intestinal gas

c)

Decompress the stomach

d)

Deliver medications

74.

A patient receiving infliximab should report which symptom immediately?

(a)  

75.

A nurse suspects peritonitis in a patient with suspected ulcer perforation. Which finding supports this?

a)

Hyperactive bowel sounds

b)

Soft abdomen

c)

Absent bowel sounds

d)

Increased appetite

76.

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis asks why morning movement helps their symptoms. The nurse responds:

a)

Movement decreases synovial inflammation.

b)

Movement prevents cartilage growth.

c)

Movement stops immune activity.

d)

Movement lowers WBC count.

77.

Which assessment is PRIORITY for a patient with suspected pancreatitis?

a)

Ability to tolerate oral fluids

b)

Onset of diarrhea

c)

Pain radiating to the back

d)

Blurry vision

78.

A client with gastric ulcer has coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

4 lines
79.

Which of the following is most likely to be found in the vomitus of a patient with a gastric ulcer?

a)

Undigested food

b)

Partially digested blood from GI bleed

c)

Normal stomach emptying

d)

Bile reflux only

80.

Which patient is most at risk for Crohn’s disease?

a)

Older African American female

b)

Young adult smoker with family history

c)

Child with allergies

d)

Patient who avoids fatty foods

81.

Which symptom indicates possible toxic megacolon?

a)

Soft abdomen

b)

Mild bloating

c)

Severe abdominal pain with distention

d)

Watery diarrhea only

82.

A patient with UC is prescribed sulfasalazine. Which teaching is correct?

a)

Expect symptoms to improve immediately.

b)

This medication decreases inflammation in the colon.

c)

Take this only when symptoms occur.

d)

You will not need labs while on this.

83.

What is a key nursing priority when administering IV steroids?

a)

Monitor for hypothermia

b)

Monitor blood glucose

c)

Reduce salt intake

d)

Encourage potassium supplements

84.

A patient with peptic ulcer perforation most likely has which finding?

a)

Pain relieved by antacids

b)

Bright red stool

c)

Sudden severe pain and rigid abdomen

d)

Burning pain after meals

85.

Which assessment finding in Crohn’s is related to malabsorption?

a)

Fever

b)

Weight loss

c)

Fluid retention

d)

Headache

86.

A patient receiving antibiotics for C. diff reports worsening diarrhea. What action is priority?

a)

Administer antidiarrheals

b)

Stop all fluids

c)

Continue therapy and monitor hydration

d)

Give opioids for pain

87.

Which finding indicates effective treatment of sepsis after IV fluids and antibiotics?

a)

HR 128 → 132

b)

BP 84/40 → 92/48

c)

HR 130 → 98 and improved mental status

d)

Temp 100.5 → 100.7

88.

Which nursing intervention helps prevent peptic ulcer rebleeding?

a)

Avoiding all carbohydrates

b)

Strict PPI therapy

c)

Chewing peppermint gum

d)

Drinking coffee daily

89.

Which finding is expected in chronic pancreatitis?

a)

Weight gain

b)

Steatorrhea

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Jaundice relief

90.

A nurse monitoring a patient with inflammation expects which lab to elevate FIRST?

a)

ESR

b)

CRP

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Albumin

91.

Which dietary choice is appropriate for ulcerative colitis during a flare?

a)

Raw vegetables

b)

Whole nuts

c)

Low-residue foods

d)

High-fat meals

92.

Which action helps prevent urinary tract infections?

a)

Hold urine to stretch bladder

b)

Wipe back to front

c)

Void after intercourse

d)

Use bubble baths

93.

A patient with Crohn’s develops a fever, abdominal pain, and purulent drainage near the anus. This suggests:

a)

Gastritis

b)

Toxic megacolon

c)

Perianal fistula

d)

Reflux

94.

A nurse reviews meds for a patient with inflammation. Which increases ulcer risk?

a)

PPIs

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Sucralfate

d)

Calcium supplements

95.

Which finding is associated with peritonitis?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Soft, non-tender abdomen

c)

Rigid abdomen with rebound tenderness

d)

Loud bowel sounds

96.

A client taking PPIs long-term is at risk for:

a)

Hypermagnesemia

b)

Osteoporosis

97.

The nurse identifies which lab abnormality in severe diarrhea?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

High chloride

d)

Low sodium only

98.

Which symptom is most indicative of appendicitis progressing toward rupture?

a)

Pain relieved suddenly

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Persistent diarrhea

d)

Fever decreases

99.

In pancreatitis, the nurse monitors for tetany because:

a)

Hypocalcemia is common

b)

Hypernatremia is expected

c)

Protein levels rise

d)

Sodium increases

100.

Which symptom suggests inflammation complication in older adults?

a)

Fever first

b)

Cognitive changes or confusion

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Tachypnea only