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NCLEX-Style: Advanced Application Set 1–33

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The nurse reviews a patient's chart: - Serum Na+ 116 mEq/L - Urine specific gravity 1.032 - Complains of headache and confusion. Which order should the nurse question?

a)

Restrict fluids to 800 mL/day

b)

Administer 3% saline 50 mL/hr

c)

Give desmopressin 0.3 mcg IV q12h

d)

Elevate head of bed <10°

2.

A patient receiving IV vasopressin for DI reports chest pain. Which action is priority?

a)

Obtain a 12-lead ECG

b)

Decrease infusion rate

c)

Notify pharmacy

d)

Check urine output

3.

The nurse provides discharge teaching for Addison’s disease. Which statement indicates the need for more teaching?

a)

I’ll carry hydrocortisone with me for emergencies.

b)

If I get sick, I’ll double my steroid dose.

c)

If I feel weak and dizzy, I’ll skip my steroid until I’m better.

d)

I’ll wear my medical alert bracelet.

4.

The nurse assesses a post-thyroidectomy client who becomes suddenly restless with stridor and drooling. What's the priority action?

a)

Call rapid response

b)

Assess surgical site

c)

Suction secretions

d)

Administer oxygen by NC

5.

A type 1 diabetic who took insulin this morning is now diaphoretic and trembling. The nurse finds BG 52 mg/dL. The correct response is to:

a)

Give ½ cup juice and recheck in 15 min

b)

Administer 1 mg glucagon IM immediately

c)

Start IV D5W at 125 mL/hr

d)

Notify HCP before acting

6.

Which new insulin order should the nurse clarify?

a)

Lispro 10 U subQ before meals

b)

NPH 30 U subQ Q0900

c)

Glargine 10 U subQ at HS

d)

Mix glargine with lispro in one syringe

7.

The nurse evaluates a patient on metformin. Which finding requires immediate action?

a)

Mild diarrhea

b)

GFR 28 mL/min

c)

BMI 36 kg/m²

d)

A1C 8.0 %

8.

A patient with DKA receives insulin IV infusion. Which lab warrants the nurse to hold the infusion?

a)

K+ 3.0 mEq/L

b)

pH 7.25

c)

HCO3- 18 mEq/L

d)

Glucose 240 mg/dL

9.

A client taking levothyroxine reports palpitations and insomnia. Which action should the nurse take?

4 lines
10.

The nurse cares for a patient with cirrhosis and ascites. Which new order requires clarification?

a)

Spironolactone 25 mg PO daily

b)

Ibuprofen 600 mg q6h PRN pain

c)

2 g sodium diet

d)

Daily weight

11.

Which statement about Lactulose indicates understanding?

a)

"It will help me have soft stools to get rid of ammonia."

b)

"It will raise my potassium levels."

c)

"It will strengthen my liver enzymes."

d)

"I can skip doses when I feel bloated."

12.

The nurse reviews labs: - ALT 92 U/L - AST 110 U/L - Total bilirubin 4.3 mg/dL Which assessment finding supports hepatic dysfunction?

a)

Jaundiced sclera

b)

Pink urine

c)

Dry mucous membranes

d)

Bradycardia

13.

The nurse teaches a patient with hypothyroidism about levothyroxine. Which statement requires further teaching?

a)

I'll take it every morning before breakfast.

b)

I'll stop taking it if my heart races.

c)

This medication may take weeks to improve my energy.

d)

I'll have my TSH checked regularly.

14.

The nurse monitors a patient with SIADH on fluid restriction. Which assessment finding shows improvement?

a)

Serum Na+ rising toward 135 mEq/L

b)

Urine specific gravity increasing

c)

Weight gain of 2 lb

d)

Persistent confusion

15.

A client with hyperthyroidism suddenly develops fever 104 °F, HR 140 bpm, agitation. The nurse suspects:

a)

Thyroid storm

b)

Myxedema coma

c)

SIADH

d)

Addisonian crisis

16.

For the above thyroid storm, priority action?

a)

Maintain airway and cooling

b)

Encourage fluids 3 L/day

c)

Restrict iodine intake

d)

Administer glucagon

17.

The nurse reviews a patient's labs: • Ca²⁺ 6.9 mg/dL • Positive Chvostek sign Which history finding is relevant?

a)

Recent thyroidectomy

b)

Type 2 DM

c)

Addison’s disease

d)

DKA

18.

A client receiving chemo has ANC 420. Which action takes priority?

a)

Hold fresh flowers and plants

b)

Administer epoetin alfa

19.

Which of the following should the nurse delegate to an experienced UAP caring for a patient with thrombocytopenia?

a)

Measuring vital signs every 4 h

b)

Checking for petechiae

c)

Inserting a Foley catheter

d)

Shaving the patient

20.

A patient with leukemia is started on filgrastim. Which lab finding shows effectiveness?

a)

Increased neutrophil count

b)

Increased platelets

c)

Decreased bilirubin

d)

Lowered uric acid

21.

A chemotherapy patient reports mouth pain and white patches. Priority nursing intervention?

a)

Perform oral care with saline rinse after meals

b)

Use alcohol-based mouthwash

c)

Provide lemon-glycerin swabs

d)

Encourage spicy foods for taste

22.

A client with sickle-cell crisis reports 10/10 pain and O₂ sat 88%. Which action is priority?

a)

Apply oxygen

b)

Give PRN morphine

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Increase oral fluids

23.

The nurse teaches a patient with iron-deficiency anemia. Which statement needs correction?

a)

I’ll take my iron pill with orange juice.

b)

It may turn my stools dark.

c)

I should lie down after taking it.

d)

I’ll avoid taking it with milk.

24.

The nurse reviews the CBC: - Hgb 6.8 g/dL - Hct 20% - SOB, HR 118 bpm Which intervention is expected?

a)

Prepare to transfuse PRBCs

b)

Administer erythropoietin

c)

Start iron supplementation

d)

Restrict fluids

25.

A patient with pernicious anemia after gastric bypass asks why B12 injections are needed. The best response:

a)

Your stomach no longer makes intrinsic factor.

b)

B12 pills don’t work for vegetarians.

c)

The surgery removed all vitamin stores.

d)

You can switch to oral supplements later.

26.

The nurse notes bruising and platelet count 38 K/μL. Which action has highest priority?

a)

Assess for headache/confusion

b)

Encourage ambulation

c)

Administer IM pain meds

d)

Provide compression stockings

27.

The nurse monitors a patient with Addison’s crisis. Which parameter requires immediate attention?

a)

BP 82/50 mm Hg

b)

Glucose 95 mg/dL

c)

Sodium 138 mEq/L

d)

Potassium 4.2 mEq/L

28.

During chemo, the patient’s uric acid sharply increases and K+ 6.2 mEq/L. The nurse suspects:

a)

Tumor lysis syndrome

b)

Hypercalcemia of malignancy

c)

SIADH (Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone)

d)

Septic shock

29.

A. Tumor lysis syndrome (Correct) B. SIADH C. DKA D. Hypercalcemia of malignancy

a)

Tumor lysis syndrome

b)

SIADH

c)

DKA

d)

Hypercalcemia of malignancy

30.

For tumor lysis syndrome, the nurse anticipates administering:

a)

Allopurinol

b)

Calcium gluconate

c)

Spironolactone

d)

Desmopressin

31.

A patient with Cushing’s syndrome asks why their face looks “round.” The best explanation:

a)

“Steroid excess causes fat redistribution to the face and trunk.”

b)

“You’ve likely gained muscle mass.”

c)

“Fluid intake is too high.”

d)

“It’s from thyroid hormone deficiency.”

32.

A patient with hypoglycemia unawareness is being discharged. Which teaching is most important?

a)

Always carry a fast-acting glucose source.

b)

Avoid any insulin on sick days.

c)

Limit protein intake.

d)

Only test glucose when symptomatic.

33.

The nurse evaluates teaching for SGLT2 inhibitor (empagliflozin). Which statement is correct?

a)

I’ll drink plenty of water to reduce UTI risk.

b)

I’ll expect constipation as a side effect.

c)

This drug raises my blood sugar.

d)

It may cause weight gain.

34.

Which assessment finding in hypercalcemia of malignancy requires priority intervention?

a)

Cardiac rhythm irregularities

b)

Fatigue

35.

A patient with SIADH develops muscle cramps and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

a)

Check serum sodium level

b)

Restrict fluids to 1 L/day

c)

Give salt tablets

d)

Notify provider for 3% saline order

36.

The nurse evaluates a patient’s understanding of fluid restriction for SIADH. Which statement shows correct understanding?

a)

I’ll record everything I drink, including soup and gelatin.

b)

If I feel thirsty, I can have ice chips freely.

c)

I should drink extra water with my medications.

d)

Coffee and tea don’t count as fluids.

37.

A DI patient on desmopressin reports a weight gain of 4 lb in two days. Which is the nurse’s priority?

a)

Assess for water intoxication and hyponatremia

b)

Encourage oral fluids

c)

Re-educate about missed doses

d)

Continue same dosage

38.

The nurse cares for four clients. Which requires immediate assessment?

a)

Cushing’s pt with glucose 190 mg/dL

b)

Addison’s pt with BP 84/50 mm Hg

c)

SIADH pt with urine SG 1.015

d)

Type 2 DM pt with A1c 8.4 %

39.

A newly diagnosed Cushing’s patient is distressed about facial changes. Which nursing response is therapeutic?

a)

These changes are reversible once cortisol is controlled.

b)

You’ll just need to accept the new look.

c)

Avoid looking in mirrors until treatment is complete.

d)

You can try heavy makeup to hide swelling.

40.

Which finding in Addison’s crisis confirms therapeutic response to hydrocortisone?

a)

Blood pressure increasing toward baseline

b)

Sodium decreasing

c)

Potassium increasing

d)

Glucose trending lower

41.

During thyroid storm, which medication blocks hormone synthesis?

a)

Propylthiouracil (PTU)

b)

Levothyroxine

c)

Iodine solution

d)

Beta-blocker

42.

After radioactive iodine, which teaching is essential?

a)

Sleep alone for several days

b)

Avoid close contact with pregnant women/children

c)

Use a private toilet and flush twice

d)

Continue breastfeeding

e)

Launder clothes separately

43.

The nurse monitors a type 1 DM on IV insulin for DKA. Which lab finding shows improvement?

a)

pH 7.35 and anion gap closed

b)

K+ 3.0 mEq/L

44.

A type 2 DM on metformin develops severe infection and dehydration. What's the priority?

a)

Hold metformin to prevent lactic acidosis

b)

Increase dose for hyperglycemia

c)

Give additional fluids by mouth

d)

Continue medication as ordered

45.

Which order should the nurse question for a DKA patient?

a)

Regular insulin IV infusion

b)

0.9 % NaCl bolus

c)

Potassium chloride 40 mEq IVPB when K = 6.0 mEq/L

d)

Continuous cardiac monitoring

46.

The nurse evaluates a patient's understanding of foot care with diabetes. Which statement shows correct learning?

a)

I’ll inspect my feet daily using a mirror.

b)

I can soak my feet daily in warm water.

c)

I’ll cut corns myself to save money.

d)

Tight socks help circulation.

47.

The nurse cares for a cirrhosis patient with ascites. Which finding requires urgent action?

a)

New confusion and tremors

b)

Weight gain 2 lb/day

c)

Spider angiomas on chest

d)

Mild ankle edema

48.

Which dietary selection is best for hepatic encephalopathy?

a)

Moderate-protein, high-carbohydrate diet

b)

High-protein, high-fat diet

c)

Low-carb, high-protein

d)

High-fiber vegan

49.

The nurse monitors for bleeding risk in cirrhosis. Which lab value is most concerning?

a)

INR 3.5

b)

Albumin 3.2 g/dL

c)

Bilirubin 2.8 mg/dL

d)

AST 65 U/L

50.

Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for a patient with DKA?

a)

Deficient fluid volume

b)

Knowledge deficit

c)

Disturbed body image

d)

Impaired physical mobility

51.

A neutropenic patient develops a temperature of 100.8 °F. First action?

a)

Notify provider immediately

b)

Recheck in 1 hour

c)

Give acetaminophen

d)

Encourage ambulation

52.

Which action by the UAP caring for a neutropenic client requires intervention?

a)

Wearing gloves for oral care

b)

Using alcohol-based hand gel before entering room

c)

Bringing in fresh fruit for snack

d)

Wearing mask if symptomatic

53.

A patient with thrombocytopenia reports new headache and blurred vision. Nursing action?

a)

Call provider—possible intracranial bleed

b)

Give acetaminophen

c)

Document and monitor

d)

Encourage fluids

54.

A client with sickle-cell crisis has O₂ sat 91 %, severe pain, and dehydration. In which order should the nurse act?

a)

Apply O₂

b)

Begin IV fluids

c)

Give opioid analgesic

d)

Keep extremities warm

55.

A folic-acid–deficient patient asks about sources of folate. The best teaching includes:

a)

Green leafy vegetables and citrus fruits

b)

Red meat and milk

c)

White rice and potatoes

d)

Nuts and seeds only

56.

A client receiving epoetin alfa should be monitored for which adverse effect?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Hypotension

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hypoglycemia

57.

A patient with iron-deficiency anemia receives IV iron. The nurse should:

a)

Use a separate line and test dose for allergy

b)

Flush with dextrose solution

c)

Give IM in deltoid

d)

Administer rapidly over 1 min

58.

The nurse prepares to administer blood transfusion to a patient with Hgb 6.5 g/dL. Which action requires correction?

a)

Using 0.9 % NS IV line

b)

Verifying ID with another RN

c)

Warming unit in microwave

d)

Obtaining baseline vital signs

59.

After 15 min of transfusion, a patient develops chills and flank pain. Priority action?

a)

Stop transfusion immediately

b)

Slow the rate

c)

Notify provider after completion

d)

Reassure it's expected

60.

A client with non-Hodgkin lymphoma receiving chemo develops uric acid 9.8 mg/dL. Which medication is expected?

(a)  

61.

During tumor lysis syndrome, the nurse monitors for which complication?

a)

Hyperkalemia-induced dysrhythmias

b)

Hypophosphatemia

c)

Hypocalcemia tetany

d)

Hyponatremia

62.

A Cushing’s patient reports sudden weakness and vomiting after abruptly stopping steroids. The nurse suspects:

a)

Addisonian crisis

b)

Thyroid storm

c)

Adrenal hyperplasia

d)

Myxedema coma

63.

The nurse gives discharge instructions for Addison’s disease. Which statement shows correct understanding?

a)

I’ll carry an emergency injectable steroid.

b)

I’ll skip my dose when stressed.

c)

I don’t need salt in my diet.

d)

I’ll double my dose when feeling dizzy.

64.

The nurse notes a thyroidectomy patient with tingling around the mouth. Which lab should be checked?

a)

Calcium

b)

Sodium

c)

Potassium

d)

Phosphate

65.

The nurse assesses a hyperparathyroidism patient. Which finding is consistent?

a)

Bone pain and kidney stones

b)

Tetany and twitching

c)

Weight gain and cold intolerance

d)

Hypotension

66.

A type 2 diabetic on pioglitazone reports new shortness of breath and ankle swelling. Priority action?

a)

Assess for heart failure

b)

Encourage fluids

c)

Increase dose

d)

Reassure it's temporary

67.

A patient receiving GLP-1 agonist (semaglutide) reports severe abdominal pain radiating to the back. Best action?

a)

Hold the medication—possible pancreatitis

b)

Administer antacid

c)

Continue and monitor

d)

Increase fiber intake

68.

The nurse teaches a patient about levothyroxine. Which statement shows correct understanding?

a)

I’ll take it every morning on an empty stomach.

b)

I’ll take it with my calcium supplement.

c)

I’ll expect it to make me drowsy.

d)

If I miss a dose, I’ll double the next one.

69.

A patient with Graves’ disease is prescribed propranolol. The primary reason for this drug is to:

4 lines
70.

The nurse reviews a patient's TSH 0.05 μIU/mL, T₄ high. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?

a)

Risk for decreased cardiac output r/t tachycardia

b)

Risk for infection

c)

Impaired gas exchange r/t airway edema

d)

Activity intolerance r/t fatigue

71.

A patient with hypothyroidism reports taking levothyroxine with coffee each morning. What should the nurse advise?

a)

Take it with water only 30–60 min before breakfast

b)

Coffee increases absorption

c)

Time of administration doesn’t matter

d)

Combine with calcium for best results

72.

Which patient requires immediate nursing intervention?

a)

Addison’s with Na⁺ 120 mEq/L

b)

Cushing’s with glucose 170 mg/dL

c)

SIADH with urine SG 1.015

d)

Type 2 DM with fasting BG 130 mg/dL

73.

A patient with Cushing’s syndrome expresses depression and poor self-image. Priority nursing action?

a)

Provide emotional support and active listening

b)

Focus on medication teaching

c)

Encourage group therapy later

d)

Emphasize dietary changes first

74.

During Addisonian crisis, which IV fluid should the nurse anticipate?

a)

0.9 % NaCl with 5 % dextrose

b)

D5W only

c)

Lactated Ringer’s with KCl

d)

0.45 % NaCl

75.

A patient on prednisone long term requires which discharge teaching?

a)

Do not stop medication abruptly

b)

Take on empty stomach

c)

Double dose if missed

d)

Avoid all protein foods

76.

The nurse suspects SIADH in a patient receiving carbamazepine. Which lab supports this?

a)

Low serum Na+, concentrated urine

b)

High serum Na+, dilute urine

c)

High calcium, high phosphate

d)

High glucose, low urine osmolality

77.

The nurse reviews four clients’ reports. Which finding needs priority action?

a)

DI with urine output 4 L/24h

b)

SIADH with Na+ 114 mEq/L

c)

Type 1 DM with glucose 250 mg/dL

d)

Addison’s with fatigue

78.

A client with central DI on desmopressin reports a pounding headache. The nurse should:

a)

Hold the next dose and check sodium level

b)

Give an extra dose

c)

Reassure and document

d)

Restrict fluids further

79.

A patient with cirrhosis is prescribed lactulose. Which outcome shows effectiveness?

a)

Improved mental status

b)

Reduced ascites

c)

Decreased jaundice

d)

Increased appetite

80.

Which statement shows correct teaching for portal hypertension with varices?

a)

I’ll avoid straining and coughing.

b)

I can take ibuprofen for headaches.

81.

A nurse prepares to administer propranolol to a patient with esophageal varices. Purpose of this drug?

a)

Reduce portal venous pressure

b)

Lower ammonia levels

c)

Stimulate clotting factors

d)

Increase bile secretion

82.

A patient with thrombocytopenia requires teaching. Which statement indicates correct understanding?

a)

I’ll use an electric razor and soft toothbrush.

b)

I can take aspirin if I get a headache.

c)

I’ll floss daily.

d)

I’ll do contact sports cautiously.

83.

A patient receiving chemotherapy asks why they need filgrastim injections. The nurse’s response:

a)

It helps your bone marrow make more white blood cells.

b)

It prevents anemia.

c)

It boosts platelets.

d)

It fights cancer directly.

84.

The nurse provides teaching for epoetin alfa. Which lab must be monitored closely?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Calcium

c)

Glucose

d)

Sodium

85.

A leukemia patient undergoing chemo reports painful mouth ulcers. Best intervention?

a)

Rinse with saline or baking soda solution

b)

Use lemon swabs

c)

Apply viscous lidocaine after meals

d)

Eat spicy foods for taste

86.

A patient with acute leukemia reports fatigue and fever. The nurse’s first action is to:

a)

Assess temperature and report >100.4 °F

b)

Obtain hemoglobin level

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Administer acetaminophen

87.

Which dietary teaching is appropriate for iron-deficiency anemia?

a)

Eat red meats, leafy greens, and fortified cereals.

b)

Avoid vitamin C while taking iron.

c)

Take iron with milk.

d)

Iron should be taken with antacids.

88.

A patient with aplastic anemia requires which infection prevention teaching?

a)

Avoid crowds and sick people

b)

Get all live vaccines

c)

Use herbal immune boosters

d)

Report bruising only

89.

A nurse reviews a patient's labs: • WBC 1.1 ×10⁹/μL • Platelets 90 K/μL • Hgb 7.5 g/dL Which diagnosis fits best?

a)

Aplastic anemia

b)

Sickle cell crisis

c)

Polycythemia vera

d)

Pernicious anemia

90.

A client with tumor lysis syndrome after chemo presents with muscle cramps and tingling. The nurse suspects:

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypernatremia

91.

Which medication is given to prevent uric acid nephropathy in tumor lysis syndrome?

a)

Allopurinol

b)

Epoetin alfa

c)

Ondansetron

d)

Methotrexate

92.

Which finding in hypercalcemia of malignancy requires urgent attention?

a)

ECG changes

b)

Constipation

c)

Fatigue

d)

Nausea

93.

The nurse prepares calcitonin for a patient with hypercalcemia. The expected effect is:

a)

Drives calcium into bone and lowers serum Ca²⁺

b)

Releases calcium from bone

c)

Raises phosphate level

d)

Stimulates PTH secretion

94.

Which patient should the nurse assess first?

a)

Chemo pt with temp 100.6 °F

b)

Liver pt with mild jaundice

c)

SIADH pt with Na⁺ 132 mEq/L

d)

Hypothyroid pt with fatigue

95.

During blood transfusion, which sign indicates possible hemolytic reaction?

a)

Back pain and chills

b)

Fever and urticaria

c)

Cough and dyspnea

d)

Headache

96.

The nurse provides discharge education for a diabetic on glargine and lispro. Which teaching is correct?

a)

Glargine provides 24-hour coverage and is not mixed with other insulin.

b)

Lispro is taken 2 hours before meals.

c)

Store opened insulin in the freezer.

d)

Rotate injection sites weekly only.

97.

The nurse identifies a Type 1 diabetic who skips insulin and develops Kussmaul respirations. Priority nursing diagnosis?

a)

Deficient fluid volume

b)

Ineffective airway clearance

c)

Activity intolerance

d)

Anxiety

98.

Which statement about long-term corticosteroid therapy requires intervention?

a)

I’ll monitor my blood glucose regularly.

b)

I’ll stop it as soon as I feel better.

c)

I’ll avoid people with infections.

d)

I’ll report swelling or vision changes.

99.

The nurse monitors a patient with cirrhosis. Which lab value shows worsening liver function?

a)

Elevated ammonia level

b)

Low potassium

c)

Elevated hematocrit

d)

Low bilirubin

100.

A patient with hypoglycemia is unresponsive. Next nursing action?

a)

Administer 1 mg glucagon IM

b)

Give 15 g oral carbs

c)

Encourage orange juice

d)

Wait 15 minutes and recheck