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Introduction to Processes and Process Management

Total questions: 106

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines a process in an operating system?

a)

A sequence of source code files in storage

b)

An instance of a program currently in execution

c)

A hardware thread managed by the CPU directly

d)

A static binary loaded but never scheduled

2.

Which PCB field tracks the address of the next instruction to execute?

a)

Process ID

b)

Program Counter

c)

I/O Status

d)

Memory Management

3.

A process is executing instructions and then needs to wait for disk I/O. What is the typical state transition?

a)

Running → Ready

b)

Running → Waiting

c)

Ready → Suspended

d)

Waiting → Terminated

4.

Which combination lists attributes commonly stored in a Process Control Block?

a)

Process ID identifier

b)

CPU register contents

c)

Open files and device info

d)

Compiler optimization flags

e)

User interface theme color

5.

In the Ready state, what is the process primarily waiting for?

a)

User input event to arrive

b)

CPU allocation to begin execution

c)

Memory to be swapped to disk

d)

Termination signal from the kernel

6.

Which state most accurately describes a process that has finished execution and is releasing resources?

a)

Suspended

b)

Terminated

c)

Waiting

d)

New

7.

What typically triggers a transition from Ready to Running?

a)

Completion of an I/O request

b)

Scheduler dispatches CPU to the process

c)

Arrival of a network packet

d)

User presses a keyboard key

8.

Which statements are true about the Suspended state?

a)

Process temporarily inactive

b)

Process removed from main memory

c)

Process currently executing instructions

d)

Process waiting on a semaphore

e)

Process finished and releasing resources

9.

Select the best description of the Waiting state.

a)

Awaiting an event such as I/O or semaphore

b)

Awaiting CPU after termination cleanup

c)

Awaiting compilation before first run

d)

Awaiting user login credentials

10.

Scheduling in process management is responsible for which action?

a)

Selecting the next process to run on the CPU

b)

Compiling programs into machine code

c)

Encrypting process address spaces

d)

Rendering user interface windows

11.

Which transition is commonly managed by the OS after an I/O completes?

a)

Waiting → Ready

b)

Ready → New

c)

Terminated → Running

d)

Running → Suspended

12.

Which statement best defines a thread in computing?

a)

A standalone program executing independently

b)

A lightweight unit of execution within a process

c)

A hardware core scheduling tasks autonomously

d)

A background service isolated from all memory

13.

Which characteristic distinguishes threads from processes regarding memory usage?

a)

Threads share memory within their parent process

b)

Threads allocate independent address spaces

c)

Threads require dedicated physical memory banks

d)

Threads swap to disk before sharing data

14.

Compared to processes, thread creation time is typically

a)

Longer and heavyweight

b)

Similar across both units

c)

Shorter and lightweight

d)

Unpredictable and hardware-bound

15.

In a process, multiple threads primarily benefit applications by

a)

Increasing isolation between components

b)

Reducing communication efficiency

c)

Improving responsiveness through parallel work

d)

Eliminating the need for synchronization

16.

Which scenario exemplifies multithreading in a word processor?

a)

One thread handles user input while another reformats

b)

Each thread runs in separate address spaces

c)

Threads cannot access shared document buffers

d)

A single thread processes all user interface tasks

17.

What is a key difference in communication between processes and threads?

a)

Processes communicate via shared memory directly

b)

Threads require inter-process communication mechanisms

c)

Processes often require IPC, threads can share memory

d)

Threads communicate only through network sockets

18.

Context switching for threads compared to processes is generally

a)

More time and expensive

b)

Less time and faster

c)

Equal time and overhead

d)

Disabled on modern operating systems

19.

Which statement about resource sharing is accurate for threads?

a)

Threads share code, data, and resources of their parent

b)

Threads cannot share file handles or caches

c)

Threads share only CPU registers between them

d)

Threads must copy data to communicate

20.

Select the benefits commonly associated with threads.

a)

Lightweight creation and switching

b)

Improved communication via shared memory

c)

Greater isolation for fault containment

d)

Enhanced application responsiveness

21.

Which application behavior in web browsers is enabled by multiple threads?

a)

Isolating tabs into separate processes only

b)

Parallel content loading and UI responsiveness

c)

Disabling JavaScript to reduce contention

d)

Single-threaded page rendering for consistency

22.

Which statement correctly compares memory spaces of processes and threads?

a)

Processes share memory by default within a program

b)

Threads allocate new address spaces per creation

c)

Processes have independent memory; threads share within process

d)

Threads isolate memory to prevent race conditions

23.

Termination time for threads relative to processes is typically

a)

More time due to heavy cleanup

b)

Less time due to lightweight state

c)

Identical across both abstractions

d)

Undefined and scheduler dependent

24.

Which real-world example shows parallelism via threads without blocking the UI?

a)

Spell checking runs within the only UI thread

b)

Background document reformatting on a separate thread

c)

User input and rendering in one combined thread

d)

Network requests forced into process boundaries

25.

In a multithreaded program, threads within the same process typically share

a)

Heap, code segment, and open resources

b)

Only CPU cores and no memory

c)

Just the stack and registers

d)

No runtime resources by design

26.

Which factor contributes to smoother user experiences with threads?

a)

Single-threaded execution hides latency

b)

Parallel operations utilize multiple cores

c)

Context switching increases overhead drastically

d)

Thread isolation prevents resource sharing

27.

Which misconception about threads is incorrect?

a)

Threads are heavier than processes to create

b)

Threads share memory space of the parent process

c)

Threads enable parallel tasks within one process

d)

Threads can improve responsiveness of applications

28.

When designing for communication efficiency within a program, choosing threads over processes can be beneficial because

a)

Threads use IPC channels exclusively

b)

Threads directly access shared memory structures

c)

Threads forbid synchronization primitives

d)

Threads require network stacks for messaging

29.

Which comparison best summarizes the key takeaway?

a)

Processes share resources for maximum efficiency

b)

Threads isolate environments to reduce overhead

c)

Processes are isolated with more overhead; threads share resources

d)

Threads require IPC while processes share memory directly

30.

Which statement best defines Inter-Process Communication (IPC)?

a)

Techniques for processes to communicate and coordinate

b)

Methods for compiling code into machine language

c)

Protocols for networking between remote computers

d)

Strategies for encrypting files on local storage

31.

In the diagram showing Process A and Process B, what does the IPC channel enable between processes?

a)

Data exchange and control coordination

b)

Exclusive CPU scheduling decisions

c)

Direct disk block allocation sharing

d)

Automatic cache coherence across cores

32.

Which are the two main IPC mechanisms highlighted?

a)

Shared memory

b)

Message passing

c)

Remote procedure calls

d)

Memory-mapped files

33.

What is a key requirement when using shared memory for IPC?

a)

Synchronization to avoid data corruption

b)

Kernel-only access to memory pages

c)

Mandatory encryption for all writes

d)

Network sockets for every process

34.

Which characteristic primarily explains why shared memory is fast?

a)

Direct access without repeated data copying

b)

Asynchronous signals processed by kernel

c)

Priority scheduling for cooperating threads

d)

Compression of payloads before writing

35.

Which risk is inherent to shared memory when multiple processes access it?

a)

Data corruption without proper coordination

b)

Dead network links causing packet loss

c)

GPU contention reducing frame rates

d)

File handle leaks in persistent storage

36.

Which synchronization primitive is commonly used with shared memory to coordinate access?

a)

Semaphores controlling critical sections

b)

DNS records resolving hostnames

c)

Checksum algorithms verifying integrity

d)

Paging algorithms swapping frames

37.

In shared memory IPC, which statement about efficiency is accurate?

a)

It eliminates overhead of inter-address copying

b)

It increases kernel context switch overhead

c)

It requires serializing data into messages

d)

It depends on network throughput entirely

38.

Which statement correctly describes message passing?

a)

Processes exchange messages via kernel channels

b)

Processes write directly into shared buffers

c)

Threads modify registers in another process

d)

Programs poll hardware ports for signals

39.

Compared to shared memory, why does message passing often have higher overhead?

a)

Kernel involvement and buffer copying

b)

Mandatory encryption and compression

c)

Network routing across subnets

d)

Frequent page table invalidations

40.

Which advantage is associated with message passing regarding safety?

a)

Eliminates risk of direct overwrites

b)

Guarantees zero context switches

c)

Prevents any deadlock conditions

d)

Removes need for scheduling

41.

During a send operation in message passing, what happens to the message?

a)

Placed in destination process queue

b)

Written into shared memory region

c)

Executed by kernel as a syscall

d)

Encoded into a hardware interrupt

42.

Which pair best matches mechanism to typical trait?

a)

Shared memory — direct memory access

b)

Message passing — kernel-managed queues

c)

Shared memory — heavy kernel mediation

d)

Message passing — no data copying

43.

Which scenario most benefits from shared memory over message passing?

a)

High-throughput data sharing within one host

b)

Unreliable networked communication across nodes

c)

Event notifications requiring strict ordering

d)

Rare, small messages between unrelated services

44.

Which statement about synchronization in IPC is accurate?

a)

Needed to coordinate and prevent conflicts

b)

Optional because processes never overlap

c)

Handled automatically by hardware caches

d)

Only required for kernel threads

45.

Which trade-off distinguishes shared memory from message passing?

a)

Speed versus safety in data handling

b)

Color depth versus frame timing

c)

Bandwidth versus wireless latency

d)

Storage capacity versus filesystem type

46.

Which statement best distinguishes pipes from sockets in typical IPC use?

a)

Pipes are bidirectional full-duplex channels

b)

Pipes provide unidirectional data flow

c)

Sockets only connect related parent-child processes

d)

Sockets are limited to local machine only

47.

In a client-server application requiring two-way communication across a network, which IPC mechanism fits best?

a)

Anonymous pipes between processes

b)

Named pipes for local filesystems

c)

Bidirectional sockets with client-server

d)

Signals for simple notifications

48.

Which property makes sockets network-transparent?

a)

Same API for local and remote endpoints

b)

Automatic message queuing on the kernel

c)

One-way communication semantics only

d)

Treating data as shared memory block

49.

Anonymous pipes are typically used for which scenario?

a)

Connecting unrelated processes via filesystem

b)

Connecting related processes like parent-child

c)

Implementing remote procedure calls over WAN

d)

Synchronizing access to mapped files

50.

Named pipes (FIFOs) differ from anonymous pipes primarily because they

a)

Support bidirectional full-duplex by default

b)

Are treated like files in the filesystem

c)

Are restricted to parent-child relationships

d)

Provide network-transparent endpoints

51.

Which characteristics are true of sockets in IPC? Select all that apply.

a)

Bidirectional full-duplex communication

b)

Common client-server architecture pattern

c)

One-way data flow only

d)

Same API for local and remote use

52.

Message queues enable which behavior in process communication?

a)

Synchronous blocking between sender and receiver

b)

Asynchronous exchange with queued storage

c)

Direct memory sharing without filesystem

d)

Signal-based command notification only

53.

Why might a developer prefer message queues over pipes in some designs?

a)

Queues allow sender to proceed without waiting

b)

Queues enforce strictly ordered synchronous reads

c)

Queues only support local machine endpoints

d)

Queues automatically perform remote procedure calls

54.

Which statement about signals is accurate?

a)

Signals carry large payloads for data transfer

b)

Signals primarily notify or command processes

c)

Signals implement transparent client-server RPC

d)

Signals guarantee asynchronous queued delivery

55.

Remote Procedure Calls (RPC) are best described as

a)

Low-level byte stream connectors

b)

High-level IPC invoking procedures remotely

c)

Unidirectional notification mechanisms

d)

File-based shared memory blocks

56.

File mapping enables efficient sharing because it

a)

Queues messages until receiver reads

b)

Treats file contents as a memory block

c)

Provides signal-based event dispatch

d)

Forces full-duplex socket sessions

57.

When multiple processes access a mapped file concurrently, what is required to avoid corruption?

a)

Client-server negotiation via sockets

b)

Kernel-enforced synchronous pipes

c)

Application-level synchronization mechanisms

d)

Signal-based retries with backoff

58.

Which IPC mechanisms are inherently bidirectional? Select all that apply.

a)

Anonymous pipes

b)

Sockets with full-duplex capability

c)

Signals sent between processes

d)

RPC over network transports

59.

Choose the most appropriate IPC for sending short control notifications with minimal data.

a)

Full-duplex TCP sockets session

b)

Message queue with persistent storage

c)

Signal from one process to another

d)

Memory-mapped file synchronization

60.

Which statement best describes the critical section problem in concurrent systems?

a)

Coordinating processes sharing resources to avoid inconsistency

b)

Optimizing memory usage across independent program modules

c)

Ensuring every thread completes within a fixed time slice

d)

Scheduling tasks so processors remain at maximum utilization

61.

What is the primary consequence of a race condition in shared data access?

a)

Unpredictable results and inconsistent system behavior

b)

Guaranteed faster execution of parallel processes

c)

Reduced memory footprint for shared variables

d)

Automatic priority boosting for blocked processes

62.

Which requirement ensures only one process executes in the critical section at a time?

a)

Mutual exclusion in critical section access

b)

Progress among waiting entrants

c)

Bounded waiting for queued processes

d)

Fair scheduling of all threads

63.

Which pair correctly matches a requirement with its intent when solving the critical section problem?

a)

Mutual exclusion — prevent simultaneous critical execution

b)

Progress — avoid indefinite postponement

c)

Bounded waiting — limit maximum wait time

d)

Deadlock — guarantee preemption of holders

64.

Interleaved execution over shared memory primarily threatens which property?

a)

Mutual exclusion during critical operations

b)

Throughput of non-blocking pipelines

c)

Cache coherence across multiple cores

d)

Deterministic order of function calls

65.

Which statement defines a semaphore in process synchronization?

a)

An integer-based synchronization primitive controlling resource access

b)

A hardware timer used to preempt long-running tasks

c)

A message queue for asynchronous event delivery

d)

A memory barrier ensuring instruction ordering

66.

Semaphores ensure that only a permissible number of processes can use a resource at any time. What does the term permissible number imply?

a)

A configured capacity reflected by the semaphore value

b)

The maximum number of CPU cores available

c)

The count of processes created by the scheduler

d)

The number of threads in a single application

67.

Which characteristics are core to semaphores? Select all that apply.

a)

Operate via atomic operations

b)

Prevent race conditions in shared access

c)

Manage coordination and synchronization

d)

Increase process execution speed automatically

68.

In the diagram showing P1 and P2 approaching a semaphore guarding a resource, what happens when the semaphore value is one and both arrive?

a)

One proceeds to the resource, the other waits

b)

Both proceed concurrently to the resource

c)

Both are permanently blocked from the resource

d)

Neither is affected by the semaphore value

69.

The wait operation (P) performs which action on the semaphore value?

a)

Decrements the value and may block

b)

Increments the value and unblocks

c)

Reads the value without changing

d)

Resets the value back to zero

70.

During wait (P), when does a process become blocked?

a)

When the semaphore value becomes negative

b)

When another process signals immediately

c)

When the CPU enters a low-power state

d)

When shared memory pages are swapped

71.

Which description correctly characterizes the signal operation (V)?

a)

Increments the semaphore and unblocks one

b)

Decrements the semaphore and blocks one

c)

Leaves the semaphore unchanged and logs

d)

Halts all waiting processes and resets

72.

Match operations to their alternate names.

a)

Wait — down operation

b)

Signal — up operation

c)

Wait — raise operation

d)

Signal — lower operation

73.

Why must semaphore operations be atomic?

a)

To prevent race conditions during updates

b)

To reduce cache misses on shared data

c)

To maximize throughput of I/O devices

d)

To allow speculative execution of threads

74.

Which combination of properties collectively addresses the critical section problem?

a)

Mutual exclusion

b)

Progress

c)

Bounded waiting

d)

Starvation freedom by priority inheritance

75.

A system uses a counting semaphore initialized to two protecting a printer pool. What behavior should you expect when three print jobs arrive simultaneously?

a)

Two jobs start; one waits until signaled

b)

All three jobs start immediately

c)

One job starts; two are terminated

d)

No job starts until all arrive

76.

Which statement best describes how a binary semaphore enforces mutual exclusion in a critical section?

a)

Allows one process at a time using wait and signal

b)

Lets multiple processes enter until the queue empties

c)

Blocks only I/O-bound processes from entering

d)

Permits concurrent reads but serial writes only

77.

A semaphore S initialized to 1 is used around a critical section. Which sequence correctly brackets the section?

a)

wait(S) before, signal(S) after

b)

signal(S) before, wait(S) after

c)

wait(S) twice around code

d)

signal(S) twice around code

78.

In the diagram of mutual exclusion in action, what does the dashed box around P1 indicate?

a)

P1 is inside the critical section

b)

P1 is blocked by the scheduler

c)

P1 is waiting on a counting semaphore

d)

P1 holds multiple resource instances

79.

Which property distinguishes counting semaphores from binary semaphores?

a)

Range can be 0 to N, not just {0,1}

b)

They only protect single critical sections

c)

They cannot be used for resource pools

d)

They do not support wait and signal

80.

Counting semaphores are most appropriate when managing which scenario?

a)

Access to a pool of identical printers

b)

A single shared variable update

c)

A mutex around one critical path

d)

Priority inversion avoidance only

81.

Binary semaphore typical values and meaning are:

a)

1 means free, 0 means busy

b)

0 means free, 2 means busy

c)

Positive means busy, negative free

d)

Any nonzero means free always

82.

Select all statements that correctly describe counting semaphores.

a)

Used for multiple instances of a resource

b)

Value represents available resource count

c)

Limited strictly to values 0 or 1

d)

Ideal for resource pool management

83.

What risk do semaphores mitigate when protecting critical sections?

a)

Race conditions between processes

b)

Deadlocks caused by paging

c)

Starvation due to CPU bursts

d)

Thrashing from memory overuse

84.

When S=3 for a counting semaphore governing database connections, what does the value represent?

a)

Three connections available to acquire

b)

Three processes currently inside

c)

Semaphore is binary and locked

d)

Zero resources remaining to use

85.

Which pair correctly matches semaphore type to typical use case?

a)

Binary — single critical section protection

b)

Counting — managing resource pools

c)

Binary — multiple identical resource instances

d)

Counting — mutual exclusion of one code block

86.

Which statement best defines a deadlock in operating systems?

a)

Processes are paused for scheduled maintenance only

b)

Two or more processes wait indefinitely for each other

c)

A single process waits for a user input temporarily

d)

Resources are freed automatically after short delays

87.

In the traffic gridlock analogy, what concept is being illustrated?

a)

Priority scheduling resolving collisions quickly

b)

Mutual exclusion among car lanes only

c)

Processes waiting for each other, none can proceed

d)

Cars share lanes freely without constraints

88.

Which condition describes mutual exclusion in deadlock theory?

a)

Resources can be shared by all processes concurrently

b)

Only one process can use a non-sharable resource at a time

c)

Processes release resources before requesting new ones

d)

Resources are forcibly taken when demand increases

89.

Hold and wait is present when a process does what?

a)

Holds at least one resource while requesting more

b)

Releases all resources before requesting additional

c)

Waits without holding any allocated resource

d)

Preempts another process to acquire a resource

90.

Which statement best captures no preemption?

a)

Allocated resources cannot be forcibly taken back

b)

Resources are preempted when priorities change

c)

Processes must yield resources after time slices

d)

Resources are shared in read-only mode by many

91.

Circular wait occurs when which situation exists?

a)

A process waits for itself to release a resource

b)

Each process waits for a resource held by the next

c)

All processes wait for the same single resource

d)

Processes wait randomly without any fixed order

92.

Which set lists all four necessary conditions for deadlock?

a)

Mutual exclusion, hold and wait, preemption, starvation

b)

Mutual exclusion, hold and wait, no preemption, circular wait

c)

Race condition, resource sharing, no preemption, fairness

d)

Priority inversion, mutual exclusion, aging, circular buffer

93.

In a resource allocation graph showing a cycle among processes and resources, what does the cycle indicate?

a)

Guaranteed avoidance using banker’s algorithm

b)

Possible circular wait leading to deadlock

c)

Temporary delay due to I/O buffering

d)

Fair scheduling among competing processes

94.

Which action would break hold and wait to prevent deadlocks?

a)

Allow preemption of allocated resources

b)

Require processes to request all resources at once

c)

Convert non-sharable resources to sharable ones

d)

Increase the number of identical resource instances

95.

A system experiences all four necessary conditions simultaneously. What is the implication?

a)

Deadlock is impossible but starvation likely

b)

Deadlock must occur with certainty every time

c)

Deadlock can occur; system is at risk

d)

Processes will complete with longer wait times

96.

Which strategy prevents deadlocks by requiring processes to request all needed resources simultaneously?

a)

Hold and wait negation policy

b)

Circular wait ordering rule

c)

No preemption enforcement

d)

Banker’s algorithm safety test

97.

Deadlock prevention may reduce efficiency primarily because it does what to resource utilization?

a)

Limits resource utilization levels

b)

Increases parallel throughput

c)

Maximizes CPU scheduling

d)

Eliminates all I/O waiting

98.

In a prevention scheme, imposing a total ordering on resource types addresses which condition of deadlock?

a)

Circular wait condition

b)

Mutual exclusion condition

c)

Hold and wait condition

d)

No preemption condition

99.

Which approach checks whether a resource request keeps the system in a safe state before granting it?

a)

Banker’s algorithm procedure

b)

Process termination method

c)

Wait-for graph cycle test

d)

Resource preemption rule

100.

Arrange the Banker’s Algorithm steps: a process declares maximum needs, the system checks safety, the request is granted if safe, otherwise the process waits.

a)

Declare max, check safety, grant if safe, else wait

b)

Grant request, declare max, check safety, else wait

c)

Check safety, grant request, declare max, else wait

d)

Declare max, grant request, check safety, else wait

101.

Which statement about deadlock detection is accurate?

a)

Systems periodically check for deadlocks

b)

Detection eliminates mutual exclusion

c)

Detection guarantees safe allocation

d)

Detection replaces prevention entirely

102.

In a Resource Allocation Graph, what typically indicates a deadlock has occurred?

a)

Presence of a cycle in the graph

b)

A single isolated resource node

c)

All edges pointing to processes

d)

No edges between resources

103.

In a Wait-For Graph among processes, a cycle signifies what?

a)

A deadlock among processes

b)

A safe allocation state

c)

Temporary starvation only

d)

Priority inversion event

104.

When a deadlock is detected, which recovery technique forces resources to be taken from processes?

a)

Resource preemption method

b)

Process migration action

c)

Banker’s avoidance step

d)

Priority aging scheme

105.

Which recovery approach aborts all deadlocked processes, potentially impacting performance?

a)

Process termination strategy

b)

Deferred detection routine

c)

Circular wait elimination

d)

Safety sequence computation

106.

Which considerations commonly influence recovery decisions after detection?

a)

System performance impact

b)

Process priority levels

c)

Network bandwidth quotas

d)

User interface consistency