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Packet Switching

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

For packet-switched networks: Which of the following statements are correct?

a)

Data is transferred in small packets with a maximum length of 1000 B

b)

Data is transferred in small packets with a minimum length of 500 B

c)

If the source has a message shorter than 500 B, it sends it in a single packet

d)

If the source has a message longer than 8000 B, it sends it in a single packet

e)

One packet contains user data and another, sent immediately after it, contains control data

2.

Which of the following are advantages of packet-switched networks?

a)

Constant data transfer rate

b)

Synchronized time-division use of the channel between two nodes

c)

If it is necessary to equalize the data transfer rates between two stations, the packet is discarded and resent when the receiver is ready

d)

Packets are queued and forwarded as fast as possible

e)

All packets have the same priority when being sent

3.

To manage packets through the network, two approaches are used: datagram and virtual circuits. Each is characterized by:

a)

In the datagram approach, each packet is treated independently of packets sent before it

b)

In virtual circuits, the path along which the packet will be delivered is determined before the packet is sent

c)

In virtual circuits, all packets have the same destination address

d)

In the datagram approach, all packets of a message must arrive in the order they were sent

e)

Each packet in a datagram network has an identifier

4.

Which relations are correctly defined when comparing the datagram approach and virtual-circuit approach?

a)

The packet transfer time is smaller in the datagram approach

b)

With datagrams, short messages are transferred faster

c)

The datagram approach is more secure than the virtual-circuit approach

d)

If two stations exchange data for a long time, the virtual-circuit approach is more effective

e)

The number of packets sent is the same for both approaches

5.

Which performance parameters of a network are correctly defined?

a)

Transmission time – the time needed for the signal to go from one node to another

b)

Propagation time – the time needed for the sender to transmit a block of data

c)

Transmission time – time needed for the signal to be transmitted through all nodes along the path

d)

Propagation time – time needed for the packet to go from the source to the next node on the path

e)

Node delay – the time needed to process the data in the node before it is forwarded

6.

How many functionally different services does a packet-switched network provide?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

e)

6

7.

Packet routing is one of the most complex and important aspects of packet-switched networks. It must satisfy:

a)

Robustness

b)

Optimality

c)

Stability

d)

Reliability

e)

Effectiveness

8.

The place of decision defines which node(s) are responsible for routing decisions. It can be:

a)

centralized

b)

at the receiver

c)

at the sender

d)

distributed

e)

at the first neighbor node of the source

9.

Which of the following are routing strategies in packet-switched networks?

a)

Adaptive

b)

Fixed

c)

Flooding

d)

Alternative

e)

Random

10.

In packet-switched networks, for flooding routing it holds that:

a)

At each node, the packet is forwarded to all neighboring nodes

b)

The packet is sent from the sender to two of its neighboring nodes

c)

The path with minimum cost will be used by at least one copy of the packet that reaches the receiver

d)

If there is a path between sender and receiver, the sent packet will definitely arrive at the receiver

e)

To avoid congestion due to flooding, a counter is introduced that is increased at each hop

11.

Packet transmission is designed as an architecture that:

a)

Uses lines more efficiently than circuit switching

b)

Performs data transfer in small blocks called packets

c)

Sends data in packets

d)

Packets consist only of user data

e)

Packets consist of user data plus control information

12.

A network that uses a packet-switching architecture:

a)

Does guarantee reliable delivery of data

b)

Does guarantee reliable delivery of packets

c)

Does not guarantee reliable delivery of packets

d)

Is a best-effort network

13.

When a packet-switched network becomes overloaded:

a)

It blocks all connections

b)

It stops accepting new packets

c)

Packets may be discarded

d)

Packet delay increases

14.

When a node receives a message larger than the maximum packet size:

a)

It reports an error

b)

It segments the message into smaller parts and sends them sequentially

c)

It sends only part of the message up to the maximum packet size

15.

When a station has a message larger than the maximum packet size and splits it into smaller packets and sends them sequentially:

a)

All packets must follow the same path

b)

All packets may follow the same path

c)

Each packet is routed independently

16.

In communication with virtual circuits:

a)

All packets follow the same path

b)

Not all packets must follow the same path

c)

Each packet is routed independently

17.

The main characteristic of the virtual-circuit technique is that:

a)

All packets must follow the same path

b)

The path is established in advance for all packets

c)

All connections have a fixed path

d)

A path is pre-established for all possible connections

18.

What is a connection-oriented service?

a)

A mode of packet transfer in which the path is set up in advance

b)

A mode of packet transfer in which the path is not set up in advance

c)

In it, all packets travel along the same path

19.

In a connection-oriented service, the logical connection is called:

a)

virtual connection

b)

virtual circuit

c)

virtual packet connection

20.

When packet transfer is based on a connectionless service:

a)

The network forwards each packet independently

b)

The network does not guarantee reliable delivery

c)

The network guarantees reliable delivery

d)

The network does not guarantee in-order delivery

21.

In packet switching:

a)

The utilization of communication lines is higher than in circuit switching

b)

The utilization of communication lines is lower than in circuit switching

c)

The line can be used only by two nodes at the same time

d)

TDM (Time Division Multiplexing) is used

22.

The sending rate in packet switching:

4 lines
23.

How many functionally different combinations of services does a packet-switched network provide?

a)

Four

b)

Two

c)

Six

d)

Eight

24.

Which statement correctly describes external virtual circuit, internal virtual circuit operation?

a)

There is a dedicated virtual path between the stations and every packet is sent along it

b)

Different packets for the same external virtual circuit can be transferred along different internal paths

c)

Every packet is treated independently by both the user and the network

d)

From outside the user sees no connection, they just send packets one by one

25.

Which statement correctly describes external datagram, internal datagram operation?

a)

There is a dedicated virtual path between the stations and every packet is sent along it

b)

Each packet is treated independently, both by the user and by the network

c)

The network sets up logical connections between the stations

d)

Each packet is treated depending on (tied to) both the user and the network

26.

The time and place where the decision is made about which path packets will follow can be:

a)

At the beginning and end of the network

b)

At the beginning, when a virtual circuit is established, if the internal transfer is via virtual circuit

c)

At the moment when the packet arrives at a node

d)

The time of packet arrival at a node is predetermined in advance

27.

Based on the information a node receives, it runs an algorithm to find the minimum-cost path. Which algorithms are most commonly used?

a)

Dijkstra’s algorithm

b)

Jacobson’s algorithm

c)

Bellman–Ford algorithm

d)

ARPANET algorithm

28.

What are the two functions of a routing protocol?

a)

Defines the format and use of the fields in the packet

b)

Enables sharing of path (route) information

c)

Communicates with other routers

d)

Provides MAC address information so the router can send data over a WAN

e)

Determines the OUI

29.

Decisions about routing are most often based on which parameters?

a)

Network topology

b)

Traffic load (traffic density)

c)

Packet priority

d)

Data format

e)

Link speed

30.

The timing of routing-information updates is a function of:

a)

The source of the information

b)

The routing strategy

c)

The receiver of the information

d)

The network topology

31.

Which techniques are routing strategies?

a)

Adaptive routing

b)

Fixed routing

c)

Flooding (routing with flooding)

d)

Variable routing

e)

Random routing

32.

Which routing techniques are most often used by packet-switched networks?

a)

Fixed routing

b)

Variable routing

c)

Routing with virtual circuits

d)

Random routing

e)

Adaptive routing

33.

In adaptive routing, the information source can be:

a)

Local (at the node itself)

b)

Contained inside the packets

c)

In neighboring nodes

d)

In all nodes

34.

What best describes path selection at the network layer?

4 lines
35.

The router uses a routed protocol to choose the best path for data transmission. The router uses a routing protocol to compare LAN equipment through which to send data. The switch compares information from the routing table to choose the best path. Which statement is correct?

a)

The router uses a routed protocol to choose the best path for data transmission

b)

The router compares information from the routing table to choose the best path

c)

The router uses a routing protocol to compare LAN equipment through which to send data

d)

The switch compares information from the routing table to choose the best path

36.

Which protocol is used to eliminate loops?

a)

STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)

b)

BDPU

c)

UDP

d)

EIGRP

e)

learning

37.

What best describes the Spanning Tree Protocol?

a)

It allows the switch to eliminate switching loops

b)

It allows the switch to dynamically choose the best switch mode

c)

It allows the switch to behave as a router

38.

The ATM protocol model consists of which parts?

a)

User (user plane)

b)

Control (control plane)

c)

Management (management plane)

d)

Information

e)

Supervisory

39.

Which statements are true for ATM logical connections?

a)

A virtual path is a set of virtual channels that have the same two endpoints

b)

Virtual path is the basic switching unit in an ATM network

c)

To set up a virtual channel, there must first exist a virtual path to the destination node with enough capacity and appropriate quality of service

d)

Data through a virtual channel is always transferred at a constant bit rate

e)

A virtual channel is established between two end users of the network

40.

When traffic parameters are negotiated, agreement must be reached on:

a)

Average bit rate

b)

Peak (maximum) bit rate

c)

Minimum bit rate

d)

Cell delay

41.

Possible control mechanisms for a virtual path are:

a)

Semi-permanent

b)

User-controlled

c)

Network-controlled

d)

Meta-signaling based

e)

Controlled by a central node

42.

Which statements are true for an ATM cell?

a)

Each cell has a minimum length of 53 octets

b)

Each cell has a 5-octet header and a 48-octet payload field

c)

All cells have the same priority

d)

The cell header contains the virtual path and virtual channel identifiers

e)

VCI determines the routing field for the network

43.

Which data rates are supported for ATM cells?

a)

622.08 Mbps

b)

155.52 Mbps

c)

52.84 Mbps

d)

25.6 Mbps

e)

1.044 Mbps

44.

Mark the non–real-time services provided by ATM:

a)

Non–real-time Variable Bit Rate (nrt-VBR)

b)

Available Bit Rate (ABR)

c)

Unspecified Bit Rate (UBR)

d)

Constant Bit Rate (CBR)

e)

Real-time Variable Bit Rate (rt-VBR)

45.

The adaptation layer (AAL) in the ATM model consists of which logical sublayers?

a)

Convergence sublayer

b)

Segmentation and Reassembly (SAR) sublayer

c)

Transmission-control sublayer

46.

Compared to X.25, frame-based exchange (frame relay) is characterized by:

a)

Shared logical links for control and user data

b)

Implementation of flow control on each node-to-node link

c)

Multiplexing and switching of logical links is done at layer 3

d)

Control signaling is placed on a different logical link from the user data

e)

No error control on each node-to-node link

47.

Virtual channels established between end users are used for:

a)

Transfer of user data and control signals from one end to the other

b)

Transfer of network-information between users

c)

Network management

d)

Transfer of data between intermediate nodes

48.

When a virtual channel is established between a user and a network entity, it is used for:

a)

Transfer of control signals between the user and the network

b)

Accumulation of the traffic from exchanges between the user and the network or from a network server

c)

Management of network traffic

d)

Transfer of user data and control signals from one end to the other

49.

When a virtual channel is established between network entities, it is used for:

a)

Network-traffic management

b)

Routing

c)

Transfer of control signals between network entities

d)

Transfer of control signals

50.

Which statements are true for ATM logical connections?

a)

Virtual path is the basic switching unit in an ATM network

b)

A virtual channel is established between two end users of the network

c)

To set up a virtual path, there must first be a virtual channel to the destination node

d)

Data over one virtual channel is always transferred at a constant bit rate

51.

When traffic parameters are negotiated, agreement must be reached on:

a)

Average transmission rate

b)

Maximum (peak) transmission rate

52.

Over how many bits of the ATM cell header is the header error control field calculated?

a)

32

b)

16

c)

24

d)

40

53.

In which phase is the receiver of an ATM cell as long as header errors are being detected (and corrected)?

a)

Correction phase

b)

Detection phase

54.

If an error occurs in how many bits will it be corrected at the receiver?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

55.

Congestion in a data network occurs when the number of control signals to be transferred approaches the __ number that can be transferred:

a)

Minimum

b)

Maximum

c)

Average

d)

None of the listed answers

56.

Congestion in a network occurs when the number of data packets being transferred approaches the __ number of packets that can be transferred:

a)

Minimum

b)

Maximum

c)

Average

d)

None of the above

57.

When congestion occurs in a data network, which parameters decrease?

a)

Network performance

b)

Throughput (transfer speed)

c)

Network reliability

d)

Packet delay time

e)

Traffic intensity

58.

The size of the waiting queue at each node is:

a)

Constant

b)

Dynamically changing depending on traffic in the node

c)

Finite

d)

Infinite

e)

Always greater than 8

59.

In a node, packets usually arrive with a rate that is ___ the rate at which packets are forwarded/sent from the node:

a)

Higher than

b)

Lower than

c)

Equal to

d)

Lower than or equal to

60.

In which networks is the backpressure technique used for congestion control?

a)

X.25

b)

ATM

c)

ISDN

d)

Frame Relay

61.

In the choke packet technique, in which node(s) is the choke packet generated?

a)

In the source node

b)

In the destination node

c)

In the node where congestion has occurred

d)

In all nodes

62.

Which of the following is an example of a choke packet?

a)

ICMP Source Quench

b)

IGMP Source Quench

c)

ICMP Destination Quench

d)

IMCP Source Quench

63.

Which are advanced techniques for congestion control?

a)

Explicit congestion signaling

b)

Implicit congestion signaling

c)

Direct congestion signaling

d)

Indirect congestion signaling

64.

Which are techniques for implicit congestion signaling?

a)

Backward

b)

Forward

c)

Binary

d)

Credit-based

e)

Rate-based

65.

In rate-based explicit congestion signaling, what is defined?

a)

The maximum data rate at which the source may send packets

b)

The minimum data rate at which the source may send packets

c)

The maximum data rate at which the receiver may receive packets

d)

The minimum data rate at which the receiver may receive packets

66.

How many QoS (quality of service) priority levels are defined, as an aspect to consider in congestion control?

(a)  

67.

With explicit congestion-avoidance techniques in frame-based networks, who is notified?

a)

Sender

b)

Receiver

c)

End systems

d)

All nodes in the network

68.

Do the basic functions of frame relay natively support explicit congestion signaling?

a)

Yes

b)

No

69.

Which statements are true for LANs?

a)

LANs have lower capacity than WANs

b)

LANs cover a larger geographic area than MANs

c)

LANs use bandwidth up to 100 Mbps

d)

LANs have higher capacity than WANs

e)

LANs use bandwidth from 100 Mbps up to 1 Gbps

70.

Which characteristics must every backend network satisfy?

a)

Bandwidth up to 10 Mbps

b)

Centralized access to the transmission medium

c)

Unlimited number of devices in the network

d)

High-speed interface

e)

Bandwidth of 100 Mbps

71.

Which OSI layers are network-independent (do not depend on the specific network)?

a)

Physical layer

b)

LLC (Logical Link Control) sublayer

c)

Network layer

d)

Session layer

e)

Application layer

72.

Which are accepted LAN topologies?

a)

Ring

b)

Bus

c)

Extended star

d)

Star

e)

Tree

73.

MAC protocol ensures ordered and efficient use of the medium. Control can be implemented in two ways; which is true?

a)

In distributed control, the admin configures each device with the order in which it will send packets

b)

In centralized control, there is a controller that decides which device may access the network

c)

Performance with centralized control is always better than with distributed control

d)

In distributed control, each device maintains simple logic for accessing the network

74.

Asynchronous medium access schemes are:

a)

Round robin

b)

Reservation technique

c)

Contention

d)

FCFS

e)

Priority scheme

75.

Which are fields in every MAC frame?

a)

Destination MAC address

b)

Source MAC address

c)

MAC control

d)

Sender IP address

e)

FCS

76.

How many types of operations are implemented in the LLC protocol?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

e)

6

77.

Which statements are true about LLC (Logical Link Control)?

a)

Operation type 2 uses the synchronous balanced mode from HDLC

b)

All operation types use numbered PDUs

c)

DSAP and SSAP fields are 8 bits and define destination and source LLC user

d)

DSAP and SSAP fields are 7 bits and define destination and source LLC user

e)

Operation type 1 uses the synchronous balanced mode from HDLC

78.

By transmission technique, wireless LANs are divided into:

a)

Infrared

b)

Narrowband microwave

c)

Satellite

d)

Ad-hoc

e)

Wideband (spread-spectrum) microwave

79.

100Base-T Ethernet LAN has a transmission rate of __ Mbps:

a)

1

b)

10

c)

100

d)

1000

80.

10Base2 Ethernet LAN has a rate of __ Mbps:

a)

1

b)

2

81.

The “T” in 10Base-T and 100Base-T stands for:

a)

Data rate

b)

Type of cable (twisted pair)

c)

Type of signal

82.

Each station in a(n) ___ network is identified by a unique 6-byte physical address.

a)

Ethernet

b)

Token Ring

c)

FDDI

d)

All of the above

83.

Which companies were responsible for creating and implementing the first Ethernet LAN standard?

a)

Digital (DEC)

b)

Microsoft

c)

Intel

d)

Xerox

e)

Cisco

84.

In which of the following cases is a straight-through cable used?

a)

Router – switch

b)

PC – hub

c)

Router – router

d)

Router – PC

e)

Switch – PC

85.

What is the most commonly used LAN technology?

a)

FDDI

b)

Coaxial

c)

Ethernet

d)

Token Ring

86.

Which Ethernet characteristics contributed to its massive use?

a)

Easy to maintain

b)

Collision-free technology

87.

Which statements about CSMA/CD are true?

a)

It is a media access method used in LANs

b)

When a device wants to transmit, it checks if the medium is free

c)

Only one device can successfully transmit at a time

d)

It is used in WANs

e)

The device sends without checking the medium, because all devices have equal access

88.

What type of cable is used between a terminal and a console port?

a)

Cross-over

b)

Straight-through

c)

Rollover

d)

Patch

89.

Which switching method forwards a frame as soon as the destination MAC address is known?

a)

Fragment-free

b)

Cut-through

c)

Store-and-forward

d)

Latency forwarding

90.

What is the disadvantage of cut-through switching?

a)

No error checking

b)

Reduced error checking

c)

Reduced number of collision domains

d)

Reduced bandwidth

e)

Increased latency

91.

What can help with excessive collisions in a LAN?

a)

Reduce the number of broadcast domains

b)

Add managed switches

c)

Add additional transceivers

d)

Add more hubs

e)

Reduce the size of collision domains

92.

Which are IEEE-defined sublayers of the OSI Data Link layer?

a)

Logical Link Control

b)

Logical Link Communication

c)

Media Access Control

d)

Logical Layer Control

e)

Media Access Communication

93.

What is the length of a MAC address?

a)

24 bits

b)

48 bits

c)

8 bits

d)

8 bytes

e)

24 bytes

94.

What happens in an Ethernet network when a collision occurs?

a)

The backoff algorithm is invoked and transmission stops

b)

Devices involved in the collision get a random priority period for retransmission

c)

Devices involved in the collision have no transmission priority afterwards

d)

Devices with data to send return to listen-before-transmit mode

e)

Transmission restarts with “successful” delivery of all data

95.

Where is the MAC address stored?

a)

DHCP server database

b)

Configured by the administrator

c)

Burned into ROM on the NIC

d)

In the OS network configuration

e)

Built into the CPU chip

96.

Which are included in the address field of a frame?

a)

Final (destination) IP address

b)

Final subnet mask

c)

Source MAC address

d)

Destination MAC address

97.

Which network devices split a network into separate collision domains?

a)

Bridge

b)

Switch

c)

AUI

98.

Which term refers to the way a network is arranged, physically or logically?

a)

line configuration

b)

topology

c)

transmission method

d)

modulation method

99.

If the line is divided so one device controls traffic and others must transmit through it, the connection is:

a)

peer-to-peer

b)

point-to-point

c)

primary-secondary

d)

master-slave