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Biology exam part 1

Total questions: 34

Worksheet time: 2hrs 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes loose connective tissue?

a)

Holds organs in place throughout the body

b)

Forms the hard mineralized bone matrix

c)

Transports gases and nutrients in plasma

d)

Provides high tensile strength in tendons

2.

Where is fibrous connective tissue primarily located?

a)

In tendons and ligaments

b)

Within bone marrow cavities

c)

Under epithelial surfaces

d)

Lining blood vessel lumens

3.

Which cell builds the mineralized matrix of bone tissue?

a)

Osteoblast

b)

Chondrocyte

c)

Adipocyte

d)

Leukocyte

4.

Which statement about bone is accurate?

a)

Contains osteoblasts and osteoclasts

b)

Contains only chondrocytes

c)

Lacks collagen fibers entirely

d)

Is composed solely of elastic fibers

5.

What is the primary role of adipose tissue?

a)

Stores fat and insulates the body

b)

Secretes synovial fluid into joints

c)

Forms the rigid framework of skeleton

d)

Carries dissolved gases in plasma

6.

Which composition correctly matches cartilage matrix components?

a)

Collagen fibers and chondroitin sulfate

b)

Elastin fibers and calcium phosphate

c)

Actin filaments and myosin heads

d)

Keratin fibers and hyaluronic acid

7.

Which feature distinguishes blood as a connective tissue?

a)

Liquid extracellular matrix called plasma

b)

Solid mineralized ground substance

c)

Dense collagen fiber bundles

d)

Gel-like proteoglycan network

8.

Which are the primary formed elements of blood?

a)

Red cells, white cells, and platelets

b)

Chondrocytes, osteocytes, and fibroblasts

c)

Myocytes, neurons, and glia

d)

Keratinocytes, melanocytes, and Langerhans

9.

A tendon tears during sports. Which connective tissue is most directly damaged?

a)

Dense fibrous connective tissue

b)

Loose areolar connective tissue

c)

Adipose connective tissue

d)

Hyaline cartilage tissue

10.

A newborn with poor joint cushioning most likely has defects in which cell type?

a)

Chondrocytes producing cartilage matrix

b)

Osteoblasts forming bone lamellae

c)

Adipocytes storing triglycerides

d)

Leukocytes mediating immunity

11.

Severe blood loss reduces oxygen delivery. Which blood component is primarily affected?

a)

Erythrocytes carrying oxygen

b)

Leukocytes producing antibodies

c)

Platelets forming cartilage

d)

Plasma fibers forming osteons

12.

Which pairing of connective tissue with function is most accurate?

a)

Adipose tissue—thermal insulation

b)

Bone tissue—hormone secretion

c)

Cartilage—mineral storage

d)

Loose tissue—action potential conduction

13.

Which epithelial cell type is characterized by cube-like cells with centrally placed nuclei forming a single layer?

a)

Simple cuboidal epithelium with cube-shaped cells

b)

Simple squamous epithelium with flat cells

c)

Simple columnar epithelium with tall cells

d)

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium with varied nuclei

14.

Simple squamous epithelium is best described as which arrangement of cells?

a)

Multiple layers of irregular, round cells

b)

Multiple layers of cube-like cells

c)

Single layer of flat, plate-like cells

d)

Single layer of tall, brick-like cells

15.

Which feature makes pseudostratified columnar epithelium appear multilayered despite being a single layer?

a)

Basement membrane with two distinct layers

b)

Nuclei at different heights within cells

c)

Cells alternating between cube and flat shapes

d)

Cells with multiple nuclei per cell

16.

Which epithelial type would most efficiently allow rapid diffusion across its surface?

a)

Simple squamous epithelium in a single layer

b)

Cuboidal epithelium arranged in thick cords

c)

Simple columnar epithelium with tall cells

d)

Stratified squamous epithelium with many layers

17.

Which pairing correctly matches cell shape with its typical epithelial name?

a)

Flat cells — squamous epithelium

b)

Cube cells — columnar epithelium

c)

Irregular cells — transitional epithelium

d)

Tall cells — cuboidal epithelium

18.

A slide labeled “squamous” shows multiple stacked layers of flattened cells at the surface. Which conclusion is most justified about its likely role?

a)

Propulsion of mucus by coordinated cilia

b)

Protection in areas subject to abrasion

c)

Secretion in small glandular ducts

d)

Gas exchange across minimal barrier

19.

Functionally, what does the right ventricle primarily do during the cardiac cycle?

a)

Receives blood from pulmonary veins

b)

Supplies coronary arteries directly

c)

Pumps oxygenated blood to body

d)

Pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs

20.

Why does cardiac muscle contain abundant mitochondria relative to its volume?

a)

High ATP demand for continuous activity

b)

Calcium storage replacing sarcoplasmic reticulum

c)

Anaerobic metabolism as the dominant pathway

d)

Protein synthesis for rapid hypertrophy needs

21.

Which feature distinguishes cardiac muscle from skeletal muscle at the cellular junctions

a)

Tropomyosin regulating actin sites

b)

Intercalated discs with gap junctions

c)

Sarcomeres arranged in myofibrils

d)

Neuromuscular junction end plates

22.

Erythropoietin is produced mainly by which organ and has what principal effect?

a)

Thymus increases T lymphocyte count

b)

Spleen accelerates cell phagocytosis

c)

Kidney stimulates red cell production

d)

Liver enhances platelet activation

23.

Which component makes up the liquid portion of blood and transports proteins, nutrients, and wastes?

a)

Interstitial fluid between cells

b)

Lymph in the tissues only

c)

Serum without clotting factors

d)

Plasma in the blood volume

24.

Which statement best describes a primary function of bone marrow in adults?

a)

Generates new blood cells continuously

b)

Stores excess plasma proteins long-term

c)

Stores oxygen for skeletal muscles

d)

Filters worn-out erythrocytes exclusively

25.

Which feature best distinguishes cardiac muscle fibers from skeletal muscle fibers

a)

Branched fibers with intercalated discs

b)

Multinucleated fibers with voluntary control

c)

Unbranched fibers without intercalated discs

d)

Spindle-shaped fibers lacking striations

26.

Visceral (smooth) muscle is most likely found in which organ?

a)

Extensor tendons of the wrist

b)

Walls of the stomach

c)

Biceps brachii of the arm

d)

Diaphragm of the thorax

27.

Which set lists ONLY typical locations of visceral (smooth) muscle?

a)

Heart, triceps, esophagus

b)

Stomach, esophagus, gallbladder

c)

Quadriceps, stomach, heart

d)

Gallbladder, biceps, lungs

28.

What does Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) primarily measure in an endotherm?

a)

Energy for maximal exercise output

b)

Average energy used during daily activities

c)

Minimum energy required to stay alive at rest

d)

Energy for thermoregulation during movement

29.

Under which standardized conditions is BMR determined in humans?

a)

Post-exercise, warm environment, fasting

b)

During sleep, cold stress, fed state

c)

During light activity, room temperature, fed

d)

At rest, thermoneutral, post-absorptive

30.

Standard Metabolic Rate (SMR) is most appropriately applied to which group?

a)

Reptiles that are ectotherms

b)

Birds that migrate long distances

c)

Mammals that are endotherms

d)

Marine mammals during dives

31.

Which statement best contrasts BMR and SMR?

a)

BMR and SMR both require exercise testing

b)

BMR applies to ectotherms, SMR to endotherms

c)

BMR and SMR measure maximal energy output

d)

BMR is for endotherms, SMR is for ectotherms

32.

A researcher measures the resting energy expenditure of a lizard at a specified temperature. Which metric should be reported?

a)

Field Metabolic Rate (FMR)

b)

Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)

c)

Standard Metabolic Rate (SMR)

d)

Active Metabolic Rate (AMR)

33.

Which feature is shared by both BMR and SMR definitions?

a)

Measured during vigorous activity

b)

Require cold environmental conditions

c)

Reflect minimum energy requirements

d)

Reported only for mammals

34.

Which property of cardiac muscle supports its continuous rhythmic function?

a)

Long, unbranched fibers reduce conduction

b)

Intercalated discs enhance cell-to-cell coupling

c)

Voluntary innervation allows conscious control

d)

Sparse gap junctions prevent impulse spread