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ECON2105_Final_Exam_Prep

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How is the trade balance calculated?

a)

Imports minus exports

b)

Exports minus imports

c)

Total exports divided by total imports

d)

Total imports divided by total exports

2.

If a country's exports are 500 billion and imports are 600 billion, what is the trade balance?

a)

$1.1 trillion deficit

b)

$1.1 trillion surplus

c)

$100 billion deficit

d)

$100 billion surplus

3.

In the circular diagram above, what does the orange arrow represent?

a)

Imports from Rest of World

b)

Payments from Home Country to Rest of World

c)

Payments from Rest of World to Home Country

d)

Exports to Rest of World

4.

Which is not a component of the current account balance?

a)

Trade in Goods and Services

b)

Income Receipts and Payments

c)

Unilateral Payments

d)

Business Investment

5.

If Country A can produce 10 tons of steel or 20 tons of wheat with one unit of labor, and Country B can produce 5 tons of steel or 15 tons of wheat with one unit of labor, which country has a comparative advantage in steel production?

a)

Country A

b)

Country B

c)

Both countries

d)

Neither country

6.

Given the data in the table, what is the value of net exports?

a)

-$1,064

b)

-$907

c)

-$785

d)

-$3,109

7.

Given the data in the table, what is the total value of capital flowing into the United States?

a)

$1,376

b)

$196

8.

If private savings in a country are 500 billion, public savings are 200 billion, and net exports are -$100 billion, what is the total national saving?

a)

$800 billion

b)

$600 billion

c)

$500 billion

d)

$200 billion

9.

If a country has private savings of 700 billion government savings of 100 billion, and net exports of -$50 billion, what is the total investment?

a)

$750 billion

b)

$800 billion

c)

$650 billion

d)

$850 billion

10.

What is a trade surplus?

a)

When a country's exports exceed its imports

b)

When a country's imports exceed its exports

c)

When a country's exports equal its imports

d)

When a country has no trade activity

11.

Let’s analyze how a country’s trade deficit is impacted by changes to other components of the National Savings and Investment Identity. If domestic investment increases, with no change to Private or Public savings, what must happen to the trade deficit?

a)

Nothing. The trade deficit is independent.

b)

It must increase

c)

It must decrease

d)

Not enough information

12.

Which type of exchange rate system allows a currency's value to fluctuate according to the foreign exchange market?

a)

Fixed exchange rate system

b)

Pegged exchange rate system

c)

Floating exchange rate system

d)

Managed exchange rate system

13.

What is the primary function of the foreign exchange market?

a)

To trade stocks and bonds

b)

To facilitate international currency exchange

c)

To regulate interest rates

d)

To manage government debt

14.

How does an increase in interest rates in a country generally affect its currency value?

a)

It tends to decrease the currency's value

b)

It tends to increase the currency's value

c)

It has no effect on the currency's value

d)

It causes immediate inflation

15.

What impact does high inflation have on a country's currency value in the foreign exchange market?

a)

It typically leads to an appreciation of the currency

b)

It causes the currency value to stabilize

c)

It has no impact on the currency value

d)

It typically leads to a depreciation of the currency

16.

If the exchange rate is 1.5 USD/EUR and a product costs 300 EUR, how much does it cost in USD?

a)

450 USD

b)

200 USD

c)

300 USD

d)

500 USD

17.

A U.S. investor wants to buy British stocks. If the exchange rate is 1.3 USD/GBP and the stocks cost 500 GBP, how much will the investor pay in USD?

a)

500 USD

b)

385 USD

c)

650 USD

d)

750 USD

18.

If a country's currency depreciates by 10% and the price elasticity of demand for its exports is -0.5, what happens to the quantity of exports?

a)

Decreases by 5%

b)

Increases by 5%

c)

Decreases by 10%

d)

Increases by 10%

19.

When a country's currency appreciates, what impact does it have on its exports?

a)

Exports increase

b)

Exports decrease

c)

No impact on exports

d)

Exports become negative

20.

Suppose the British pound (GBP) appreciates against the US dollar (USD) by 10%. If the initial exchange rate was 1 GBP = 1.40 USD, what is the new exchange rate?

a)

1 GBP = 1.26 USD

b)

1 GBP = 1.54 USD

c)

1 GBP = 1.30 USD

d)

1 GDP = 1.50 USD

21.

Assume the nominal exchange rate is 1.3 CAD/USD. If Canadian inflation is 2% and U.S. inflation is 4%, what is the expected change in the real exchange rate?

a)

CAD depreciates

b)

CAD appreciates

c)

No change

d)

USD depreciates

22.

Ferrari sells a sports car in the UAE for AED 1,200,000. Each car costs €200,000 to produce. At an exchange rate of €0.25 EUR/AED, what is their profit per car?

a)

€100,000

b)

€150,000

c)

€200,000

d)

€250,000

23.

Sony sells their TV in the US for $2,000. Each TV costs ¥250,000 to produce. At an exchange rate of ¥120 JPY / USD what is their profit per TV?

a)

-¥50,000

b)

¥50,000

c)

-¥10,000

d)

¥10,000

24.

Which economic measure is commonly used to compare the standard of living across countries?

a)

Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

b)

Unemployment Rate

c)

Consumer Price Index (CPI)

d)

Gross Domestic Product per capita

25.

Which of the following factors is most likely to contribute to economic growth in developing countries?

a)

Increased reliance on subsistence agriculture

b)

Reduction in foreign investment

c)

Improvements in education and infrastructure

d)

Decrease in population growth

26.

How does income distribution typically differ between high-income and low-income countries?

a)

High-income countries always have more equal income distribution

b)

Low-income countries often experience higher levels of income inequality

c)

Income distribution is similar across all countries

d)

Low-income countries always have more equal income distribution

27.

If Country A has a GDP of $500 billion and a population of 50 million, with an 80% labor participation rate what is its GDP per capita?

a)

$5,000

b)

$10,000

c)

$12,500

d)

$15,000

28.

If Country D's population increases from 10 million to 10.5 million while its GDP remains constant at $200 billion, what happens to its GDP per capita?

a)

Decreases by 4.76%

b)

Decreases by 10%

c)

Increases by 4.76%

d)

Remains the same

29.

What role does education play in enhancing a country's standard of living?

a)

It only benefits individuals who pursue higher education

b)

It increases human capital, leading to higher productivity and economic growth

c)

It has no direct impact on economic outcomes

d)

It primarily affects social cohesion rather than economic growth

30.

What is absolute advantage?

a)

The ability to produce more of a good than another country

b)

The ability to produce a good at a lower opportunity cost than another country

c)

The ability to produce more goods than any other country

d)

The ability to restrict imports to protect domestic industries

31.

Which of the following statements best describes the benefit of comparative advantage and international trade?

a)

It allows countries to consume beyond their production possibilities frontier

b)

It ensures all countries have equal trade balances

c)

It guarantees that all countries produce everything they need

d)

It restricts countries from engaging in trade

32.

If Country A can produce 10 tons of steel or 5 tons of wheat with one unit of resources, and Country B can produce 8 tons of steel or 4 tons of wheat with one unit of resources, which country has the absolute advantage in steel production?

a)

Country A

b)

Country B

c)

Both have the same absolute advantage

d)

Neither has an advantage

33.

If Country A can produce 10 tons of steel or 5 tons of wheat with one unit of resources, and Country B can produce 8 tons of steel or 4 tons of wheat with one unit of resources, which country has the comparative advantage in steel production?

a)

Country A

b)

Country B

c)

Both have the same absolute advantage

d)

Neither has an advantage. The opportunity cost is the same

34.

How does opportunity cost relate to comparative advantage?

a)

Comparative advantage is determined by the absolute cost of production

b)

Comparative advantage is determined by the lower opportunity cost of production

c)

Opportunity cost does not affect comparative advantage

d)

Opportunity cost increases when comparative advantage is maximized

35.

Country X can produce 20 units of good A or 40 units of good B. Country Y can produce 30 units of good A or 60 units of good B. What is the opportunity cost of producing one unit of good A in Country X?

a)

0.5 units of good B

b)

1 unit of good B

c)

2 units of good B

d)

3 units of good B

36.

Country A can produce 15 cars or 45 computers. What is the opportunity cost of producing one car in terms of computers?

a)

3 computers

b)

2 computers

c)

1/5 computer

d)

5 computers

37.

Which country should specialize in producing a good, according to the theory of comparative advantage?

a)

The country with the higher production capacity

b)

The country with the more advanced technology

c)

The country with the higher population

d)

The country with the lower opportunity cost for that good

38.

Which country should specialize in the production of a good?

a)

The country with the higher output

b)

The country with the lower cost

c)

The country with the higher population

d)

The country with the lower opportunity cost for that good

39.

Which country has the comparative advantage in oil production?

a)

A. Canada

b)

B. Venezuela

c)

C. Both

d)

D. Neither

40.

Which country has the comparative advantage in lumber production?

a)

A. Canada

b)

B. Venezuela

c)

C. Both

41.

Suppose a country imposes a 25% tariff on imported computers, increasing the average price from 1,000to1,000 to 1,250. The previous equilibrium quantity demanded was 60,000 units. If the price elasticity of demand is -0.8, what will be the new equilibrium quantity demanded?

a)

45,000

b)

48,000

c)

50,000

d)

54,000

42.

What is protectionism in the context of international trade?

a)

A. A policy of reducing tariffs and trade barriers

b)

B. A strategy to increase consumer spending

c)

C. A policy to restrict imports to protect domestic industries

d)

D. A strategy to promote foreign direct investment

43.

Which of the following is a potential negative impact of protectionism?

a)

Increased domestic employment

b)

Reduced consumer choice and higher prices

c)

Enhanced innovation and competition

d)

Lower production costs for domestic industries

44.

Why might a government implement protectionist policies?

a)

To increase trade deficits

b)

To promote foreign investment

c)

To decrease domestic investment

d)

To protect emerging industries from international competition

45.

How can protectionism impact domestic innovation?

a)

By reducing the incentive to innovate due to lack of competition

b)

By increasing research and development funding

c)

By encouraging foreign partnerships

d)

By lowering production costs

46.

How do regional trade agreements benefit member countries?

a)

By imposing higher tariffs on inter-regional trade

b)

By ensuring identical economic policies

c)

By increasing restrictions on exports to other countries

d)

By reducing trade barriers between member countries

47.

What is a potential disadvantage of trade liberalization?

a)

Reduced consumer choice

b)

Job losses in industries unable to compete with foreign imports

c)

Increased domestic employment

48.

Assume two countries, Thailand (T) and Japan (J), have one good: cameras. The demand (d) and supply (s) for cameras in Thailand and Japan is described by the function in the image. P is the price measured in a common currency used in both countries, such as the Thai Baht. Compute the equilibrium price (P) and quantities (Q) in Thailand without trade.

a)

67.69 Bahts; 25.33 units

b)

67.69 Bahts; 12.31 units

c)

74.67 Bahts; 25.33 units

d)

74.67 Bahts; 12.31 units

49.

Assume two countries, Thailand (T) and Japan (J), have one good: cameras. The demand (d) and supply (s) for cameras in Thailand and Japan is described by the functions in the image. P is the price measured in a common currency used in both countries, such as the Thai Baht. Assume that free trade occurs. What is the new equilibrium price?

a)

67.69 Bahts

b)

70.00 Bahts

c)

74.67 Bahts

d)

71.42 Bahts

50.

In a world without trade, what is the equilibrium price and quantity in Mando?

a)

A. 900, 600

b)

B. 800, 330

c)

C. 700, 300

d)

D. 900, 300

51.

What is the total quantity demanded and supplied in the market for the two countries with free trade at a price of $700?

a)

A. Qd = 930, Qs = 795

b)

B. Qd = 990, Qs = 735

c)

C. Qd = 300, Qs = 30

d)

D. Qd = 645, Qs = 495

52.

Assuming free trade opens up, what is the new equilibrium price and quantity across the two markets?

a)

900, 600

b)

800, 540

c)

700, 300

d)

800, 870

53.

If the price of a good increases, what happens to the quantity demanded, according to the law of demand?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

It remains unchanged

d)

It fluctuates unpredictably

54.

Assume the demand for a product is given by Qd = 150 - 3P and the supply is given by Qs = 5P - 10. What is the equilibrium price?

a)

5

b)
20
c)

10

d)

12

55.

When the government sets a price floor above the equilibrium price, what is the likely outcome?

a)

Surplus

b)

Shortage

c)

Equilibrium

d)

Decreased Supply

56.

Suppose a technological advancement reduces the cost of production for good X. What happens to the supply curve of good X?

a)

It shifts to the left

b)

It shifts to the right

c)

it remains unchanged

d)

It becomes vertical

57.

If X and Y are substitute goods and the price of X increases, what happens to the demand for good Y?

a)

Quantity demanded for good Y increases along the demand curve

b)

 Quantity for good Y decreases along the demand curve

c)

The demand curve for good Y shifts right

d)

The demand curve for good Y shifts left

58.

Using the above demand and supply schedules, if the market is at D1 and S1, what is the equilibrium quantity?

a)

500

b)

400

c)

600

d)

550

59.

Using the above demand and supply schedules, if the market starts at D1 and S1, and demand shifts to D2 the equilibrium price has shifted from ________ to ________.

a)

$5.00; $3.00

b)

$3.00; $5.00

c)

$7.00; $5.00

d)

$5.00; $7.00

60.

Given the above demand and supply curves, if the current price is $3.00, then the market____________

a)

has a shortage

b)

is in equilibrium

c)

has a surplus

d)

price is too high

61.

If our demand curve shifts from D0 to D1 this is called a ______________.

a)

Increase in the quantity demanded

b)

Decrease in the quantity demanded

c)

Increase in Demand

d)

Decrease in demand

62.

If our supply curve shifts from S0 to S1 this is called a ______________.

a)

Increase in the quantity supplied

b)

Decrease in the quantity supplied

c)

Increase in supply

d)

Decrease in supply

63.

Given the graph, identify the area associated with consumer surplus.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

64.

The chart displays the local market for housing rentals. At the equilibrium price, consumer surplus is represented by area(s)  ___________.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

d)

A + B

e)

A + D

65.

Price elasticity of demand is calculated as:

a)

Percentage change in quantity demanded / Percentage change in price

b)

Percentage change in price / Percentage change in quantity demanded

c)

Change in quantity demanded / Change in price

d)

Change in price / Change in quantity demanded

66.

If the price elasticity of demand for a product is -2.5 and the price increases by 10%, by what percentage will the quantity demanded decrease?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

25%

d)

30%

67.

The price of a good increases from $5 to $6, and the quantity demanded decreases from 100 units to 80 units. What is the price elasticity of demand?

a)

1

b)

1.2

c)

1.5

d)

2

68.

Which of the following is true if a product has perfectly inelastic demand?

a)

The quantity demanded changes by the same percentage as the price.

b)

The quantity demanded does not change when the price changes

c)

The quantity demanded changes infinitely when the price changes.

d)

The price does not change when the quantity demanded changes

69.

If the price of a good decreases from $20 to $15 and the quantity supplied decreases from 500 units to 400 units, what is the price elasticity of supply?

a)

0.8

b)

1.0

c)

1.2

d)

1.4

70.

Given the two demand curves which one will experience a greater change in quantity demanded for a given price change?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

We need more information

d)

Neither, they change the same amount

71.

If the demand for a good is elastic, what happens to total revenue when the price decreases?

a)

Total revenue decreases

b)

Total revenue increases

c)

Total revenue remains the same

d)

Total revenue becomes zero

72.

Assume the cross-price elasticity of demand between two goods is -1.2. What can be inferred about the relationship between these two goods?

a)

They are substitutes

b)

They are complements

c)

They are unrelated

d)

They are inferior goods

73.

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is best defined as:

a)

The total value of all goods and services produced in a country in a year

b)

The total value of all goods and services consumed in a country in a year

c)

The total value of all exports and imports of a country in a year

d)

The total value of all investments made by a country in a year

74.

Which of the following is not included in the calculation of GDP?

a)

Educational services

b)

Sale of new shoes

c)

Honda ATVs made in South Carolina

d)

Ford trucks made at a Mexican plant

75.

If the GDP deflator is 130 and the nominal GDP is $800 billion, what is the real GDP?

a)

$725 billion

b)

$615 billion

c)

$480 billion

d)

$753 billion

76.

If consumption is $500 billion, investment is $150 billion, government spending is $200 billion, exports are $100 billion, and imports are $50 billion, what is the GDP?

a)

$900 billion

b)

$1000 billion

c)

$850 billion

d)

$950 billion

77.

The GDP per capita is calculated by dividing:

a)

GDP by the working-age population

b)

 GDP by the number of households

c)

GDP by the total population

d)

GDP by the number of employed individuals

78.

The value of all goods and services produced by US based companies regardless of where they are in the world represents the:

a)

Gross Domestic Product

b)

National Income

c)

Gross National Product

d)

Net National Product

79.

Gross Domestic Product equals $28 trillion. If consumption equals $19 trillion, investment equals $5 trillion, and government spending equals $5 trillion, then:

a)

exports exceed imports by $100 billion

b)

imports exceed exports by $100 billion

c)

imports exceed exports by $1 trillion

d)

exports exceed imports by $1 trillion

80.

Given the data in the table, Gross Domestic Product (GDP) equals:

a)

$20,000

b)

$44,500

c)

$31,500

d)

$47,200

81.

What is the primary purpose of adjusting nominal values to real values?

a)

To account for changes in population

b)

To account for inflation

c)

To account for changes in technology

d)

To account for government spending

82.

If Country A's GDP per capita was $10,000 in 2000 and it grew at an average annual rate of 2%, what was its GDP per capita in 2020?

a)

$13,578

b)

$15,981

c)

$12,362

d)

$14,859

83.

If Country B's GDP was $500 billion in 1990 and grew to $2 trillion by 2020, what was the average annual growth rate over this period?

a)

4.73%

b)

6.12%

c)

7.18%

d)

8.20%

84.

If the population of Country C grew at an average annual rate of 1.5% while its GDP grew at an average annual rate of 4%, what was the average annual growth rate of GDP per capita?

a)

3%

b)

2%

c)

5.5%

d)

2.5%

85.

You own a bakery. Current technology allows 1 worker to make 5 dozen loaves of bread per 8 hour day. Each loaf sells for $4. What is the worker’s productivity per hour?

a)

$2.50

b)

$20

c)

$30

d)

$25

86.

You own a lawn care service. With a push mower, 1 worker can mow 8 yards per day. If each yard pays  $30, what is the worker’s productivity per hour?

a)

$2.50

b)

$20

c)

$30

d)

$25

87.

How does education contribute to economic growth?

a)

By increasing the number of jobs

b)

By improving the quality and productivity of the labor force

c)

By reducing capital stock

d)

By decreasing wage rates

88.

How is the unemployment rate defined?

a)

The percentage of people who are unemployed out of the total population

b)

The percentage of people who are unemployed out of the labor force

c)

The percentage of people who are unemployed out of the working-age population

d)

The percentage of people who are unemployed out of the total number of workers

89.

If the number of people employed is 152 million and the number of unemployed is 8 million, what is the unemployment rate?

a)

4.9%

b)

5.3%

c)

6.1%

d)

5.0%

90.

If the number of employed people is 152 million and the number of unemployed is 8 million, what is the labor force participation rate if the working-age population is 200 million?

a)

75%

b)

80%

c)

76%

d)

85%

91.

If the labor force participation rate is 70% and the working-age population is 250 million, what is the size of the labor force?

a)

150 million

b)

170 million

c)

175 million

d)

165 million

92.

Sierra looked for work for six months but could not find a job to her liking. She decided to enroll in school full time and stopped looking for a job. For the purposes of tracking unemployment, Sierra is considered:

a)

unemployed

b)

employed in the underground economy

c)

out of the labor force

d)

underemployed

93.

If the natural rate of unemployment is 5% and the current unemployment rate is 8%, what is the cyclical unemployment rate?

a)

2%

b)

3%

c)

5%

d)

8%

94.

A decrease in aggregate demand will likely lead to:

a)

Lower unemployment rates

b)

Higher inflation rates

c)

An increase in the natural rate of unemployment

d)

Higher unemployment rates in the short run

95.

Which index is commonly used to measure inflation in the United States?

a)

Producer Price Index (PPI)

b)

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) Deflator

c)

Consumer Price Index (CPI)

d)

Employment Cost Index (ECI)

96.

If the CPI in Year 1 is 150 and in Year 2 it is 165, what is the inflation rate between these two years?

a)

12%

b)

15%

c)

5%

d)

10%

97.

How is the inflation rate calculated?

a)

(CPI in the current year - CPI in the base year) / CPI in the base year x 100

b)

(CPI in the current year - CPI in the previous year) / CPI in the previous year x 100

c)

(CPI in the base year - CPI in the current year) / CPI in the current year x 100

d)

(CPI in the base year - CPI in the previous year) / CPI in the previous year x 100

98.

Why might the CPI overstate the cost of living?

a)

Because it fails to account for changes in consumption patterns

b)

Because it only measures goods, not services

c)

Because it does not include imported goods

d)

Because it includes the prices of used goods

99.

What does "indexing" refer to in the context of inflation’s impact on payments like social security?

a)

Adjusting interest rates for inflation

b)

Adjusting nominal values to maintain purchasing power

c)

Adjusting GDP for inflation

d)

Adjusting unemployment rates for seasonal variations

100.

When Mando first signed up for StreamFlix in 2011 the monthly fee was $8 per month. His subscription price increased to $10 in 2015, $12 in 2019 and $16 in 2023. What is the overall rate of inflation (2011 to 2023) for Mando’s streaming service?

a)

25%

b)

200%

c)

100%

d)

50%