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Air law

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When was the ICAO established?

a)

1944

b)

1945

c)

1947

2.

How many annexes to the Chicago convention are there ?

a)

17

b)

18

c)

19

3.

Which ICAO annex deals with personnel licensing?

a)

Annex 1

b)

Annex 2

c)

Annex 6

4.

Which ICAO annex deals with Rules of the air?

a)

Annex 1

b)

Annex 2

c)

Annex 6

5.

Which ICAO annex deals with Aircraft operation?

a)

Annex 1

b)

Annex 2

c)

Annex 6

6.

Which ICAO annex deals with Airport certification?

a)

Annex 12

b)

Annex 8

c)

Annex 14

7.

How often are permanent changes to the AIP published?

a)

14 days

b)

28 days

c)

30 days

8.

Pilot in comand must comply with the rules of the air

a)

of the airspace of the state he is flying in

b)

of the state the aircraft is registered in

c)

of the state of the departure

9.

May the pilot depart from the rules of the air?

a)

Never

b)

Yes, anytime he thinks it is safe

c)

Only when avoiding immediate danger

10.

Select correct statement

a)

Aircraft must never be flown below 1 000 ft AGL

b)

Aircraft must not be flown below a height that would enable the pilot to make an

emergency landing without danger to persons or property on the surface in

the event of a power unit failure.

c)

Aircraft must never be flown below 500 ft above settlements

11.

Unless we have written permission from the

CAA we must not fly over an organised open-

air assembly below:

a)

500 ft

b)

1 000 ft

c)

A height which would enable us to land clear

of the assembly should the power unit fail, or at 1 000 ft

whichever is the higher.

12.

The minimum flying height outside towns, cities, open-air organised assemblies of people is:

a)

500 ft

b)

1 000 ft

c)

500 m

13.

When flying in SIMULATED IFR conditions with vision restricting device (foggles)

a)

No supplemental rules or conditions apply

b)

Dual controls must be installed and a safety pilot with unrestricted view must be aboard

c)

Safety pilot with unrestricted view must be aboard, but dual controls need not to be installed

14.

Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ) is set up

a)

Around airports with no ATC

b)

Around controlled airports

c)

Where two or more airways meet

15.

When flying an radio equipped aircraft in and out of ATZ

a)

pilot must

report his position and height on entering

and immediately prior to leaving the ATZ

b)

pilot must

report his position and height on entering the ATZ,

but needs not to report immediately prior to leaving the ATZ

c)

pilot does not need to

report his position and height on entering

and immediately prior to leaving the ATZ

16.

Which of the following has the ultimate right of way in the air - helicopter, airplane, airship, glider, baloon

a)

airplane

b)

airship

c)

baloon

17.

Which of the following has the ultimate right of way in the air - airplane, airship, glider

a)

airplane

b)

airship

c)

glider

18.

Which of the following has the ultimate right of way on the ground - airplane, car towing a helicopter, car

a)

airplane

b)

car

c)

car towing a helicopter

19.

You are flying an aircraft having a right of way. There is another aircraft approaching you. What shall you do?

a)

Turn right

b)

Turn left

c)

Keep flying straight and level

20.

You are overtaking a slower aircraft. You shall fly:

a)

To the left of slower aircraft

b)

To the right of slower aircraft

c)

Above the slower aircraft

21.

Unless ground signals dictate

otherwise, or traffic pattern is

established in other way:

a)

All turns shall be to the left

b)

All turns shall be to the right

c)

All turns for airplanes are to the left and for helicopters to the right

22.

Which position light would your aircraft have on your left?

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

White

23.

Which position light would your aircraft have on your right?

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

White

24.

Which position light of an aircraft approaching you head-on would you see on the left?

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

White

25.

Anti-collision light shall be displayed

a)

At night only

b)

Even during the day when stationary on an airport apron with engines/rotors running

c)

In flight only, day and night

26.

Maneouvring area consists of:

a)

Runway+taxiway

b)

Runway+taxiway+apron

c)

Taxiway+apron

27.

Movement area consists of:

a)

Runway+taxiway

b)

Runway+taxiway+apron

c)

Taxiway+apron

28.

TORA stands for

a)

Take-off run available distance

b)

Accellereation stop distance available

c)

Landing distance available

d)

Take-off distance available

29.

TODA stands for

a)

Take-off run available distance

b)

Accellereation stop distance available

c)

Landing distance available

d)

Take-off distance available

30.

ASDA stands for

a)

Take-off run available distance

b)

Accellereation stop distance available

c)

Landing distance available

d)

Take-off distance available

31.

The first picture from the top means:

a)

Land in the direction of the T

b)

Circuits may be flown to the right or to the left

c)

Landing prohibited

d)

Gliders operations at the airfield

32.

The third picture from the top means:

a)

Land in the direction of the T

b)

Circuits are flown to the right

c)

Fly to a nearby airport

d)

Gliders operations at the airfield

33.

The fourth picture from the top means:

a)

Caution on maneuvring area, surface is poor

b)

Circuits are flown to the right

c)

Landing prohibited

d)

Gliders operations at the airfield

34.

The bottom picture means:

a)

Land in the direction of the T

b)

Circuits are flown to the right

c)

Only move aircraft on runways and taxiways

d)

Gliders operations at the airfield

35.

Seeing this would tell you:

a)

Treshold RWY 22 is temporarily displaced

b)

Treshold RWY 22 is permanently displaced

c)

Pre-threshold unfit for the movement of aircraft

36.

Seeing this would tell you:

a)

Pre-threshold available for taxi and take off, but not for landing.

b)

Treshold RWY 22 is permanently displaced

c)

Pre-threshold unfit for the movement of aircraft

37.

The single vertical arrow points to:

a)

Touch-down area

b)

Aiming point

c)

RWY treshold

38.

The two inclined arrows point to:

a)

Touch-down area

b)

Aiming point

c)

RWY treshold

39.

The red square at the farther end of RWY is:

a)

Stopway

b)

Taxiway

c)

Heliport

40.

How many classes of airspace can we have?

a)

7 (A-G)

b)

5 (A-E)

c)

5 (C-G)

41.

Which of the airspace classes are uncontrolled airspace?

a)

F and G

b)

A and B

c)

E, F, G

42.

In which airspace class(es) VFR flights are not allowed?

a)

A

b)

A+B

c)

F+G

43.

Which of the following airspaces is established around controlled airports?

a)

CTR

b)

CTA

c)

ATZ

44.

CTA vertical boundaries are:

a)

from ground level to a certain altitude/level

b)

from a certain altitude/level and up

c)

unlimited

45.

This airspace would be :

a)

Prohibited area

b)

Restricted area

c)

Permitted area

46.

Which ATC service would most likely control aircraft in TMA?

a)

APPROACH or RADAR

b)

TWR

c)

GROUND

d)

DELIVERY

47.

Which ATC service would most likely control aircraft in CTR or from holding point until after take-off?

a)

APPROACH or RADAR

b)

TWR

c)

GROUND

d)

DELIVERY

48.

Which ATC service (if established) would most likely control aircraft moving on the airport up to holding point ?

a)

APPROACH or RADAR

b)

TWR

c)

GROUND

d)

DELIVERY

49.

When the flight information service is provided to the aircraft:

a)

it is responsible for collision avoidance of aircraft

b)

pilots are ultimately responsible for collision avoidance

c)

it provides SAR service

50.

No further exeptions considered, what is the minimum required visibility to fly in C, D, E, F and G class airspace at day below FL100?

a)

5 km

b)

8 km

c)

5 NM

51.

No further exeptions considered, what is the minimum required vertical distance from clouds in C, D, E, F and G class airspace at day below FL100?

a)

1 000 ft

b)

1 500 ft

c)

1 000 m

52.

No further exeptions considered, what is the minimum required lateral distance from clouds in C, D, E, F and G class airspace at day below FL100?

a)

1 500 ft

b)

1 500 m

c)

1 000 m

53.

When flying eastbound VFR, it would be a good practice to fly at:

a)

3 000 ft

b)

4 500 ft

c)

3 500 ft

54.

When flying westbound VFR, it would be a good practice to fly at:

a)

3 000 ft

b)

6 500 ft

c)

6 000 ft

55.

Transponder code 7 000 means:

a)

aircraft in distress

b)

aircraft hi-jacked

c)

loss of communication

d)

general aviation uncontrolled flight

56.

Transponder code 7 700 means:

a)

aircraft in distress

b)

aircraft hi-jacked

c)

loss of communication

d)

general aviation uncontrolled flight

57.

Transponder code 7 500 means:

a)

aircraft in distress

b)

aircraft hi-jacked

c)

loss of communication

d)

general aviation uncontrolled flight

58.

Transponder code 7 600 means:

a)

aircraft in distress

b)

aircraft hi-jacked

c)

loss of communication

d)

general aviation uncontrolled flight

59.

Who controls Search and Rescue (SAR)

a)

ATC

b)

RCC

c)

FIS

60.

The helicopter sustained a minor damage during its operation. The damage is limited to VHF antenna being broken.

a)

Such accident must be reported to the investigation board

b)

Such accident needs not to be reported to the investigation board

c)

Such accident must be reported to the ATC