WorksheetsGCC Mock Test 5
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A client is being discharged from the hospital. The client has an unsteady gait and has weakness in the right leg. What assistive device would be most appropriate for the client?
a)
Quad cane.
b)
Single straight-legged cane.
c)
Walker.
d)
Lofstrand crutches.
e)
-
2.
Which of the following client statements indicates a need for additional teaching about selfcare during pregnancy?
a)
I should use nonskid pads when I take a shower or bath.
b)
I should avoid using soap on my nipples to prevent drying.
c)
I should sit in a hot tub for 20 minutes to relax after working.
d)
I should avoid douching even if my vaginal secretions increase.
e)
-
3.
The patient's intake and output record contains the following information: milk, 180 ml; orange juice, 60 ml; one serving scrambled eggs; one slice toast; one can Ensure oral nutritional supplement, 240 ml; I.V. dextrose 5% in water at 100 mL/hour; 50 ml water after twice daily medications. Medications are given at 9:00 a.m. and 9:00 p.m. What is the patient's total intake for the 7 a.m. to 3 p.m. shift?
a)
1,000 mL
b)
1,250 mL
c)
1,330 mL
d)
1,380 mL
e)
-
4.
A client with breast cancer is returned to the room following a right total mastectomy. The nurse should:
a)
Elevate the client's right arm on pillows
b)
Place the client's right arm in a dependent sling
c)
Keep the client's right arm on the bed beside her
d)
Place the client's right arm across her body
e)
-
5.
The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client. The nurse asks the client to flex the neck. The neck flexion results in flexion of the hip and knee which is known as Brudzinski's sign.Which condition is associated with Brudzinski's sign?
a)
Meningitis.
b)
Peritonsillar abscess.
c)
Pharyngitis.
d)
Rhinosinusitis.
e)
-
6.
The nurse is monitoring a client following a lung resection. The hourly output from the chest tube was 300mL. The nurse should give priority to:
a)
Turning the client to the left side
b)
Milking the tube to ensure patency
c)
Slowing the intravenous infusion
d)
Notifying the physician
e)
-
7.
The nurse studies an electrocardiogram (EKG) and notices a U-wave. The nurse suspects that this is caused by:
a)
Hypermagnesemia.
b)
Hypocalcemia.
c)
Hypokalemia.
d)
Hyponatremia.
e)
-
8.
The nurse cares for client who is status post lung transplant. The client has a double thoracotomy incision. Which drug may impair healing of the incision?
a)
Corticosteriod (Dexamethasone).
b)
Furosemide (Lasix).
c)
Potassium (K-Dur).
d)
Docusate sodium (Colace).
e)
-
9.
The client is admitted to the unit after a motor vehicle accident with a temperature of 102ºF rectally. The nurse is aware that the most likely explanation for the elevated temperature is:
a)
There was damage to the hypothalamus.
b)
He has an infection from the abrasions to the head and face.
c)
He will require a cooling blanket to decrease the temperature.
d)
There was damage to the frontal lobe of the brain.
e)
-
10.
The nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client with elevated cholesterol levels. Which cooking oil is not suggested for the client on a low-cholesterol diet?
a)
Safflower oil
b)
Sunflower oil
c)
Coconut oil
d)
Canola oil
e)
-
11.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a blood pressure of 85/53 mm Hg and is complaining of light-headedness and near syncope. The client's current medications include carvedilol (Coreg), amiodarone (Cordarone), warfarin (Coumadin), lanoxin (Digoxin), furosemide (Lasix), potassium (K-Dur), and a daily vitamin. The client also reports using both St. John's wort and cat's claw. Based upon this information, what is the nurse's best action?
a)
Notify the physician immediately reporting the client is critically ill and needs transfer to the ICU.
b)
Notify the physician that the client's use of cat's claw may interact with some of the other heart medications that the client is taking, resulting in hypotension.
c)
Notify the physician that the client's use of St. John's wort may interact with the diuretic the client is taking, resulting in light-headedness.
d)
Notify the physician that the client's use of cat's claw may interact with the anticoagulant the client is taking, resulting in near syncope.
e)
-
12.
A secondary latency phase that occurs in some diseases that is commonly followed by another acute phase is referred to as:
a)
remission.
b)
convalescence.
c)
the acute phase.
d)
the subclinical acute phase.
e)
-
13.
An elderly client comes to the physician's office with complaints of sleep deprivation.What is the best action the nurse can take to help the client promote sleep?
a)
Provide the client with a free gym membership trial.
b)
Recommend the client take a mid-afternoon nap.
c)
Instruct the client to decrease oral fluids 2 to 4 hours before bedtime.
d)
Encourage the client to sleep later in the morning.
e)
-
14.
The nurse is teaching the parents of an infant with osteogenesis imperfecta. The nurse should explain the need for:
a)
Additional calcium in the infant's diet
b)
Careful handling to prevent fractures
c)
Providing extra sensorimotor stimulation
d)
Frequent testing of visual function
e)
-
15.
For which client would the use of acetaminophen (Tylenol) pose a higher risk?
a)
A 42-year-old female who abuses cocaine.
b)
A 54-year-old male who abuses alcohol.
c)
A 23-year-old female who has asthma.
d)
A 34-year-old male with sickle-cell anemia.
e)
-
16.
The client is having fetal heart rates of 100-110bpm during the contractions. The first action the nurse should take is:
a)
Reassess the fetal heart tones in 15 minutes
b)
Turn the client to her left side
c)
Get the client up and walk her in the hall
d)
Move the client to the delivery room
e)
-
17.
Which of the following play activities is most developmentally appropriate for the toddler?
a)
Watching cartoons
b)
Pulling a toy wagon
c)
Watching a mobile
d)
Coloring with crayons in a coloring book
e)
-
18.
The nurse cares for a client who recently underwent surgery to create a stoma for colostomy. The nurse notes that the stoma is dark and dusky in color.What action should the nurse immediately take?
a)
Notify the physician.
b)
Change the ostomy bag.
c)
Irrigate the colostomy.
d)
Remove the ostomy bag.
e)
-
19.
A nurse working in a Planned Parenthood clinic routinely asks clients about experiencing possible domestic violence. The advantage of this line of questioning is that it:
a)
Alienates victims of abuse, thus increasing cooperation with members of the health care team.
b)
Assists the local police in maintaining local inmate populations.
c)
Assures that the truth is revealed.
d)
Maintains the safety of women experiencing domestic violence.
e)
-
20.
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is being treated with daily steroid medication. Which food should the client avoid?
a)
Raw oysters
b)
Cottage cheese
c)
Baked chicken
d)
Green beans
e)
-
21.
A patient with a gunshot wound requires an emergency blood transfusion. His blood type is AB Rh-negative. Which blood type would be the safest for him to receive?
a)
AB Rh-positive
b)
A Rh-positive
c)
A Rh-negative
d)
O Rh-positive
e)
-
22.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of hypothyroidism. An initial assessment of the client would reveal:
a)
Slow pulse rate, weight loss, diarrhea, and cardiac failure
b)
Weight gain, lethargy, slowed speech, and decreased respiratory rate
c)
Rapid pulse, constipation, and bulging eyes
d)
Decreased body temperature, weight loss, and increased respirations
e)
-
23.
Which one of the following factors has the greatest influence on the recovery and sobriety of a client with a chemical addiction?
a)
The family's understanding of the client's addiction
b)
The quality of the treatment program and follow-up
c)
The client's own desire to become drug-free
d)
The nursing staff's attitude toward addiction
e)
-
24.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a reassuring fetal heart rate pattern?
a)
A fetal heart rate of 170-180bpm
b)
A baseline variability of 25-35bpm
c)
Ominous periodic changes
d)
Acceleration of FHR with fetal movements
e)
-
25.
Which of the following recommendations would be most helpful to suggest to a primigravid client at 37 weeks' gestation who is complaining of leg cramps?
a)
Change positions frequently throughout the day.
b)
Alternately flex and extend the legs.
c)
Straighten the knee and flex the toes toward the chin.
d)
Lie prone in bed with the legs elevated.
e)
-
26.
After administering hydralazine (Apresoline) 5 mg intravenously as ordered for a primigravid client with severe preeclampsia at 39 weeks' gestation, the nurse should assess the client for:
a)
Tachycardia.
b)
Bradypnea.
c)
Polyuria.
d)
Dysphagia.
e)
-
27.
A patient, age 58, is admitted with complaints of anorexia, weight loss, and general body wasting. After a diagnostic workup, he is diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of Addison's disease?
a)
Release of adrenocortical hormones is increased.
b)
Release of adrenocortical hormones is decreased.
c)
Release of adrenal medullary hormones is decreased.
d)
A tumor develops in the adrenal gland.
e)
-
28.
If the nurse is unable to illicit the deep tendon reflexes of the patella, the nurse should ask the client to:
a)
Pull against the palms
b)
Grimace the facial muscles
c)
Cross the legs at the ankles
d)
Perform Valsalva maneuver
e)
-
29.
The physician has ordered that the client's medication be administered intrathecally. The nurse is aware that medications will be administered by which method?
a)
Intravenously
b)
Rectally
c)
Intramuscularly
d)
Into the cerebrospinal fluid
e)
-
30.
Sensitive and skilled end-of-life care for clients and family members is critical for gerontological family nurses. Which is a common concern for clients and families experiencing the end of life?
a)
Communication about relationships.
b)
Making preparations for the living.
c)
Maintaining public identity.
d)
Management of symptoms.
e)
-
31.
The chart indicates that a client has expressive aphasia following a stroke. The nurse understands that the client will have difficulty with:
a)
Speaking and writing
b)
Comprehending spoken words
c)
Carrying out purposeful motor activity
d)
Recognizing and using an object correctly
e)
-
32.
Which of the following laboratory results would cause the most concern in the immunosuppressed client?
a)
A sodium level of 50mg/dL
b)
A blood glucose of 110mg/dl
c)
A platelet count of 100,000/cu mm
d)
A white cell count of 5,000/cu mm
e)
-
33.
An 82-year-old female client who recently relocated to the United States from a small Caribbean island is treated for a laceration to the right forearm. The physician orders both tetanus immune globulin human (Baytet) (TIG), and diptheriatetanus (DT).Which is a true statement regarding this client's medication care?
a)
Tetanus immune globulin, human, provides active immunity for the patient.
b)
Diptheria-tetanus (DT) provides passive immunity for this patient.
c)
The TIG and the diptheria-tetanus should be given in opposite arms.
d)
Other vaccinations can be given once a week after receiving these medications.
e)
-
34.
While monitoring a patient's cardiac rhythm, the nurse observes seven multifocal premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on a 1-minute rhythm strip. What should the nurse do first?
a)
Change the ECG leads.
b)
Administer lidocaine as prescribed.
c)
Continue to monitor the patient.
d)
Have the patient change position.
e)
-
35.
The patient is prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl) for adjunct treatment for a duodenal ulcer. When teaching about this medication, the nurse would say:
a)
This medication should be taken only until you begin to feel better.
b)
This medication should be taken on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
c)
While taking this medication, you do not have to be concerned about being in the sun.
d)
While taking this medication, alcoholic beverages and products containing alcohol should be avoided.
e)
-
36.
Which of the following statements reflects Kohlberg's theory of the moral development of the preschool-age child?
a)
Obeying adults is seen as correct behavior.
b)
Showing respect for parents is seen as important.
c)
Pleasing others is viewed as good behavior.
d)
Behavior is determined by consequences.
e)
-
37.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of hypothyroidism. An initial assessment of the client would reveal:
a)
Slow pulse rate, weight loss, diarrhea, and cardiac failure
b)
Weight gain, lethargy, slowed speech, and decreased respiratory rate
c)
Rapid pulse, constipation, and bulging eyes
d)
Decreased body temperature, weight loss, and increased respirations
e)
-
38.
A client in sickle cell crisis has been hospitalized during her pregnancy. After giving discharge instructions, the nurse determines the client needs further teaching when she states which of the following?
a)
I will need more frequent appointments during the remainder of the pregnancy.
b)
Signs of any type of infection must be reported immediately.
c)
At the earliest signs of a crisis, I need to seek treatment.
d)
I have this disease because I don't eat enough food with iron.
e)
-
39.
A client receiving an injection of morphine requests "my buttocks be used for the injection." The nurse explains that this site is not preferred because it is in close proximity to:
a)
The femoral nerve.
b)
The peroneal nerve.
c)
The phrenic nerve.
d)
The sciatic nerve.
e)
-
40.
A client is hospitalized with hepatitis A. Which of the client's regular medications is contraindicated due to the current illness?
a)
Prilosec (omeprazole)
b)
Synthroid (levothyroxine)
c)
Premarin (conjugated estrogens)
d)
Lipitor (atorvastatin)
e)
-
41.
The nurse provides education to a client after the client receives an initial external beam radiation treatment for melanoma. The nurse should instruct the client to:
a)
Avoid close contact with others for at least 2 weeks to reduce exposure to radiation.
b)
Apply cold to the irradiated area to decrease discomfort.
c)
Wash off all body markings applied by the radiologist.
d)
Limit the use of creams or lotions to those approved by the oncologist.
e)
-
42.
A client who delivered this morning tells the nurse that she plans to breastfeed her baby. The nurse is aware that successful breastfeeding is most dependent on the:
a)
Mother's educational level
b)
Infant's birth weight
c)
Size of the mother's breast
d)
Mother's desire to breastfeed
e)
-
43.
The physician has ordered a straight catheterization for a female client. When performing a straight catheterization on a female client, the nurse should:
a)
Use medical asepsis when doing the catheterization
b)
Insert the catheter 4-6 inches
c)
Inflate and deflate the balloon before insertion
d)
Hold the catheter in place while the bladder empties
e)
-
44.
A patient with peptic ulcer disease secondary to chronic NSAID use is prescribed misoprostol (Cytotec). The nurse would be most accurate in informing the patient that the drug:
a)
reduces the stomach's volume of hydrochloric acid.
b)
increases the speed of gastric emptying.
c)
protects the stomach's lining.
d)
increases LES pressure.
e)
-
45.
A nurse working in a Planned Parenthood clinic routinely asks clients about experiencing possible domestic violence. The advantage of this line of questioning is that it:
a)
Alienates victims of abuse, thus increasing cooperation with members of the health care team.
b)
Assists the local police in maintaining local inmate populations.
c)
Assures that the truth is revealed.
d)
Maintains the safety of women experiencing domestic violence.
e)
-
46.
An elderly patient has a wound that is not healing normally. Interventions should be based on which principle or test results?
a)
Laboratory test results
b)
Kidney function test results
c)
Poor wound healing, which is expected as part of the aging process
d)
Diminished immune functioning that interferes with the ability to fight infection
e)
-
47.
When developing the teaching plan for a primigravid client at 30 weeks' gestation diagnosed with mild preeclampsia who is being treated at home, which of the following would the nurse identify as the most appropriate client-centered goal?
a)
Return visit to the prenatal clinic in approximately 4 weeks.
b)
Decreased edema after 1 week of a lowprotein, low-fiber diet.
c)
Bed rest on the left side during the day, with bathroom privileges.
d)
Immediate reporting of adverse reactions to magnesium sulfate therapy.
e)
-
48.
After administering hydralazine (Apresoline) 5 mg intravenously as ordered for a primigravid client with severe preeclampsia at 39 weeks' gestation, the nurse should assess the client for:
a)
Tachycardia.
b)
Bradypnea.
c)
Polyuria.
d)
Dysphagia.
e)
-
49.
Many facilities allow the client's family to be present during resuscitative efforts of the client.What is the advantage to having family present during resuscitation of a client?
a)
The client's obstruction of the grieving process.
b)
The client's denial of death.
c)
The family's feelings of helplessness.
d)
The family's recognition that the client is dying.
e)
-
50.
A child with cystic fibrosis takes pancreatic enzymes with each of his meals and between meal snacks. Which finding indicates that the prescribed amount of pancreatic replacement is adequate?
a)
Improved respiratory function
b)
Decreased sodium excretion
c)
Increased weight
d)
Decreased chloride excretion
e)
-
51.
A patient with a gunshot wound requires an emergency blood transfusion. His blood type is AB Rh-negative. Which blood type would be the safest for him to receive?
a)
AB Rh-positive
b)
A Rh-positive
c)
A Rh-negative
d)
O Rh-positive
e)
-
52.
The nurse is caring for a client with a head injury who has increased ICP. The physician plans to reduce the cerebral edema by constricting the cerebral blood vessels. Which of the following would accomplish this action?
a)
Hyperventilation per mechanical ventilation
b)
Insertion of a ventricular shunt
c)
Furosemide (Lasix)
d)
Dexamethasone (Decadron)
e)
-
53.
A client tells the nurse, "There's no point in quitting cigarette smoking at my age. I have smoked for 40 years." The nurse:
a)
Understands that this is accurate since the client already has pulmonary disease.
b)
Tells the client that the progression of pulmonary disease may be halted with smoking cessation.
c)
Encourages the client to switch to smokeless tobacco use.
d)
Discusses the combination of pulmonary diseases that are the result of cigarette smoking.
e)
-
54.
An intravenous infusion of normal saline is ordered at 150 milliliters per hour. Using tubing that has a drip rate factor of 15, how many drops per minute should the nurse deliver?
a)
15 drops.
b)
20 drops.
c)
24 drops.
d)
38 drops.
e)
-
55.
A client with a total hip replacement requires special equipment. Which equipment would assist the client with a total hip replacement with prevention of dislocation of the prosthesis?
a)
An abduction pillow
b)
A straight chair
c)
A pair of crutches
d)
A soft mattress
e)
-
56.
The nurse is obtaining a history of an 80-year-old client. Which statement made by the client might indicate a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance?
a)
My skin is always so dry.
b)
I often use a laxative for constipation.
c)
I have always liked to drink a lot of ice tea.
d)
I sometimes have a problem with dribbling urine.
e)
-
57.
A client with congestive heart failure loses 4.1kg while hospitalized. The client's weight loss is approximately:
a)
2 pounds
b)
4 pounds
c)
7 pounds
d)
9 pounds
e)
-
58.
A patient, age 63, is resuscitated successfully after cardiac arrest. Blood studies show he is acidotic—a common finding in patients who have suffered cardiac arrest. What is the most likely explanation for the acidic serum pH?
a)
Decreased tissue perfusion causes lactic acid production.
b)
The patient typically has an irregular heartbeat.
c)
The patient was treated inappropriately with sodium bicarbonate.
d)
Fat-forming ketoacids are broken down.
e)
-
59.
A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency room with a piece of metal in his eye. Which action by the nurse is correct?
a)
Use a magnet to remove the object.
b)
Rinse the eye thoroughly with saline.
c)
Cover both eyes with paper cups.
d)
Patch the affected eye only.
e)
-
60.
An obese 36-year-old multigravid client at 12 weeks' gestation has a history of chronic hypertension. She was treated with methyldopa (Aldomet) before becoming pregnant. When counseling the client about diet during pregnancy, the nurse realizes that the client needs additional instruction when she states which of the following?
a)
I need to reduce my caloric intake to 1,200 calories a day.
b)
A regular diet is recommended during pregnancy.
c)
I should eat more frequent meals if I get heartburn.
d)
I need to consume more fluids and fiber each day.
e)
-
61.
A child with cystic fibrosis takes pancreatic enzymes with each of his meals and between meal snacks. Which finding indicates that the prescribed amount of pancreatic replacement is adequate?
a)
Improved respiratory function
b)
Decreased sodium excretion
c)
Increased weight
d)
Decreased chloride excretion
e)
-
62.
When developing the teaching plan for a primigravid client at 30 weeks' gestation diagnosed with mild preeclampsia who is being treated at home, which of the following would the nurse identify as the most appropriate client-centered goal?
a)
Return visit to the prenatal clinic in approximately 4 weeks.
b)
Decreased edema after 1 week of a lowprotein, low-fiber diet.
c)
Bed rest on the left side during the day, with bathroom privileges.
d)
Immediate reporting of adverse reactions to magnesium sulfate therapy.
e)
-
63.
An antenatal G 2, T 1, P 0, Ab 0, L 1 client is discussing her postpartum plans for birth control with her health care provider. In analyzing the available choices, which of the following factors has the greatest impact on her birth control options?
a)
Satisfaction with prior methods.
b)
Preference of sexual partner.
c)
Breast- or bottle-feeding plan.
d)
History of clotting disease.
e)
-
64.
The nurse is teaching the patient with multiple sclerosis. When teaching the patient how to reduce fatigue, the nurse should tell the patient to:
a)
take a hot bath.
b)
rest in an air-conditioned room.
c)
increase the dose of his muscle relaxant.
d)
avoid naps during the day.
e)
-
65.
The Joint Commission for Accreditation of Hospital Organizations (JCAHO) specifies that two client identifiers are to be used before medication administration. Which method is best for identifying patients using two patient identifiers?
a)
Take the medication administration record (MAR) to the room and compare it with the name and medical number recorded on the armband
b)
Compare the medication administration record (MAR) with the client's room number and name on the armband
c)
Request that a family member identify the client, and then ask the client to state his name
d)
Ask the client to state his full name and then to write his full name
e)
-
66.
The nurse prepares a client for a bedside thoracentesis. The nurse helps the client into a sitting position with a pillow placed on top of the overbed table in front of the client for support. The nurse understands that this is the correct client position for a thoracentesis because:
a)
It is less painful for the client.
b)
It allows for maximal lung expansion.
c)
Fluid will accumulate at the base of the pleural cavity.
d)
There is a risk of a pneumothorax.
e)
-
67.
The nurse notes that a client has a blood pressure of 102/56 mm Hg, pulse of 94 beats/minute, and respiratory rate of 6 breaths/minute. The client is pale, with cyanotic lips and nail beds. The nurse suspects a reaction to medication.Which medication is most likely the cause of these symptoms?
a)
Morphine sulfate (morphine).
b)
Nalmefene (Revex).
c)
Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin).
d)
Methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin).
e)
-
68.
A patient with a gunshot wound requires an emergency blood transfusion. His blood type is AB Rh-negative. Which blood type would be the safest for him to receive?
a)
AB Rh-positive
b)
A Rh-positive
c)
A Rh-negative
d)
O Rh-positive
e)
-
69.
The nurse who works in the emergency department cares for a client who was bitten by a stray cat. Which gram-negative causative organism is found in 75% of cat bite wound infections?
a)
Bacteroides.
b)
Fusobacterium.
c)
Pasteurella.
d)
Prevotella.
e)
-
70.
The physician orders intravenous magnesium sulfate for a primigravid client at 38 weeks' gestation diagnosed with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the nurse have readily available at the client's bedside?
a)
Diazepam (Valium).
b)
Hydralazine (Apresoline).
c)
Calcium gluconate.
d)
Phenytoin (Dilantin).
e)
-
71.
The physician has ordered that the client's medication be administered intrathecally. The nurse is aware that medications will be administered by which method?
a)
Intravenously
b)
Rectally
c)
Intramuscularly
d)
Into the cerebrospinal fluid
e)
-
72.
The nurse is caring for a client with a head injury who has increased ICP. The physician plans to reduce the cerebral edema by constricting the cerebral blood vessels. Which of the following would accomplish this action?
a)
Hyperventilation per mechanical ventilation
b)
Insertion of a ventricular shunt
c)
Furosemide (Lasix)
d)
Dexamethasone (Decadron)
e)
-
73.
Medications used to treat peptic ulcer disease such as ranitidine (Zantac) work by:
a)
neutralizing acid.
b)
reducing acid secretion.
c)
stimulating gastrin release.
d)
protecting the mucosal barrier.
e)
-
74.
An hour after receiving pyridostigmine bromide, a patient reports difficulty swallowing and excessive respiratory secretions. The nurse notifies the physician and prepares to administer which medication?
a)
Additional pyridostigmine bromide
b)
Atropine
c)
Edrophonium
d)
Acyclovir
e)
-
75.
A client with ulcerative colitis has impaired nutrition due to diarrhea. Which diet selection by the client would indicate a need for further teaching about foods that can worsen the diarrhea?
a)
Tossed salad
b)
Baked chicken
c)
Broiled fish
d)
Steamed rice
e)
-
76.
A client has just had a nasogastric tube placed. What is the best method for verifying correct placement of the tube in the stomach?
a)
X-ray.
b)
Gastric aspiration and pH testing.
c)
Auscultation.
d)
Visualization of the tube markings.
e)
-
77.
The physician has prescribed Gantrisin (sulfasoxazole) 1 gram in divided doses for a client with a urinary tract infection. The nurse should administer the medication:
a)
With meals or a snack
b)
30 minutes before meals
c)
30 minutes after meals
d)
At bedtime
e)
-
78.
The physician has prescribed Cognex (tacrine) for a client with dementia. The nurse should monitor the client for adverse reactions, which include:
a)
Hypoglycemia
b)
Jaundice
c)
Urinary retention
d)
Tinnitus
e)
-
79.
If the nurse is unable to illicit the deep tendon reflexes of the patella, the nurse should ask the client to:
a)
Pull against the palms
b)
Grimace the facial muscles
c)
Cross the legs at the ankles
d)
Perform Valsalva maneuver
e)
-
80.
During an initial morning assessment, a client appears to be hallucinating; complaining about "bugs on the wall" and "the dog that ran under the bed." The nurse reorients the client to person, place, and time and the client demonstrates good recall of the information. After the client receives the morning medications, the hallucinations begin again. The nurse notifies the physician that the client's hallucinations returned shortly after the medications were administered. The physician requests the nurse to call the clinical pharmacist to evaluate the client's medication list for a possible medication source of the hallucinations. The actions of the nurse resulted in:
a)
Delegation of responsibility.
b)
Medication error prevention.
c)
Establishing client care priorities.
d)
Consultation to the appropriate multidisciplinary team member for further client evaluation and treatment.
e)
-
81.
A 2-year-old client has an order for instillation of antipyrine and benzocaine otic (Auralgan) into the external ear canal. Which action by the nurse is correct?
a)
Pull the ear backward and down.
b)
Pull the ear upward and in.
c)
Pull the ear backward and up.
d)
Pull the ear upward and lateral.
e)
-
82.
The nurse who works in the emergency department cares for a client who was bitten by a stray cat. Which gram-negative causative organism is found in 75% of cat bite wound infections?
a)
Bacteroides.
b)
Fusobacterium.
c)
Pasteurella.
d)
Prevotella.
e)
-
83.
The nurse is assessing a multigravida, 36 weeks gestation for symptoms of pregnancy-induced hypertension and preeclampsia. The nurse should give priority to assessing the client for:
a)
Facial swelling
b)
Pulse deficits
c)
Ankle edema
d)
Diminished reflexes
e)
-
84.
The client is having fetal heart rates of 100-110bpm during the contractions. The first action the nurse should take is:
a)
Reassess the fetal heart tones in 15 minutes
b)
Turn the client to her left side
c)
Get the client up and walk her in the hall
d)
Move the client to the delivery room
e)
-
85.
A client undergoes hip replacement surgery and requires assistance to ambulate. The client needs to use the bathroom, but the call light has been left out of reach rendering the client unable to summon staff for assistance. Which client right is violated?
a)
The right to participate in the plan of care and treatment decisions.
b)
The right to freedom from unreasonable restraint.
c)
The right to privacy.
d)
The right to considerate and respectful care.
e)
-
86.
A nurse is assessing a client hospitalized with peptic ulcer disease. Which finding should be reported to the charge nurse immediately?
a)
BP 82/60, pulse 120
b)
Pulse 68, respirations 24
c)
BP 110/88, pulse 56
d)
Pulse 82, respirations 16
e)
-
87.
The nurse is caring for a client with an opportunistic infection of the central nervous system. The nurse knows that opportunistic infections affecting the central nervous system are extremely likely once the CD4 count drops below which level?
a)
< 50/mm3.
b)
< 75/mm3.
c)
> 200/mm3.
d)
> 200/mm3.
e)
-
88.
The client is receiving peritoneal dialysis. If the dialysate returns cloudy, the nurse should:
a)
Document the finding
b)
Send a specimen to the lab
c)
Strain the urine
d)
Obtain a complete blood count
e)
-
89.
The nurse is caring for a 22-year-old G 2, P 2 client who has disseminated intravascular coagulation after delivering a dead fetus. Which findings are the highest priority to report to the health care provider?
a)
Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) of 30 seconds.
b)
Hemoglobin of 11.5 g/dL.
c)
Urinary output of 25 mL in the past hour.
d)
Platelets at 149,000/mm3.
e)
-
90.
A patient, age 48, is recovering from an MI. When preparing him for discharge, the nurse should include all of the following instructions except:
a)
Avoid extremes of heat and cold.
b)
Monitor your pulse during physical activity.
c)
Eat several small meals each day.
d)
Lift weights daily to strengthen your arms.
e)
-
91.
A client's potassium level is 5.38 mEq/L. Which drug should the nurse expect the physician to order?
a)
Furosemide (Lasix).
b)
Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).
c)
Potassium (K-Dur).
d)
Magnesium citrate (Citroma).
e)
-
92.
A client starts filgrastim (Neupogen) injections 11 days after completing a course of chemotherapy. Which lab value indicates the neupogen is effective?
a)
Absolute neutrophil count 1100/mm3.
b)
Absolute neutrophil count 750/mm3.
c)
Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
d)
Hemoglobin 6.5 g/dL.
e)
-
93.
A secondary latency phase that occurs in some diseases that is commonly followed by another acute phase is referred to as:
a)
remission.
b)
convalescence.
c)
the acute phase.
d)
the subclinical acute phase.
e)
-
94.
The client is having fetal heart rates of 100-110bpm during the contractions. The first action the nurse should take is:
a)
Reassess the fetal heart tones in 15 minutes
b)
Turn the client to her left side
c)
Get the client up and walk her in the hall
d)
Move the client to the delivery room
e)
-
95.
The influenza vaccine is contraindicated in clients with allergies to which of the following?
a)
Eggs
b)
Shellfish
c)
Iodine
d)
Pork
e)
-
96.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a blood pressure of 85/53 mm Hg and is complaining of light-headedness and near syncope. The client's current medications include carvedilol (Coreg), amiodarone (Cordarone), warfarin (Coumadin), lanoxin (Digoxin), furosemide (Lasix), potassium (K-Dur), and a daily vitamin. The client also reports using both St. John's wort and cat's claw. Based upon this information, what is the nurse's best action?
a)
Notify the physician immediately reporting the client is critically ill and needs transfer to the ICU.
b)
Notify the physician that the client's use of cat's claw may interact with some of the other heart medications that the client is taking, resulting in hypotension.
c)
Notify the physician that the client's use of St. John's wort may interact with the diuretic the client is taking, resulting in light-headedness.
d)
Notify the physician that the client's use of cat's claw may interact with the anticoagulant the client is taking, resulting in near syncope.
e)
-
97.
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results. Serum sodium of 156mEq/L is noted. What changes would the nurse expect the client to exhibit?
a)
Hyporeflexia
b)
Manic behavior
c)
Depression
d)
Muscle cramps
e)
-
98.
A client receives rabies immunization after being bitten by a bat. Which statement is correct?
a)
Active immunity occurs when the rabies immune globulin helps the body build up antibodies.
b)
Passive immunity from the rabies vaccine provides antibodies to inactivate the virus.
c)
Active immunity takes time to increase and is measured by the antibody titer.
d)
Passive immunity requires the client to promote an immune response within the humoral immune system.
e)
-
99.
The nurse cares for client who is status post lung transplant. The client has a double thoracotomy incision. Which drug may impair healing of the incision?
a)
Corticosteriod (Dexamethasone).
b)
Furosemide (Lasix).
c)
Potassium (K-Dur).
d)
Docusate sodium (Colace).
e)
-
100.
A primigravid adolescent client at approximately 15 weeks' gestation who is visiting the prenatal clinic with her mother is to undergo alphafetoprotein (AFP) screening. When developing the teaching plan for this client, the nurse should include which of the following?
a)
Ultrasonography usually accompanies AFP testing.
b)
Results are usually very accurate until 20 weeks' gestation.
c)
A clean-catch midstream urine specimen is needed.
d)
Increased levels of AFP are associated with neural tube defects.
e)
-
100 %
