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Business studies

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The systematic procedure for securing and reporting information defining a specific job is called as

a)

Job description

b)

Job Analysis

c)

Job Specification

d)

Job Alignment

2.

Collection of duties, tasks and responsibilities which are assigned to individual is called as_____

a)

Job

b)

Hobby

c)

Responsibility

d)

work

3.

A broad statement of the purpose, scope, duties and responsibilities of a particular jobis called as________

a)

Job description

b)

Job Analysis

c)

Job Specification

d)

Job Alignment

4.

_______________________describes skills, knowledge and abilities to do the job.

a)

Job description

b)

Job Analysis

c)

Job Specification

d)

Job Alignment

5.
What is recruitment?
a)
The process by which a business hires staff
b)
The process by which a business trains staff
c)
The process by which a business inducts staff
6.
Which of the following is NOT usually part of the selection process?
a)
Short listing
b)
Interviewing
c)
  Induction
7.
Which should NOT be on a job description?
a)
Qualifications
b)
Hours
c)
Duties
d)
Location
8.

Where would you usually find a summary of the work history of a prospective employee?

a)

CV

b)

Person specification

c)

Job description

d)

Interview

9.
Which one does NOT belong on a person specification?
a)
Pay
b)
Skills
c)
Qualifications
d)
Experience
10.
What is external recruitment?
a)
Recruiting from outside the company
b)
Recruiting from Asia
c)
Recruiting from current employees
d)
Recruiting from universiy
11.

Which is an internal method of job advertisement?

a)

Job centre

b)

Notice board

c)

Newspaper

d)

Testing

12.
In recruiting and selecting new staff, which is the correct order of tasks?
a)
interviews, job advert, selection, prepare job specification
b)
job specification, job adverts, interviews, selection
c)
selection, job specification, job advert, job specification
d)
job advert, selection, interviews, prepare job specification
13.
Training for existing workers is often used for which of the following reasons?
a)
to keep skills up-to-date and to improve efficiency
b)
to check to see which workers should be made redundant
c)
to explain the firm’s procedures and methods of working
d)
to increase the level of supervision needed
14.
Which of the following is one reason for a business using induction training for new workers?
a)
to see who is staying and who is leaving the business
b)
to check the standard of work of all workers
c)
to help select the workers that to be employed by the firm
d)
to explain the firm’s procedures and methods of working
15.
Which of the reasons is most likely to explain a business using off-the-job training?
a)
Workers need to be trained in operating new machinery
b)
The training staff in the firm have all the necessary skills
c)
The firm wants the cheapest training course possible.
d)
There is no benefit from meeting people outside of the firm
16.

Which stages comes first in the Recruitment process?

a)

Job Description

b)

Person Specification

c)

Job Vacancy

d)

Job Advert

17.

Internal recruitment has which of the following advantages

a)

Larger pool of candidates to choose from

b)

New skills and ideas

c)

Candidate already knows the policies and procedures

d)

No need for an interview

18.

Which of the following always takes place prior to an interview?

a)

Shortlisting

b)

Collecting references

c)

Induction training

d)

Informing the successful candidate

19.

Which type of training would be done when someone first starts at an organisation?

a)

Induction

b)

On the job

c)

Off the job

20.

Which type of training is most expensive due to course, accommodation and travel costs?

a)

Induction

b)

On the job

c)

Off the job

21.

Which type of training allows networking to occur?

a)

Induction

b)

On the job

c)

Off the job

22.

______ is an objective assessment of an individual's performance against well-defined benchmarks.

a)

Performance Appraisal

b)

HR Planning

c)

Information for goal identification

d)

None of the above

23.

What is linked with performance appraisal?

a)

Job Design

b)

Development

c)

Job analysis

d)

None of the above

24.

Which of the following is an alternate term used for performance appraisal?

a)

Quality and quantity of output

b)

Job knowledge

c)

Employee assessment

d)

None of the above

25.

Which of these is an issue while designing an appraisal programme?

a)

Quality

b)

What methods of appraisal are to be used

c)

Quantity

d)

Cost of effectiveness

26.

When appraisals are made by superiors, peers, subordinates and clients then it is called ____.

a)

360 degree feedback

b)

180 degree feedback

c)

Self - appraisal

d)

None of the above

27.

Which is the simplest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance?

a)

Rating Scales

b)

Critical Incident

c)

Cost accounting

d)

BARS

28.

What is leadership?

a)

The ability to cook instance noodles

b)

The ability to drive a car

c)

The ability to wake up every morning

d)

The ability to lead a individual or a group of people in an organization to achieve its goals.

29.

An authoritative leader exhibits the following characteristics:

a)

Controlling, intimidating, regimented

b)

Controlling, intimidating, orderly

c)

Controlling, regimented, stable

d)

Controlling, knowledgeable, regimented

30.

An authoritative leadership style is effective when:

a)

there isn't a need to monitor the team closely.

b)

there is room for error.

c)

the team has little experience.

d)

the project needs input from all members.

31.

One of the following is not a feature of an autocratic management style.

a)

The manager makes all decisions.

b)

The manager has total control.

c)

The manager encourages team work.

d)

The manager closely supervises employees.

32.

Participative or democratic management:

a)

centralises authority with the democratically elected manager.

b)

encourages employees to take responsibility for their work.

c)

requires a lot of supervision of employees as employees are responsible for their own work.

d)

reduces the time it takes to make decisions.

33.

Laissez-faire management:

a)

provides a lot of direction to employees on what their roles are.

b)

makes staff responsible for their own work.

c)

can lead to great productivity in the workplace.

d)

delegates decisions to employees and does not provide feedback.

34.

describe the expression -

" leaders are distant and remote "

a)

Not easy to get to know or communicate with.

b)

Control every employees by himself / herself.

c)

Leaders are always listened to their subordinates.

d)

Leaders are easy to get to know or communicate with.

35.

This leader's lack of trust in his or her employees doesn't inspire them to be creative

a)

Laissez-faire

b)

Democratic

c)

Authoritative

d)

Autocratic

36.

Sets goals and then leaves staff alone to get the job done.

a)

Democratic

b)

Transformational

c)

Laissez-fiare

d)

Autocratic

37.

Best style for highly specialized industries such as Public Accounting and Law

a)

Laissez-faire

b)

Democratic

c)

Authoritative

d)

Participative

38.

A benefit to this style of leadership is quick decision making

a)

Autocratic

b)

Democratic

c)

A boss who drinks too much coffee

d)

Laissez-faire

39.

This style creates the best bond between employee and employer

a)

Democratic

b)

Laissez-faire

c)

Autocratic

d)

Lots of super strong glue

40.

A con for this type of leadership style is that the productivity may suffer

a)

Laissez-faire

b)

Democratic

c)

Employees need MORE coffee

d)

Autocratic

41.

What is remuneration?

a)

Benefits provided to employees for their work performance

b)

payment to employee for the exchange of skills, talents, knowledge and aptitudes.

c)

A commission paid to employees

d)

Bonuses

42.

Payments per piece; without being an employee.

a)

Piece-rate

b)

Commission

c)

Salary

d)

Wage

43.

What is an incentive?

a)

Overtime pay

b)

Adicional compensation for a job performance

c)

A piece-rate

d)

A retirement program

44.

Payment based on how much is sold.

a)

Piece-rate

b)

Bonuses

c)

Commission

d)

Salary

45.

Considered to be 30-40 hours a week

a)

Part-time employment

b)

Overtime

c)

Full-time employment

d)

Shift pay

46.

The compensation includes

a)

Salary, wages, bonuses

b)

Benefits

c)

Satisfaction

d)

Social Status

47.

The communication which is spoken, read, heard, and written is

a)

verbal communication

b)

non verbal communication

c)

gestural communication

d)

formal communication

48.

The term communication is derived from the term

a)

communis

b)

communico

c)

communicate

d)

None of the above

49.

the flow of communication from top to bottom is called

a)

downward communication

b)

upward communication

c)

horizontal communication

d)

upward communication

50.

gestural communication is

a)

formal communication

b)

informal communication

51.

Distance in communication belong to

a)

Physical barrier

b)

Semantic barrier

c)

Psychological barrier

d)

Organisational barrier

52.

Psychological barrier refers to

a)

premature evaluation

b)

ego

c)

emotions

d)

poor listening

e)

All the above

53.

suggestions, complaints and grievances

a)

upward communication

b)

downward communication

c)

horizontal communication

d)

diagonal communication

54.

Which of the following describes e-commerce?

a)

Doing business electronically

b)

Doing business

c)

Sale of goods

d)

All of the above

55.

Which of the following is part of the four main types for e-commerce?

a)

B2B

b)

B2C

c)

C2B

d)

All of the above

56.

What does the term 'E-business' refer to?

a)

Conducting business via the internet

b)

Only selling goods online

c)

Traditional marketing strategies

d)

Physical store management

57.

Which of the following is an example of a B2C transaction?

a)

A consumer requesting a service from a business

b)

A consumer selling a product to another consumer

c)

A business selling products directly to consumers

d)

A business providing services to another business

58.

In a C2B transaction, what does the consumer do?

a)

Provides feedback to a business

b)

Buys products from a business

c)

Requests a specific service from the business

d)

Sells products to other consumers

59.

What is the main purpose of outsourcing?

a)

To focus on core business areas

b)

To increase the number of employees

c)

To expand into new markets

d)

To reduce product prices

60.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of outsourcing?

a)

Increased control over all processes

b)

Focus on core activities

c)

Access to specialized expertise

d)

Cost reduction

61.

What does KPO stand for?

a)

Keen Process Outsourcing

b)

Knowledge Process Outsourcing

c)

Key Process Outsourcing

d)

Kinetic Process Outsourcing

62.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of KPO?

a)

Quick turnaround time

b)

Limited expertise

c)

High cost of services

d)

Security concerns

63.

What is the primary focus of BPO?

a)

Outsourcing core business functions

b)

Outsourcing peripheral activities

c)

Increasing in-house staff

d)

Enhancing product quality

64.

Which of the following is an example of C2C?

a)

A consumer selling to another consumer

b)

A business selling to a consumer

c)

A business providing services to another business

d)

A consumer requesting a service from a business

65.

What is the role of intermediaries in C2C transactions?

a)

To manage business operations

b)

To provide customer support

c)

To sell products directly to consumers

d)

To facilitate transactions between consumers

66.

What does LPO stand for?

a)

Legal Process Outsourcing

b)

Local Process Outsourcing

c)

Logistics Process Outsourcing

d)

Labor Process Outsourcing

67.

Which of the following is a reason for companies to outsource?

a)

To access specialized skills

b)

To reduce workforce

c)

To increase operational costs

d)

To focus on non-core activities

68.

What is a common service outsourced in BPO?

a)

Legal research

b)

Customer service

c)

Market analysis

d)

Product design

69.

Which of the following is a characteristic of KPO?

a)

Is only for large corporations

b)

Focuses on manual labor

c)

Involves high-end services

d)

Requires low skill levels

70.

What is a potential issue with outsourcing?

a)

Increased control over processes

b)

Higher quality services

c)

Loss of communication

d)

Reduced operational costs

71.

The growing interdependence of the world’s economies, cultures, and populations, brought about by cross-border trade in goods and services, technology, and flows of investment, people, and information is the...

a)

Multiculturalism

b)

International Trade

c)

Globalization

d)

Ecommerce

72.

This is the cash that is generated by the business when it operates successfully

a)

Retained profits

b)

Share capital

c)

Angel investor

d)

Owner savings

73.

Which of the statements about retained profits is false?

a)

You have unlimited amounts of money available

b)

Shareholders and employees could be frustrated because there is less profit to be 'shared out'

c)

You do not have to pay interest

d)

You are free to use it for any purpose

74.

Which of the following is NOT usually considered a personal source of finance.

a)

Savings

b)

Redundancy payments

c)

Crowdfunding

d)

Credit card

75.

Which of the following statements about personal sources of finance is false?

a)

Often cheaper in the long-term

b)

Less 'red tape' or delay in getting the cash

c)

Less personal financial risk for the entrepreneur

d)

May be harder to raise large amounts

76.

An amount of money that is paid back within an agreed amount of time, with interest

a)

Bank loan

b)

Angel investment

c)

Overdraft

d)

Retained profit

77.

Which of the following statements about bank loans is not true?

a)

Usually used for large amounts of money that need to be paid back over a longer time-frame

b)

Interest rates make the loan more expensive

c)

Easy to get

d)

Usually cheaper than consistently using a bank overdraft

78.

A short-term source of finance from a bank that usually is only used in an emergency/when needed

a)

Overdraft

b)

Loan

c)

Share capital

d)

Credit card

79.

Which of the following statements about overdrafts is not true?

a)

Short term source of finance

b)

It's really a small, short term loan

c)

It's flexible, in that it can be used whenever it is needed

d)

Cheap - the interest rate is usually lower than that of a long-term bank loan

80.

Wealthy individuals who invest in high-potential businesses are...

a)

Banks

b)

Angel Investors

c)

Shareholders

d)

Crowdfunders

81.

What do Angel Investors and Crowdfunders have in common?

a)

They require something in return for their investment

b)

They charge interest on money invested in the buisness

c)

They become part-owners of the business

d)

They are incredibly wealthy

82.

Case study: Apple plans to develop a prototype for an iPhones with a flexible display. Which of the following sources of finance would be most appropriate?

a)

Retained profits

b)

Selling shares

c)

Crowdfunding

d)

Bank loan

83.

Case study: the Business Incubator team 'TradeTools' - an online platform connecting neighbors who want to rent tools with neighbours that own them. They will pitch their business concept in May - what would be the most appropriate source of finance for this new, untested idea?

a)

Angel Investor

b)

Bank loan

c)

Personal savings

d)

Credit cards

84.

Case study: after years of success and growth, Shark Tank success story Lumibowl (a clip-on light that illuminates your toilet bowl so you 'hit your target' in dark of night!) is ready to grow extensively into other countries. It needs huge amounts of money in order to do so. Which source of finance would be a good fit?

a)

Raising share capital by transforming from a partnership to a public corporation

b)

Taking advantage of the agreed overdraft with the bank

c)

Retained profits of $80,000

d)

Crowdfunding

85.

Companies generally invite public deposits for a period up to:

a)

5 years

b)

4 years

c)

3 years

d)

10 years

86.

Which source of finance is preferred by investors who want fixed income at lesser risk

a)

Debentures

b)

Equity shares

c)

Preference shares

d)

Bank loan

87.

Which type of funds are equity linked debt securities that are to be converted into equity or depository receipts after a specific period

a)

Foreign currency convertible bonds

b)

ADR

c)

Equity shares

d)

GDR

88.

Preference shareholders are called :

a)

Partners of the company

b)

Owners of the company

c)

Executives of the company

d)

Guardians of the company

89.

Retained earnings is also known as:

a)

Residual owners of the company

b)

Loan capital of the company

c)

Short term capital of the company

d)

Ploughing back of profits

90.

Which one of the following is not the feature of preference shares:

a)

Provides fixed rate of return

b)

Provides voting rights

c)

Get Preference over equity shares

d)

Part of owner’s capital

91.

Short term funds are those funds which are required for a period not exceeding:

a)

Three years

b)

Two years

c)

One year

d)

Five years

92.

Which of the following denotes the feature of Indian Depository Receipt :

a)

It is issued only to American citizens

b)

It is purchased and sold only by NRI's

c)

It is traded in American Stock Exchange

d)

It is issued to Indian citizens only

93.

_________is called the lifeblood of any business enterprise:

a)

Profit

b)

Loss

c)

Finance

d)

Assets

94.

What do you mean by business finance:

a)

It is the requirement of funds by a business to carry out its various activities.

b)

It is the requirement of profits by business to carry out its various activities.

c)

It is the requirement of liabilities by a business to carry out its various activities.

d)

It is the requirement of customers by business to carry out its various activities.

95.

Preference shares and debentures comes under the category of:

a)

Short term funds

b)

External source of funds

c)

Long term funds

d)

Both external source of funds & long term funds.s

96.

Full form of GDR is:

a)

Global Depository Receipt

b)

Global Decomposite Receipt

c)

Global Direct Receipt

d)

Global Depository Repayment

97.

ABC ltd wants to issue huge amount of shares to raise its capital but the directors decided not to dilute the control to more people, which shares should they issue:

a)

Preference shares

b)

Equity shares

c)

Both of these

d)

None of these

98.

Which type of share guarantees a fixed dividend to the shareholders?

a)

Equity shares

b)

Preference shares

c)

Debentures

d)

Public deposits

99.

Which of the following is not a short-term source of finance?

a)

Trade credit

b)

Commercial paper

c)

Debentures

d)

Bank overdraft

100.

Which source of financing provides the business with working capital for day-to-day operations?

a)

Equity shares

b)

Trade credit

c)

Debentures

d)

Retained earnings

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