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Neonatal and Infant Care Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which is the easiest breastfeeding position for beginners?

a)

Side-lying

b)

Football hold

c)

Upright hold

d)

Dancer hand hold

2.

Which screening tool evaluates breastfeeding effectiveness using a 0–2 scoring system?

a)

APGAR

b)

LATCH

c)

Finnegan

d)

Ballard

3.

Which car seat guideline is appropriate for a premature infant?

a)

Must pass a car seat challenge before discharge

b)

Can go home in parent's lap

c)

Forward-facing if ≥5 lbs

d)

Booster seat with padding

4.

Which newborn behavior indicates the need for suctioning with a bulb syringe?

a)

Quiet breathing

b)

Grunting

c)

Nasal flaring

d)

Difficulty clearing airway

5.

A newborn has an APGAR score of 4 at 1 minute. This indicates:

a)

Stable status

b)

Moderate difficulty transitioning

c)

Severe distress

d)

Need for no intervention

6.

A newborn’s APGAR score is 2 for color, 2 for heart rate, 2 for muscle tone, 2 for respiratory effort, and 2 for reflex irritability. What is the score?

a)

10

b)

8

c)

5

d)

6

7.

How should the nurse clean a newborn’s eyes during a bath?

a)

Outer to inner canthus

b)

Inner to outer canthus

c)

Circular motions

d)

With alcohol wipes

8.

Which infant would require the MOST urgent evaluation?

a)

Crackles in lungs

b)

Dry skin

c)

No bowel sounds

d)

Acrocyanosis

9.

Where should Vitamin K be injected?

a)

Deltoid

b)

Ventrogluteal

c)

Vastus lateralis

d)

Dorsogluteal

10.

Which intervention is necessary for a newborn receiving phototherapy?

a)

Apply lotions to prevent dryness

b)

Place eye shields over the newborn’s eyes

c)

Stop all feedings

d)

Dress infant in loose clothing

11.

Which statement by a parent indicates correct understanding of phototherapy?

a)

The light should be within 6 inches of the baby.

b)

I should remove the diaper during treatment.

c)

I need to turn the light off during feeds.

d)

The baby does not need to eat more frequently.

12.

Which nursing intervention is essential during phototherapy?

a)

Apply baby oil before placing under lights

b)

Reposition infant frequently

c)

Keep infant fully covered

d)

Keep lights more than 24 inches away

13.

A mother of a jaundiced newborn asks why feeding is so important during phototherapy. The best response is:

a)

Feeding helps the baby sleep better.

b)

Feeding prevents electrolyte imbalances.

c)

Feeding helps eliminate bilirubin through stool and urine.

d)

Feeding prevents skin dryness under the lights.

14.

Which infant needs immediate glucose monitoring after birth?

a)

Born at 38 weeks, 3200g

b)

Born to a mother with GDM

c)

Born to a mother with anemia

d)

Born by c-section

15.

Which newborn finding requires intervention for suspected hypoglycemia?

a)

Rooting

b)

Tremors/jitteriness

c)

Regular respirations

d)

Pink color

16.

The BEST initial nursing intervention for a newborn with low blood sugar is:

a)

Administer a glucose solution orally

b)

Start intravenous antibiotics

c)

Place the newborn under a radiant warmer

d)

Delay feeding until the next scheduled time

17.

Which is the correct intervention?

a)

Administer IV glucose immediately

b)

Encourage skin-to-skin

c)

Delay feeding until stable

d)

Start formula feeding exclusively

18.

Which factor puts a neonate at risk for hyperbilirubinemia? Select all that apply.

a)

ABO incompatibility

b)

Rh incompatibility

c)

Maternal diabetes

d)

Delayed or infrequent feeding

e)

Breastfeeding

19.

A newborn is suspected to have intraventricular hemorrhage. What should the nurse expect to see documented in the plan of care?

a)

Rapid IV bolus fluids

b)

Lumbar puncture

c)

Prone positioning

d)

Frequent rectal temps

20.

Which CSF findings are associated with IVH? Select all that apply.

a)

Increased protein concentration

b)

Decreased glucose

c)

Xanthochromia

d)

No RBCs

e)

High bilirubin levels

21.

What position helps decrease cerebral blood flow fluctuations in infants at risk for IVH?

a)

Prone

b)

Supine with head midline

c)

Side-lying with legs flexed

d)

Trendelenburg

22.

Which intervention is CONTRAINDICATED for IVH risk?

a)

Slow fluid replacement

b)

Blood transfusions

c)

Rapid IV bolus fluids

d)

Cranial ultrasound

23.

A parent asks why Vitamin K is necessary. The nurse responds:

a)

Newborns receive too much Vitamin K at birth.

b)

It promotes lung maturity.

c)

It prevents bleeding because newborns have low natural Vitamin K.

d)

It helps regulate newborn temperature.

24.

A newborn exposed to maternal opioid use displays jitteriness, diarrhea, and excessive crying. This indicates:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Sepsis

c)

Neonatal abstinence syndrome

d)

Hyperbilirubinemia

25.

What is the purpose of the Finnegan neonatal abstinence scoring system?

a)

Assess feeding readiness

b)

Evaluate withdrawal severity

c)

Measure gestational age

d)

Determine oxygen needs

26.

Which newborn behavior indicates NAS? Select all that apply.

a)

Excessive/frantic sucking

b)

Skin mottling

c)

Dysmature swallowing

d)

Weak cry only

e)

Apnea

27.

Which maternal medication class can also cause NAS?

a)

Steroids

b)

SSRIs

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Prenatal vitamins

28.

A newborn experiencing caffeine/nicotine withdrawal will likely be:

a)

Difficult to console

b)

Flaccid

c)

Very sleepy

d)

Unable to feed

29.

Which newborn assessment finding indicates increased risk for infection?

a)

Warm skin

b)

Normal tone

c)

Meconium-stained fluid at birth

d)

Pink mucous membranes

30.

A newborn has a temp of 97.7°F. What should the nurse do?

a)

Document as normal

b)

Notify the provider

c)

Start antibiotics

d)

Immediately move to NICU

31.

A nurse suspects respiratory distress syndrome. Which early sign is expected?

a)

Grunting

b)

Regular respirations

c)

Quiet breathing

d)

Pink tone without effort

32.

Which interventions help maintain airway patency in preterm infants? Select all that apply.

a)

CPAP

b)

Intubation if needed

c)

Side-lying with neck flexed

d)

Prone only

e)

Suctioning as needed

33.

A newborn of diabetic mother has poor latch and jitteriness. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Start formula

b)

Check blood glucose

c)

Give naloxone

d)

Administer Vitamin K early

34.

Which infant is MOST at risk for developing NEC?

a)

Term infant

b)

Preterm infant

c)

LGA infant

d)

Infant with Hep B exposure

35.

A postpartum mother asks why her baby needs erythromycin ointment. The best response:

a)

To prevent blindness from gonorrhea exposure.

b)

To help the eyes stay moist.

c)

To help your baby see clearly.

d)

It helps prevent jaundice.

36.

Which intervention helps reduce bilirubin levels during phototherapy?

a)

Applying warm blankets

b)

Increasing feeding frequency

c)

Lowering the lights

d)

Stopping intake for 4 hours

37.

The nurse should advise parents to keep the umbilical cord exposed by:

a)

Covering it with the diaper

b)

Turning the diaper down

c)

Applying ointment daily

d)

Using baby powder

38.

A newborn’s diaper area appears red with the first signs of rash. What should the nurse recommend?

a)

Baby powder

b)

Zinc oxide ointment

c)

Hydrogen peroxide

d)

Scrubbing the area during each change

39.

How often should a newborn’s diaper be changed?

a)

Every 6 hours

b)

Every 1–3 hours

c)

Every 8 hours

d)

Only when the baby cries

40.

Parents ask how to clean their baby girl during diaper changes. The nurse instructs:

a)

Back to front

b)

Side to side

c)

Front to back

d)

In circular motions

41.

Which instruction should the nurse give regarding umbilical cord care?

a)

Keep cord covered with diaper

b)

Turn diaper down to expose cord

c)

Apply baby lotion daily

d)

Remove stump after 3 days

42.

Which finding requires provider notification during circumcision recovery?

a)

Yellow crust over glans

b)

Red, warm, swollen penis with drainage

c)

Small amount of bleeding

d)

Mild fussiness

43.

Which is an appropriate parent teaching after circumcision? Select all that apply.

a)

Apply petroleum jelly to gauze

b)

Leave yellow crusting alone

c)

Clean with alcohol wipes

d)

Check for bleeding every 4 hours for first 24 hours

e)

Remove any loosened parts of the Plastibell ring

44.

Which statement by the parent of a Plastibell circumcised infant requires further teaching?

a)

I won’t apply any lubricants.

b)

The ring should fall off by itself.

c)

I will pull off the ring if it’s still attached after 3 days.

d)

I won’t try to remove any crusting.

45.

A parent reports swelling and redness at the circumcision site 24 hours after a Gomco procedure. The nurse should:

a)

Tell them this is normal

b)

Tell them to wash crusts off

c)

Tell them to notify provider immediately

d)

Remove the dressing

46.

Which parent statement about colic indicates correct understanding?

a)

I should give extra formula.

b)

I’ll keep a journal of feeding and crying patterns.

c)

I’ll try different medications every day.

d)

Crying always means my baby is in danger.

47.

On average, newborns display hunger cues approximately:

a)

5 minutes before crying

b)

10 minutes before crying

c)

30 minutes before crying

d)

Right when they cry

48.

Which are examples of newborn hunger cues? Select all that apply.

a)

Rooting

b)

Smacking lips

c)

Drooling

d)

Yawning

e)

Sneezing

49.

The nurse is teaching newborn sleep safety. Which statement from the parent shows understanding?

a)

I’ll keep soft blankets in the crib.

b)

I’ll place the baby on a firm surface made for infants.

c)

My baby can share our bed to feel secure.

d)

I’ll use a sleep positioner.

50.

Which environment promotes safe sleep for the newborn?

a)

Loose bedding

b)

Decorative pillows

c)

No objects in crib

d)

Soft mattress

51.

Which parent statement demonstrates correct understanding of room-sharing?

a)

The baby should sleep in the same bed as me.

b)

The baby should sleep in our room for at least 6 months.

c)

The baby can sleep on my chest all night.

d)

Room-sharing causes dependency.

52.

The nurse teaches parents proper swaddling. Which instruction is correct?

a)

Swaddle tightly around hips

b)

Leave at least 2–3 fingers at the chest

c)

Swaddle until 6 months

d)

Use heavy blankets only

53.

Swaddling should be discontinued when:

a)

The infant weighs 10 lbs

b)

The infant smiles

c)

The infant can roll front to back

d)

After 1 year of age

54.

Which risk is associated with improper swaddling?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Hip dysplasia

c)

Obesity

d)

Febrile seizures

55.

Newborns should receive sponge baths until when?

a)

1 week of age

b)

They begin crawling

c)

The umbilical cord stump falls off

d)

They reach 8 lbs

56.

Which instruction is appropriate during a newborn bath?

a)

Clean eyes outer to inner

b)

Clean eyes inner to outer

c)

Use Q-tips in ears

d)

Bathe in cool room

57.

Which action helps reduce newborn heat loss during a bath?

a)

Bathing for 15–20 minutes

b)

Bathing in a warm, draft-free environment

c)

Leaving baby uncovered

d)

Using room-temperature water

58.

What is the recommended bath duration to prevent heat loss?

a)

1–2 minutes

b)

15–20 minutes

c)

5–10 minutes

d)

20–30 minutes

59.

Which is appropriate newborn bathing education? Select all that apply.

a)

Keep baby warm throughout

b)

Leave circumcision exudate alone

c)

Use mild cleanser

d)

Use Q-tips to clean nose and ears

e)

Bathe in a draft-free room

60.

Which ethnic groups have genetic tendencies toward hyperbilirubinemia? Select all that apply.

a)

American Indian

b)

East Asian

c)

Mediterranean descent

d)

African American

e)

Scandinavian

61.

The nurse recognizes a newborn at high risk for NEC when assessing a:

a)

Term infant with meconium

b)

Preterm infant with immature gut

c)

Post-term infant

d)

LGA infant

62.

For a newborn suspected of NEC, the nurse should monitor for which symptoms?

a)

Frequent stools

b)

Abdominal distention and vomiting

c)

Excessive rooting

d)

Mottled skin only

63.

Which newborn assessment finding indicates normal GI function?

a)

Bowel sounds present within first hour

b)

No bowel sounds for 3 hours

c)

Visible peristalsis

d)

Rectal bleeding

64.

The nurse prepares for newborn metabolic screening. Which statement is true?

a)

Blood is drawn from the thigh

b)

Baby must have eaten before screening

c)

Baby must be asleep

d)

Test must be done before 12 hours of age

65.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding newborn tear production?

a)

Tears should be present at birth

b)

Tears develop by 2 months

c)

Absence of tears is a sign of dehydration

d)

Tears develop immediately after first feeding

66.

Which newborn weight loss percentage is considered NORMAL in the first week?

a)

0–2%

b)

3–4%

c)

5–10%

d)

15–20%

67.

Which newborns are at risk for hypothermia? Select all that apply.

a)

SGA infants

b)

Post-term infants

c)

Infants with wet blankets

d)

Infants in warm, draft-free rooms

e)

Infants not dried after birth

68.

Which action should the nurse take when caring for a newborn under a radiant warmer?

a)

Keep the baby uncovered completely

b)

Cluster care to minimize heat loss

c)

Turn off warmer between checks

d)

Use cold stethoscope for accuracy

69.

A newborn with suspected infection shows which EARLY sign?

a)

High-pitched cry

b)

Fever

c)

Low temperature

d)

Projectile vomiting

70.

Which factor increases the newborn’s risk for sepsis?

a)

Maternal Rh compatibility

b)

PROM

c)

Scheduled c-section

d)

Term gestation

71.

A newborn exposed to meconium-stained fluid is at risk for:

a)

Hypothermia

b)

Persistent pulmonary hypertension

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hyperbilirubinemia only

72.

Which finding indicates respiratory distress requiring intervention?

a)

Mild crackles

b)

Acrocyanosis

c)

Nasal flaring

d)

Soft grunting during sleep

73.

Which newborn condition warrants suctioning with a bulb syringe?

a)

Clear crying

b)

Strong, vigorous breathing

c)

Difficult clearing airway

d)

Pink skin tone

74.

Which finding is associated with neonatal hypoglycemia?

a)

Quiet alert state

b)

Hypotonia

c)

Jitteriness

d)

Strong cry

75.

A newborn with PDA will most likely present with:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Murmur

c)

Sunken fontanel

d)

Absent pulses

76.

Which condition places the newborn at high risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

a)

Term birth

b)

Excess surfactant

c)

Prematurity

d)

Prolonged pregnancy

77.

What is the nurse’s FIRST action for a term newborn showing difficulty breathing?

a)

Give IV fluids

b)

Suction airway

c)

Prepare for transport

d)

Start chest compressions

78.

Which baby is MOST likely to require CPAP support?

a)

40-week infant

b)

Preterm infant

c)

LGA infant

d)

Post-term infant

79.

Which action helps prevent skin injury in preterm infants requiring respiratory support?

a)

Frequent use of adhesive tape

b)

Minimal use of adhesives

c)

Leaving CPAP straps in place for 48 hours

d)

Removing humidity support

80.

Which baby is at highest risk for clavicle fracture?

a)

3200g infant

b)

SGA infant

c)

4200g infant

d)

Preterm infant

81.

A newborn with a fractured clavicle will show which sign?

a)

Symmetric Moro reflex

b)

Diminished movement on affected side

c)

Strong palmar grasp

d)

Bounding pulses

82.

Which newborn assessment is a PRIORITY when suspecting clavicle fracture?

a)

Inspect fontanel

b)

Palpate clavicles

c)

Measure head circumference

d)

Check suck reflex

83.

Which newborn needs an urgent feeding assessment?

a)

Weight loss of 4%

b)

Latching for short periods

c)

Weight loss of 11%

d)

Cluster feeding

84.

Which newborn test evaluates metabolic and genetic disorders?

a)

APGAR

b)

Ballard

c)

Newborn screening test

d)

Finnegan

85.

Where is the heel stick for newborn screening performed?

a)

Center of heel

b)

Lateral or medial heel surface

c)

Arch of foot

d)

Ankle

86.

Which is TRUE about newborn voiding and stooling?

a)

Urine output may take up to 72 hours

b)

Baby should void within 24 hours

c)

Baby should stool within 48 hours

d)

No stool until day 3 is normal

87.

A depressed fontanel is associated with:

a)

Overhydration

b)

Dehydration

c)

Hydrocephalus

d)

Hypoglycemia

88.

Crackles heard 2 hours after birth indicate:

a)

RDS

b)

Normal lung clearing

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Meconium aspiration

89.

Which skin finding is NORMAL in a post-term infant?

a)

Smooth skin

b)

Dry, cracked, peeling skin

c)

Heavy vernix

d)

Moist, shiny skin

90.

Which newborn should receive erythromycin eye prophylaxis?

a)

All newborns unless parents decline

b)

Only preterm infants

c)

Only symptomatic infants

d)

Only infants of GBS+ mothers

91.

Which newborn medication is given IM shortly after birth to prevent bleeding?

a)

Hepatitis B vaccine

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Surfactant

d)

Naloxone

92.

Infants of diabetic mothers are at increased risk for which respiratory complication?

a)

Laryngomalacia

b)

Persistent pulmonary hypertension

c)

Respiratory distress syndrome

d)

Chronic lung disease

93.

Which is a sign of persistent pulmonary hypertension?

a)

Easy feeding

b)

Tachypnea

c)

Loud cry

d)

Pink extremities

94.

A newborn with PPHN will show symptoms within:

a)

Immediately after birth

b)

6 hours

c)

12 hours

d)

3 days

95.

Which sign indicates neonatal abstinence syndrome?

a)

Regular feeding pattern

b)

Excessive crying

c)

No rooting

d)

Absence of reflexes

96.

Which maternal factor can increase bilirubin in the newborn?

a)

Oxytocin use in labor

b)

IV fluids

c)

Epidural

d)

Acetaminophen

97.

What is the priority nursing intervention during phototherapy?

a)

Cover eyes with shields

b)

Stop feeds

c)

Remove diaper only during diaper changes

d)

Place lights 24–30 inches away

98.

Which infant position helps reduce respiratory distress?

a)

Flat supine

b)

Slightly elevated head

c)

Trendelenburg

d)

Full prone

99.

Which finding in a newborn is expected after circumcision?

a)

Profuse bleeding

b)

Yellow crusted area

c)

Foul-smelling drainage

d)

Thick green discharge

100.

Which finding indicates the Plastibell circumcision is healing correctly?

a)

Ring falls off on its own within a week

b)

Ring falls off day 1

c)

Parent removes the ring manually

d)

Uses lubricant around the ring