WorksheetsGCC Mock Test 6
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the emergency room after a fall. X-rays reveal that the client has several fractured bones in the foot. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate for the fractured foot?
a)
Application of a short inclusive spica cast
b)
Stabilization with a plaster-of-Paris cast
c)
Surgery with Kirschner wire implantation
d)
No bandages to be used to correct the fractured foot
e)
-
2.
The nurse is managing care of a primigrada at full term who is in active labor. What should be included in developing the plan of care for this client?
a)
Oxygen saturation monitoring every half hour.
b)
Supine positioning on back, if it is comfortable.
c)
Anesthesia/pain level assessment every 30 minutes.
d)
Vaginal bleeding, ROM assessment every shift.
e)
-
3.
The nurse is assisting in the assessment of the patient admitted with abdominal pain. Why should the nurse ask about medications that the client is taking?
a)
Interactions between medications can be identified.
b)
Various medications taken by mouth can affect the alimentary tract.
c)
This will provide an opportunity to educate the patient regarding the medications used.
d)
The types of medications might be attributable to an abdominal pathology not already identified.
e)
-
4.
The client arrives in the emergency room with a hyphema. Which action by the nurse would be best?
a)
Elevate the head of the bed and apply ice to the eye
b)
Place the client in a supine position and apply heat to the knee
c)
Insert a Foley catheter and measure the intake and output
d)
Perform a vaginal exam and check for a discharge
e)
-
5.
The nurse is caring for the client with a mastectomy. Which action would be contraindicated?
a)
Taking the blood pressure in the side of the mastectomy
b)
Elevating the arm on the side of the mastectomy
c)
Positioning the client on the unaffected side
d)
Performing a dextrostix on the unaffected side
e)
-
6.
Which condition places a patient at risk for an embolic stroke?
a)
Atrial fibrillation
b)
Bradycardia
c)
Deep vein thrombosis
d)
A history of MI
e)
-
7.
The nurse should assess a client who has a peptic ulcer for signs of bleeding. Which symptom would best indicate this complication?
a)
Melena
b)
Hematuria
c)
Hemoptysis
d)
Ecchymosis
e)
-
8.
Sublingual nitroglycerin is given to a client who experiences chest pain. Which symptom can occur with this medication?
a)
Tachycardia.
b)
Tinnitus.
c)
Diarrhea.
d)
Diplopia.
e)
-
9.
The nurse is managing care of a primigrada at full term who is in active labor. What should be included in developing the plan of care for this client?
a)
Oxygen saturation monitoring every half hour.
b)
Supine positioning on back, if it is comfortable.
c)
Anesthesia/pain level assessment every 30 minutes.
d)
Vaginal bleeding, ROM assessment every shift.
e)
-
10.
The nurse is preparing to administer a DTP, Hib, and hepatitis B immunizations to an infant. The nurse should:
a)
Administer all the immunizations in one site
b)
Administer the DTP in one leg, and the Hib and the hepatitis B in the other leg
c)
Administer the DTP in the leg, the Hib in the other leg, and the hepatitis B in the arm
d)
Administer the DTP and Hib in one leg, and the hepatitis B in the arm
e)
-
11.
A 60-year-old male patient is suspected of having coronary artery disease. Which noninvasive diagnostic method would the nurse expect to be ordered to evaluate cardiac changes?
a)
Cardiac biopsy
b)
Cardiac catheterization
c)
MRI
d)
Pericardiocentesis
e)
-
12.
A client who receives intravenous fluid therapy and an intravenous injection of diphenhydramine (Benadryl) suddenly complains of chest tightness and light-headedness. The nurse notes that the client has a flushed face and an irregular pulse of 120 beats/minute. Which is the most likely cause of this reaction in this client?
a)
Circulatory overload.
b)
Sepsis.
c)
Speed shock.
d)
Chylothorax.
e)
-
13.
A client with a T6 injury 6 months ago develops facial flushing and a BP of 210/106. After elevating the head of the bed, which is the most appropriate nursing action?
a)
Notify the physician
b)
Assess the client for a distended bladder
c)
Apply oxygen at 3L/min
d)
Administer Procardia sublinqually
e)
-
14.
Which of the following diet instructions should be given to the client with recurring urinary tract infections?
a)
Increase intake of meats
b)
Avoid citrus fruits
c)
Perform pericare with hydrogen peroxide
d)
Drink a glass of cranberry juice every day
e)
-
15.
OSHA is responsible for:
a)
compensating workers injured in the workplace.
b)
providing rehabilitation for workers injured in the workplace.
c)
inspecting high-hazard workplaces for compliance with protective standards.
d)
disciplining workers injured in the workplace.
e)
-
16.
The nurse is instructing a post-operative client on the use of an incentive spirometer. The nurse knows that the correct use of the incentive spirometer is directly related to:
a)
Promoting the client's circulation
b)
Preparing the client for amubulation
c)
Strengthening the client's muscles
d)
Increasing the client's respiratory effort
e)
-
17.
The nurse is teaching the parents of an infant with osteogenesis imperfecta. The nurse should tell the parents:
a)
That the infant will need daily calcium supplements
b)
To lift the infant by the buttocks when diapering
c)
That the condition is a temporary one
d)
That only the bones are affected by the disease
e)
-
18.
A client complains of increasing fatigue and pain due to rheumatoid arthritis currently being treated with sulfasalizine (Azulfidine). The client's history includes diabetes mellitus type 2 and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client's medications include glipizide (Glucotrol) and estradiol (Estrace). Which symptom should the nurse expect to find as a result of medication interactions?
a)
Pathological fractures.
b)
Hot flashes.
c)
Increased dyspnea.
d)
Hypoglycemia.
e)
-
19.
The primary physiological alteration in the development of asthma is:
a)
Bronchiolar inflammation and dyspnea
b)
Hypersecretion of abnormally viscous mucus
c)
Infectious processes causing mucosal edema
d)
Spasm of bronchiolar smooth muscle
e)
-
20.
In a negligence suit against a nurse, what must the plaintiff prove?
a)
The nurse intended to cause harm.
b)
The nurse's actions caused harm.
c)
The nurse knew she caused harm.
d)
The nurse was sorry for causing harm.
e)
-
21.
A patient, age 55, is admitted with cor pulmonale secondary to advanced COPD. He has been a coal miner for 35 years. When performing the physical assessment, what would the nurse expect to find?
a)
Dyspnea, cyanosis, and increased respiratory excursion
b)
Distended neck veins, cyanosis, and reduced expiratory phase
c)
Dyspnea, cyanosis, and reduced respiratory rate
d)
Distended neck veins, right upper quadrant tenderness, and dependent edema
e)
-
22.
The nurse working in the emergency department is caring for a client with suspected acute myocardial infarction. STAT blood tests are ordered. Which test result should the nurse be most concerned?
a)
CK-MB 3%
b)
Hematocrit 42%
c)
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 10 mm/h
d)
Glucose 115 mg/dL
e)
-
23.
A 24-year-old client, G 3, P 1, at 32 weeks' gestation, is admitted to the hospital because of vaginal bleeding. After reviewing the client's history, which of the following factors might lead the nurse to suspect abruptio placentae?
a)
Several hypotensive episodes
b)
Previous low transverse cesarean delivery
c)
One induced abortion
d)
History of cocaine use
e)
-
24.
Which condition places a patient at risk for an embolic stroke?
a)
Atrial fibrillation
b)
Bradycardia
c)
Deep vein thrombosis
d)
A history of MI
e)
-
25.
The nurse should assess a client who has a peptic ulcer for signs of bleeding. Which symptom would best indicate this complication?
a)
Melena
b)
Hematuria
c)
Hemoptysis
d)
Ecchymosis
e)
-
26.
A patient, age 60, is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia in the left lower lobe. His arterial blood gas (ABG) findings include pH, 7.35; Pao2, 60 mm Hg; Paco2, 40 mm Hg; and HCO3 -, 34 mEq/L. Based on these results, which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
a)
Ineffective breathing pattern
b)
Impaired gas exchange
c)
Ineffective airway clearance
d)
Risk for infection
e)
-
27.
Which nursing diagnosis is most important for a client receiving enteral tube feedings?
a)
Diarrhea
b)
Risk for fluid volume deficit
c)
Risk for aspiration
d)
Knowledge deficit
e)
-
28.
Otitis media occurs more frequently in infants and young children because of the unique anatomic features of the:
a)
Nasopharynx
b)
External ear canals
c)
Eustachian tubes
d)
Tympanic membranes
e)
-
29.
Which part of the kidney forms the urine?
a)
Glomerulus
b)
Proximal convoluted tubule
c)
Loop of Henle
d)
Nephron
e)
-
30.
The nurse recognizes that which of the following protective equipment is most appropriate to wear when suctioning a client with a tracheostomy?
a)
Gown, goggles, and gloves
b)
Gown only
c)
Gloves only
d)
Gown and shoe covers
e)
-
31.
A primigravid client attending parenthood classes tells the nurse that there is a history of twins in her family. What should the nurse tell the client?
a)
Monozygotic twins result from fertilization of two ova by different sperm.
b)
Monozygotic twins occur by chance regardless of race or heredity.
c)
Dizygotic twins are usually of the same sex.
d)
Dizygotic twins occur more often in primigravid than in multigravid clients.
e)
-
32.
Which statement made by the nurse to the client who is given hydrocodone bitartrate (Vicodin) for pain control indicates knowledge of possible side effects of this medication?
a)
It is important that you avoid bananas and green, leafy vegetables while on this medication.
b)
You will need to stay close to a bathroom while taking this medication because it can cause urinary incontinence.
c)
Drink plenty of liquids and increase your intake of high-fiber foods while on this medication.
d)
Report any muscle twitching, muscle cramping, or numbness and tingling that may occur.
e)
-
33.
The physician has ordered a central IV line insertion and requested the nurse to prepare the client and set up for the procedure. The nurse has not assisted with a central line insertion before and asks the charge nurse for advice and assistance. Which response by the charge nurse indicates that the charge nurse practices the transitional style of management?
a)
I will assist the physician with the procedure so that you will have time to care for the rest of your clients.
b)
I do not have time to go over the procedure with you right now. Look it up in the unit policy and procedure manual.
c)
You have never assisted with a central line insertion before?
d)
Let's get the supplies that we will need. I want you to assist the physician, but I will be there with you to talk you through the procedure.
e)
-
34.
To reduce occurrences of dumping syndrome, the nurse should instruct the patient to do which of the following?
a)
Sip fluids with meals.
b)
Eat three meals daily.
c)
Rest after meals for 30 minutes.
d)
Follow a high-carbohydrate, low-fat, low-protein diet.
e)
-
35.
The nurse is explaining about the drug zafirlukast (Accolate) to a client with asthma. Which comment by the client would indicate ineffective teaching?
a)
I should take this medication with meals.
b)
I need to report flulike symptoms to my doctor.
c)
My doctor might order liver tests while I'm on this drug.
d)
If I'm already having an asthma attack, this drug will not stop it.
e)
-
36.
Primary prevention of domestic abuse involves:
a)
Conducting community classes to teach parents about normal developmental challenges.
b)
Early intervention to prevent or stop the violence.
c)
Identification of families at risk for violence.
d)
Strengthening individuals and families to enable them to better cope with life stressors.
e)
-
37.
The nurse is caring for the client with a 5-year-old diagnosed with plumbism. Which information in the health history is most likely related to the development of plumbism?
a)
The client has traveled out of the country in the last 6 months.
b)
The client's parents are skilled stained-glass artists.
c)
The client lives in a house built in 1990.
d)
The client has several brothers and sisters.
e)
-
38.
An annual Pap test is most important in patients:
a)
with a history of recurrent candidiasis.
b)
who became pregnant before age 20.
c)
infected with HPV.
d)
who have used oral contraceptives for a short time.
e)
-
39.
An infant born at 25 weeks gestation was treated with prolonged oxygen therapy. Prolonged oxygen therapy places the infant at risk for:
a)
Cerebral palsy
b)
Retinitis pigmentosa
c)
Hydrocephalus
d)
Retinopathy of prematurity
e)
-
40.
A multigravid client at 34 weeks' gestation with premature rupture of the membranes tests positive for group B streptococcus. The client is having contractions every 4 to 6 minutes. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure, 120/80 mm Hg; temperature, 100° F (37.8° C); pulse, 100 bpm; respirations, 18 breaths/minute. Which of the following would the nurse expect the physician to order?
a)
Intravenous penicillin.
b)
Intravenous gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin).
c)
Intramuscular betamethasone (Celestone).
d)
Intramuscular cefaclor (Ceclor).
e)
-
41.
Which person is at greatest risk for developing Lyme's disease?
a)
Computer technician
b)
Middle-school teacher
c)
Dog trainer
d)
Forestry worker
e)
-
42.
The nurse is caring for a 6-year-old client admitted with the diagnosis of conjunctivitis. Before administering eyedrops, the nurse should recognize that it is essential to consider which of the following?
a)
The eye should be cleansed with warm water, removing any exudate, before instilling the eyedrops.
b)
The child should be allowed to instill his own eyedrops.
c)
The mother should be allowed to instill the eyedrops.
d)
If the eye is clear of any redness or edema, the eyedrops should be held.
e)
-
43.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client taking dissulfiram (Antabuse). The nurse should instruct the client to avoid eating:
a)
Peanuts, dates, raisins
b)
Figs, chocolate, eggplant
c)
Pickles, salad with vinaigrette dressing, beef
d)
Milk, cottage cheese, ice cream
e)
-
44.
A client experiences an opioid overdose. Which medication antagonizes the effects of opioids?
a)
Flumazenil (Romazicon) 0.2 mg IV up to total of 1 mg.
b)
Naloxone (Narcan) 0.4 mg IV up to a total of 10 mg.
c)
Dimercaprol (BAL in Oil) 4 mg / kg IM.
d)
Atropine sulfate (Atropine) 1 to 2 mg IV.
e)
-
45.
A hospital client with abdominal cancer refuses surgical treatment and chemotherapy and asks about options for hospice home care. Later, the client's daughter asks the case manager to talk the client into agreeing to surgery and chemotherapy treatment. The case manager explains to the daughter that this violates which client right?
a)
The right to self-determination.
b)
The right to decline participation in research studies and experimental treatments.
c)
The right to expect reasonable continuity of care.
d)
The right to make decisions about the plan of care.
e)
-
46.
An obstetrical client is admitted in active labor. When the membranes rupture, the nurse would expect to find:
a)
A large amount of bright-red discharge
b)
A moderate amount of straw-colored discharge
c)
A small amount of green-colored discharge
d)
A scant amount of dark-brown discharge
e)
-
47.
The nurse who is accessing a client's central line notices the infusion rate is difficult to maintain. The nurse notes the rate is affected when the client raises an arm or moves a shoulder. The nurse should be concerned with which possible complication?
a)
Extravasation.
b)
Pinch-off syndrome.
c)
Central vein thrombosis.
d)
Phlebitis.
e)
-
48.
A client with schizophrenia has been taking Thorazine (chlorpromazine) 200mg four times a day. Which finding should be reported to the doctor immediately?
a)
The client complains of thirst
b)
The client has gained 4 pounds in the past 2 months
c)
The client complains of a sore throat
d)
The client naps throughout the day
e)
-
49.
When a nurse accepts a client assignment, the nurse also accepts a legal duty to provide care to the client that is consistent with the standard of care. A nurse who abandons a client assignment without first procuring comparable and appropriate care for the client during the period of the nurse's absence is guilty of (choose the best answer):
a)
Duty
b)
Breach of duty.
c)
Damages.
d)
Causation.
e)
-
50.
A client with preeclampsia has been receiving an infusion containing magnesium sulfate. Blood pressure is 160/80, deep tendon reflexes are 1 plus, and urinary output for the past hour is 100mL. The nurse should:
a)
Continue the infusion of magnesium sulfate while monitoring the client's blood pressure
b)
Stop the infusion of magnesium sulfate and contact the physician
c)
Slow the infusion rate and turn the client on her left side
d)
Administer calcium gluconate and continue to monitor the blood pressure
e)
-
51.
What is the action of the nurse who assesses dehiscence of a clients' surgical wound?
a)
Place the client in the prone position
b)
Apply a sterile saline-moistened dressing to the wound
c)
Administer atropine to decrease abdominal secretions
d)
Wrap the abdomen with an ACE bandage
e)
-
52.
A couple is visiting the clinic because they have been unable to conceive a baby after 3 years of frequent coitus. After discussing the various causes of male infertility, the nurse determines that the male partner needs further instruction when he states which of the following as a cause?
a)
Seminal fluid with an alkaline pH
b)
Frequent exposure to heat sources
c)
Abnormal hormonal stimulation
d)
Immunologic factors
e)
-
53.
An infant client who takes oral medication can be encouraged to swallow the medication by which method?
a)
Place the liquid in an empty nipple
b)
Add the liquid to the infant's bottle of formula
c)
Lay the infant with the head lower than the feet
d)
Use a syringe and give 1 milliliter with each swallow
e)
-
54.
A middle-aged client has a strong positive family history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. The best method to prevent or delay the development of this disease in this client is to:
a)
Test serum glucose values monthly
b)
Avoid starches and sugars in the diet
c)
Obtain a normal body weight and exercise regularly
d)
Maintain a normal serum lipid panel
e)
-
55.
A client is sent to the psychiatric unit for forensic evaluation after he is accused of arson. His tentative diagnosis is antisocial personality disorder. In reviewing the client's record, the nurse could expect to find:
a)
A history of consistent employment
b)
A below-average intelligence
c)
A history of cruelty to animals
d)
An expression of remorse for his actions
e)
-
56.
The physician has prescribed Laradopa (levodopa) for a client with Parkinson's disease. The nurse should:
a)
Tell the client that the medication will not be absorbed if it is taken with food
b)
Explain that monthly lab work will be needed while the client is taking the medication
c)
Tell the client that the medication will be needed only until the symptoms disappear
d)
Instruct the client to rise slowly from a sitting position
e)
-
57.
The licensed practical nurse is assisting the charge nurse in planning care for a client with a detached retina. Which of the following nursing diagnoses should receive priority?
a)
Alteration in comfort
b)
Alteration in mobility
c)
Alteration in skin integrity
d)
Alteration in 02 perfusion
e)
-
58.
To reduce occurrences of dumping syndrome, the nurse should instruct the patient to do which of the following?
a)
Sip fluids with meals
b)
Eat three meals daily
c)
Rest after meals for 30 minutes
d)
Follow a high-carbohydrate, low-fat, low-protein diet
e)
-
59.
A 40-year-old client is curious about visible appearance changes related to menopause. In general, menopausal clients experience:
a)
Bone loss and fractures
b)
Loss of muscle mass and increased fat tissue
c)
Improved skin turgor and elasticity
d)
A reduction in waist size
e)
-
60.
Which set of vital signs would best indicate an increase in intracranial pressure in a client with a head injury?
a)
BP 180/70, pulse 50, respirations 16, temperature 101ºF
b)
BP 100/70, pulse 64, respirations 20, temperature 98.6°F
c)
BP 96/70, pulse 132, respirations 20, temperature 98.6°F
d)
BP 130/80, pulse 50, respirations 18, temperature 99.6ºF
e)
-
61.
A multigravid client diagnosed with a probable ruptured ectopic pregnancy is scheduled for emergency surgery. In addition to monitoring the client's blood pressure before surgery, which of the following would the nurse assess?
a)
Uterine cramping
b)
Abdominal distention
c)
Hemoglobin and hematocrit
d)
Pulse rate
e)
-
62.
A client is sent to the psychiatric unit for forensic evaluation after he is accused of arson. His tentative diagnosis is antisocial personality disorder. In reviewing the client's record, the nurse could expect to find:
a)
A history of consistent employment
b)
A below-average intelligence
c)
A history of cruelty to animals
d)
An expression of remorse for his actions
e)
-
63.
The nurse is explaining about the drug zafirlukast (Accolate) to a client with asthma. Which comment by the client would indicate ineffective teaching?
a)
I should take this medication with meals.
b)
I need to report flulike symptoms to my doctor.
c)
My doctor might order liver tests while I'm on this drug.
d)
If I'm already having an asthma attack, this drug will not stop it.
e)
-
64.
A client returns to the nursing unit after a transurethral prostatic resection. The client has an indwelling urinary catheter with a continuous bladder irrigation system in place. The client complains of bladder spasms. Which priority action should the nurse take?
a)
Remove the indwelling catheter per the physician's order
b)
Assess the client's vital signs
c)
Notify the physician per the physician's order
d)
Flush the catheter per the physician's order
e)
-
65.
An annual Pap test is most important in patients:
a)
with a history of recurrent candidiasis
b)
who became pregnant before age 20
c)
infected with HPV
d)
who have used oral contraceptives for a short time
e)
-
66.
A peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line is ordered for a client. Which statement made by the nurse indicates an understanding of the proper insertion information for this intravenous access device?
a)
This intravenous line should be used only for antibiotics.
b)
I watched one of these being placed last week. I think I can do it without disturbing anyone.
c)
Once I get this line in, it will need to be checked with an x-ray. The line should be in the superior vena cava.
d)
This is useful for about 2 weeks. After that, another line will need to be inserted to maintain patency.
e)
-
67.
The nurse is in the process of administering PO medications. Which of the following drugs should not be administered at the same time?
a)
Levofloxacin (Levaquin) and Mylanta
b)
Furosemide (Lasix) and Simethicone (Mylicon)
c)
Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) and Carbidopa (Sinemet)
d)
Sucralfate (Carafate) and docusate calcium (Surfak)
e)
-
68.
A patient has chronic bronchitis. The nurse is teaching him breathing exercises. Which point should the nurse include in her teaching?
a)
Make inhalation longer than exhalation
b)
Exhale through an open mouth
c)
Use diaphragmatic breathing
d)
Use chest breathing
e)
-
69.
The nurse is in the process of administering PO medications. Which of the following drugs should not be administered at the same time?
a)
Levofloxacin (Levaquin) and Mylanta
b)
Furosemide (Lasix) and Simethicone (Mylicon)
c)
Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) and Carbidopa (Sinemet)
d)
Sucralfate (Carafate) and docusate calcium (Surfak)
e)
-
70.
A client experiences an opioid overdose. Which medication antagonizes the effects of opioids?
a)
Flumazenil (Romazicon) 0.2 mg IV up to total of 1 mg
b)
Naloxone (Narcan) 0.4 mg IV up to a total of 10 mg
c)
Dimercaprol (BAL in Oil) 4 mg / kg IM
d)
Atropine sulfate (Atropine) 1 to 2 mg IV
e)
-
71.
When a nurse accepts a client assignment, the nurse also accepts a legal duty to provide care to the client that is consistent with the standard of care. A nurse who abandons a client assignment without first procuring comparable and appropriate care for the client during the period of the nurse's absence is guilty of (choose the best answer):
a)
Duty
b)
Breach of duty.
c)
Damages.
d)
Causation.
e)
-
72.
What is the best definition of palliative care?
a)
Care for terminally ill clients.
b)
Symptom management for a client when a disease no longer responds to cure-focused treatment.
c)
Aggressive cure-focused disease treatment and management.
d)
Comfort care.
e)
-
73.
Which chronic complications are associated with diabetes mellitus?
a)
Angina and dyspnea on exertion.
b)
Leg ulcers and pulmonary infarcts.
c)
Retinopathy and neuropathy.
d)
Fatigue, nausea, and cardiac dysrhythmias.
e)
-
74.
Which chronic complications are associated with diabetes mellitus?
a)
Angina and dyspnea on exertion.
b)
Leg ulcers and pulmonary infarcts.
c)
Retinopathy and neuropathy.
d)
Fatigue, nausea, and cardiac dysrhythmias.
e)
-
75.
The nurse is explaining about the drug zafirlukast (Accolate) to a client with asthma. Which comment by the client would indicate ineffective teaching?
a)
I should take this medication with meals.
b)
I need to report flulike symptoms to my doctor.
c)
My doctor might order liver tests while I'm on this drug.
d)
If I'm already having an asthma attack, this drug will not stop it.
e)
-
76.
Sublingual nitroglycerin is given to a client who experiences chest pain. Which symptom can occur with this medication?
a)
Tachycardia.
b)
Tinnitus.
c)
Diarrhea.
d)
Diplopia.
e)
-
77.
Which chronic complications are associated with diabetes mellitus?
a)
Angina and dyspnea on exertion.
b)
Leg ulcers and pulmonary infarcts.
c)
Retinopathy and neuropathy.
d)
Fatigue, nausea, and cardiac dysrhythmias.
e)
-
78.
What is the best definition of palliative care?
a)
Care for terminally ill clients.
b)
Symptom management for a client when a disease no longer responds to cure-focused treatment.
c)
Aggressive cure-focused disease treatment and management.
d)
Comfort care.
e)
-
79.
The nursing staff has planned a picnic for a small group of clients from the psychiatric unit. All of the clients are taking Thorazine (chlorpromazine). The nursing staff should take extra measures to:
a)
Protect the clients from sun exposure
b)
Eliminate aged cheese from the menu
c)
Limit the amount of fluid intake by the clients
d)
Avoid chocolate desserts and treats on the menu
e)
-
80.
An immigrant from the Kurdish Jewish population is admitted for fever of unknown origin, generalized body aches, and dyspnea. Which order should the nurse question?
a)
Albuterol sulfate (Proventil) inhaler 2 puffs four times a day as needed for dyspnea.
b)
Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) 650 mg PO every 4 hours as needed for pain or fever.
c)
Celecoxib (Celebrex) 200 mg PO daily.
d)
Fosinopril sodium (Monopril) 10 mg PO daily.
e)
-
81.
Which position would be the most appropriate for a patient who has undergone stapedectomy?
a)
On the affected side
b)
On the unaffected side
c)
Prone
d)
Sims'
e)
-
82.
The nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client with iron-deficiency anemia about a high-iron diet. The nurse recognizes that teaching has been effective when the client selects which meal plan?
a)
Hamburger, French fries, orange juice
b)
Sliced veal, spinach salad, whole-wheat roll
c)
Vegetable lasagna, Caesar salad, toast
d)
Bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich; potato chips; tea
e)
-
83.
Which part of the kidney forms the urine?
a)
Glomerulus
b)
Proximal convoluted tubule
c)
Loop of Henle
d)
Nephron
e)
-
84.
A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following signs would the nurse expect to find?
a)
Bulging eyes
b)
Renal calculi
c)
Weight gain
d)
Weight loss
e)
-
85.
The nurse is caring for the client receiving Amphotericin B. Which of the following indicates that the client has experienced toxicity to this drug?
a)
Changes in vision
b)
Nausea
c)
Urinary frequency
d)
Changes in skin color
e)
-
86.
The physician has ordered a CAT scan for a client with a possible cerebral aneurysm. Which information is most important to the nurse who is preparing the client for the CAT scan?
a)
The client is having her menstrual period
b)
The client has a history of claustrophobia
c)
The client is allergic to oysters
d)
The client has sensory deafness
e)
-
87.
An infant client who takes oral medication can be encouraged to swallow the medication by which method?
a)
Place the liquid in an empty nipple
b)
Add the liquid to the infant's bottle of formula
c)
Lay the infant with the head lower than the feet
d)
Use a syringe and give 1 milliliter with each swallow
e)
-
88.
The physician has ordered an injection of morphine for a client with post-operative pain. Before administering the medication, it is essential that the nurse assess the client's:
a)
Heart rate
b)
Respirations
c)
Temperature
d)
Blood pressure
e)
-
89.
A client with angina has an order for nitroglycerin ointment. Before applying the medication, the nurse should:
a)
Apply the ointment to the previous application
b)
Obtain both a radial and an apical pulse
c)
Remove the previously applied ointment
d)
Tell the client he will experience pain relief in 15 minutes
e)
-
90.
During the admission assessment, the nurse discovers that the client has brought her medications from home. The nurse should:
a)
Tell the client that she can keep her medicines as long as she does not take them
b)
Make a list of the medications and ask a family member to take the medications home
c)
Allow the client to keep over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements
d)
Use the client's home medications because they have already been purchased
e)
-
91.
Which is the most frequent etiologic agent of bacterial meningitis?
a)
Haemophilus influenzae.
b)
Methacillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
c)
Moraxella.
d)
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
e)
-
92.
Acutely ill clients often experience high levels of physiologic and psychologic stress. Sources of physiologic stress in the acutely ill client are:
a)
Learning new concepts.
b)
Level of nursing staff.
c)
Pain.
d)
Payment of bills.
e)
-
93.
The client arrives in the emergency room with a hyphema. Which action by the nurse would be best?
a)
Elevate the head of the bed and apply ice to the eye
b)
Place the client in a supine position and apply heat to the knee
c)
Insert a Foley catheter and measure the intake and output
d)
Perform a vaginal exam and check for a discharge
e)
-
94.
The licensed vocational nurse may not assume the primary care for a client:
a)
In the fourth stage of labor
b)
Two days post-appendectomy
c)
With a venous access device
d)
With bipolar disorder
e)
-
95.
An elderly client injured in a fall is admitted with fractures of the ribs and a closed right pneumothorax. The nurse should position the client:
a)
In modified Trendelenburg position with the lower extremities elevated
b)
In semi-Fowler's position tilted toward the right side
c)
In dorsal recumbent position with the lower extremities flat
d)
In semi-Fowler's position tilted toward the left side
e)
-
96.
The nursing staff has planned a picnic for a small group of clients from the psychiatric unit. All of the clients are taking Thorazine (chlorpromazine). The nursing staff should take extra measures to:
a)
Protect the clients from sun exposure
b)
Eliminate aged cheese from the menu
c)
Limit the amount of fluid intake by the clients
d)
Avoid chocolate desserts and treats on the menu
e)
-
97.
Case managers use clinical pathways in the process of evaluating and coordinating client care with the multidisciplinary team. A clinical pathway is:
a)
A decision-making flowchart that uses the "if, then" method
b)
A set of practice guidelines developed by a professional medical organization
c)
A standardized set of preprinted physician orders
d)
A set of practice guidelines based on a specific client diagnosis
e)
-
98.
A client with a T6 injury 6 months ago develops facial flushing and a BP of 210/106. After elevating the head of the bed, which is the most appropriate nursing action?
a)
Notify the physician
b)
Assess the client for a distended bladder
c)
Apply oxygen at 3L/min
d)
Administer Procardia sublinqually
e)
-
99.
A 36-year-old multigravid client is admitted to the hospital with possible ruptured ectopic pregnancy. When obtaining the client's history, which of the following would be most important to identify as a predisposing factor?
a)
Urinary tract infection.
b)
Marijuana use during pregnancy.
c)
Episodes of pelvic inflammatory disease.
d)
Use of estrogen-progestin contraceptives.
e)
-
100.
The nurse is explaining a low-residue diet to a client with ulcerative colitis. Which food would need to be eliminated from this client's diet?
a)
Roasted chicken
b)
Noodles
c)
Cooked broccoli
d)
Roast beef
e)
-
100 %
