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Worksheets

Management and Production Worksheet Extraction

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement BEST explains why moving into management can be risky for an employee?

a)

Managers usually earn less than non-management workers.

b)

Companies allow managers to return to their previous jobs if they fail.

c)

Successful employees may not necessarily succeed at management.

d)

Management work primarily involves tasks similar to frontline work.

2.

Which trend best reflects the modern shift in manager–employee relationships?

a)

Managers provide minimal information to employees to ensure control.

b)

Employees are excluded from decision-making to eliminate conflict.

c)

Managers rely more on authority and formal controls.

d)

Managers collaborate with employees and share information openly.

3.

A manager who spends most of the workday directly supervising employees and ensuring daily tasks are completed is operating at which level?

a)

Executive

b)

Middle manager

c)

Supervisor

d)

Administrative manager

4.

Which management function focuses MOST on determining whether a company has achieved its objectives as intended?

a)

Planning

b)

Controlling

c)

Organizing

d)

Staffing

5.

Which of the following is a core assumption of Frederick Taylor’s classical management theory?

a)

Employees work hardest when given autonomy and minimal oversight.

b)

There is one best way to perform every job.

c)

Motivation is driven primarily by social recognition.

d)

Quality should be evaluated by employee self-report.

6.

Henri Fayol’s contribution to administrative management included:

a)

The Hawthorne effect and worker motivation

b)

Functional specialization and piece-rate compensations

c)

Identifying common functions of management and unity of command

d)

Creating assembly-line efficiency systems

7.

Which factor spurred the need for new management approaches during the Industrial Revolution?

a)

A reduction in factory worker hours

b)

Massive business growth and complex operations

c)

Widespread automation that eliminated most labor

d)

Government bans on child labor

8.

Quality management focuses primarily on:

a)

Increasing managerial authority

b)

Reducing waste, errors, and defects through total commitment

c)

Giving supervisors full control of production

d)

Encouraging employees to self-train and self-manage

9.

The Hawthorne studies concluded that worker productivity increases when:

a)

Workers are given strict instructions

b)

Lighting conditions are optimized scientifically

c)

Workers feel management is concerned about them

d)

Managers reduce the number of tasks assigned

10.

Which characteristic BEST differentiates a middle manager from other levels?

a)

They spend most of their time hiring new employees.

b)

They complete all management functions but specialize in one area.

c)

They are responsible for setting company-wide long-term strategies.

d)

They focus mainly on performing frontline tasks.

11.

Which factor is NOT explicitly listed as part of determining a company’s management strategy?

a)

The work performed by employees

b)

The characteristics of the business environment

c)

Personal values of each employee

d)

Characteristics of the management team

12.

Which statement BEST reflects 21st-century business competition?

a)

Most competition now occurs only within local regions.

b)

The Internet allows small businesses to compete globally.

c)

Global competition is declining due to transportation limits.

d)

Only large corporations can engage in e-commerce.

13.

Which age demographic is projected to increase the most between 2010 and 2050?

a)

16–24

b)

25–54

c)

55 and over

d)

All will increase equally

14.

What was a major unintended effect of Ford’s increased wages and reduced working hours?

a)

Workers became less loyal due to shorter shifts.

b)

Workers were less likely to buy Ford cars.

c)

Other companies were forced to improve wages or lose talent.

d)

Employee turnover increased dramatically.

15.

Which of the following BEST explains why management is increasingly complex in the 21st century?

a)

Fewer technological tools exist to support managers.

b)

Workforce demographics and competition remain stable.

c)

Managers face rapid change, global competition, and technological demands.

d)

Work is becoming more physically demanding than intellectually demanding.

16.

A supervisor with authority over employees but who also performs some non-managerial duties most likely belongs to which level of the management pyramid?

a)

Top

b)

Middle

c)

First level

d)

Administrative

17.

Which key change in the nature of work is highlighted in the chapter?

a)

More jobs require repetitive manual labor.

b)

Independent, isolated work tasks are increasingly common.

c)

Work is increasingly completed by teams using technology.

d)

Machines are being replaced by human labor.

18.

Which managerial function is MOST closely related to motivating employees and providing necessary resources?

a)

Leading

b)

Staffing

c)

Organizing

d)

Planning

19.

Which management theory emphasizes improving relationships between managers and employees to increase satisfaction and productivity?

a)

Classical management

b)

Behavioral management

c)

Administrative management

d)

Quality management

20.

Which of the following is a key factor influencing whether a management strategy is appropriate for a business?

a)

Personal hobbies of the managers

b)

Whether the business is old or new

c)

Customer opinion of the CEO

d)

Whether employees work part-time or full-time elsewhere

21.

Which of the following best explains why pure research is riskier for companies than applied research?

a)

It focuses only on correcting product defects

b)

It does not aim at solving current product problems and may not lead to a marketable product

c)

It requires no scientific expertise

d)

It produces immediate commercial results

22.

A company discovers that a new product cannot be produced at a price customers will pay. According to the chapter, the company should:

a)

Increase promotional spending to raise perceived value

b)

Produce the product in small amounts to test the market

c)

Stop development to avoid further losses

d)

Continue development until product research is complete

23.

Which manufacturing method is most appropriate for a firm producing highly specialized aircraft parts in small quantities?

a)

Continuous processing

b)

Mass production

c)

Custom manufacturing

d)

Repetitive production

24.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of mass customization?

a)

Using CAD/CAM systems

b)

Individual customers can control certain product features

c)

Per-unit cost remains extremely high

d)

Technology enables low-cost customization

25.

Repetitive production differs from mass production in that repetitive production:

a)

Produces unique custom units

b)

Uses simple, repeated tasks often to build sub-assemblies

c)

Requires longer production runs with fewer modules

d)

Cannot be integrated into mass-produced products

26.

Which location factor becomes most important for a company producing perishable goods requiring rapid delivery?

a)

Cost of energy

b)

Proximity to customers

c)

Availability of skilled labor

d)

Land zoning restrictions

27.

A company building a plant near a seaport is MOST likely motivated by:

a)

Low water costs

b)

Labor availability

c)

International transportation advantages

d)

Local environmental regulations

28.

Which of the following is least likely to be considered during human resources planning in production?

a)

Skills needed for each task

b)

Number of employees required

c)

Training needed for workers

d)

Advertising expense for hiring workers

29.

A production schedule determines all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Sequence of manufacturing steps

b)

Time required for each step

c)

Quantity of raw materials needed

d)

Order in which tasks must be completed

30.

Which layout choice is most suitable for a company assembling customized desktop computers using employee teams?

a)

Continuous assembly line

b)

Fixed-position layout

c)

Work-team cell layout with parts stored around the station

d)

Warehouse-based overhead conveyor layout

31.

Under Total Quality Management principles, which of the following is emphasized?

a)

Meeting production quotas before quality

b)

Zero defects and universal employee responsibility

c)

Minimizing employee involvement in quality

d)

Isolating quality decisions to engineers and supervisors only

32.

Which statement most accurately describes computer-integrated manufacturing (CIM)?

a)

It uses computers only to design products

b)

It links design, planning, resource management, and control via computers

c)

It replaces all human labor with robots

d)

It improves quality but reduces production flexibility

33.

A service differs from a tangible product primarily because:

a)

It is always less expensive

b)

It cannot be seen or stored and depends on provider availability

c)

It requires no quality management

d)

It is standardized more easily

34.

Which service characteristic creates the need for demand-capacity matching (e.g., bus schedules or lifeguards)?

a)

Intangibility

b)

Variability

c)

Inseparability

d)

Perishability of service availability

35.

SERVQUAL measures all of the following dimensions EXCEPT:

a)

Reliability

b)

Assurance

c)

Convenience

d)

Responsiveness

36.

Which of the following BEST explains why self-service can frustrate customers?

a)

It eliminates human labor entirely

b)

Customers may encounter unreliable systems or excessive online navigation

c)

It always increases costs

d)

It prevents companies from providing 24-hour service

37.

In intermittent processing, production is usually triggered by:

a)

A customer’s specific order

b)

The need to produce large volumes

c)

A fully automated continuous system

d)

Long-term mass output planning

38.

A manufacturer that places robotic stations along its assembly line primarily benefits from:

a)

Reduced need for skilled workers

b)

Improved quality and completion of repetitive tasks

c)

The ability to produce unique products

d)

Eliminating the need for TQM systems

39.

Which scenario best represents applied research?

a)

Testing various fuel types to improve hybrid vehicle battery efficiency

b)

Searching for new forms of energy with no product in mind

c)

Investigating unrelated scientific principles for curiosity

d)

Designing new packaging colors

40.

Which of the following tools is most useful for tracking project deadlines, task sequences, and delays?

a)

Critical-path grid

b)

SERVQUAL analysis

c)

Gantt chart

d)

PERT function only

41.

A company that offers education reimbursement primarily contributes to which HR function?

a)

Wages and benefits

b)

Performance improvement

c)

Employment planning

d)

Employee relations

42.

Which of the following most accurately describes the purpose of a job specification?

a)

To define the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job

b)

To outline the minimum qualifications required to perform a job

c)

To describe where a job fits in the organizational structure

d)

To explain compensation levels for a job

43.

Which recruitment method yields a pool of applicants most likely to understand the company culture from the start?

a)

External advertising

b)

Employment agencies

c)

Internal recruitment

d)

Job fairs

44.

A business requiring applicants to take a skills test must ensure the test:

a)

Is challenging and selective

b)

Measures only characteristics directly related to job success

c)

Is administered by outside agencies

d)

Is used for all jobs across the company

45.

Which step typically comes immediately after selecting the best applicant but before making an offer?

a)

Orientation

b)

Background check

c)

On-site interview

d)

Application screening

46.

Which situation is not an appropriate reason for a job transfer?

a)

An employee seeks opportunities for promotion

b)

The company reorganizes departments

c)

An employee has a conflict with a coworker

d)

An employee violated company rules

47.

Which turnover calculation is preferred when a company’s workforce size changes dramatically throughout the year?

a)

Termination method

b)

Replacement method

c)

Net separation method

d)

Workforce adjustment method

48.

What is the main purpose of an exit interview?

a)

To negotiate severance

b)

To evaluate job performance

c)

To gather insight into organizational weaknesses

d)

To confirm final payroll amounts

49.

The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) governs all the following except:

a)

Minimum wage

b)

Overtime pay

c)

Child labor restrictions

d)

Protection against workplace discrimination

50.

OSHA responsibilities include:

a)

Guaranteeing workers’ compensation eligibility

b)

Setting and enforcing workplace safety standards

c)

Regulating minimum wage and overtime

d)

Ensuring equal opportunity in hiring

51.

Which law requires employers to verify that applicants are authorized to work in the United States?

a)

Civil Rights Act

b)

Immigration Reform and Control Act

c)

Age Discrimination in Employment Act

d)

Equal Pay Act

52.

Which employee benefit is required by law for nearly all workers?

a)

Paid vacation

b)

Health insurance

c)

Social Security contributions

d)

Life insurance

53.

Which statement about the Affordable Care Act (ACA) is true?

a)

Only employers with over 100 employees must offer health insurance

b)

Insurance companies may deny coverage for preexisting conditions

c)

Individuals are required to have health insurance under the act

d)

Preventive care must be fully paid by the patient

54.

A company using 360-degree feedback benefits from:

a)

Higher wages for employees

b)

Feedback exclusively from supervisors

c)

Multi-source performance insights

d)

Anonymous feedback only from customers

55.

Employee assistance programs most directly support which organizational goal?

a)

Increasing the number of promotions

b)

Helping employees balance personal and work responsibilities

c)

Reducing compensation costs

d)

Improving compliance with safety standards

56.

An employee injured on the job receives medical coverage through:

a)

FMLA

b)

ADA accommodations

c)

Workers’ compensation

d)

Medicare

57.

Which of the following is the primary reason a company should avoid hiring applicants who make serious errors on their job applications?

a)

It indicates poor writing skills

b)

It could violate hiring laws

c)

Carelessness may predict future work performance issues

d)

It increases training costs by law

58.

Lobbying for diversity, cross-training, and self-directed work teams primarily addresses which HR objective?

a)

Reducing wage costs

b)

Preventing labor union formation

c)

Increasing equal opportunity and reducing discrimination

d)

Encouraging early retirement

59.

A layoff differs from a discharge because a layoff:

a)

Always results from poor performance

b)

Is typically temporary and linked to economic conditions

c)

Requires no documentation

d)

Cannot occur if the company is profitable

60.

A business with high equity but low retained earnings wants to finance a major expansion without giving up managerial control. Based on the chapter, the most aligned financing option is:

a)

Issuing common stock

b)

Obtaining long-term debt capital

c)

Offering cumulative preferred stock

d)

Converting to a partnership

61.

A corporation’s stock has a par value of 10,amarketvalueof10, a market value of 85, and a book value of $40. Based on the definitions in the chapter, which statement is true?

a)

Par value reflects the true worth of the stock

b)

Book value represents what investors are willing to pay

c)

Market value reflects current investor expectations

d)

Book value is always higher than market value

62.

A supplier offers terms 2/10, net 30. If the business pays on day 11, what happens?

a)

They receive a 2% discount

b)

They pay full price with no discount

c)

They pay a penalty of 2%

d)

They pay interest until day 30

63.

A business owner wants to keep 100% ownership, has limited savings, and needs a small amount of capital quickly. Which option best preserves control while minimizing risk?

a)

Selling common stock

b)

Partnering with a venture capitalist

c)

Taking a short-term bank loan

d)

Issuing preferred stock

64.

A corporation has 100millioninassetsand100 million in assets and 30 million in liabilities, with 2 million shares outstanding. What is the book value per share?

a)

$35

b)

$50

c)

$70

d)

$140

65.

A corporation issues new common stock. Existing shareholders’ main concern is:

a)

Increased par value

b)

Dilution of ownership and voting power

c)

Reduction in retained earnings

d)

Reduction in bond interest obligations

66.

A business using trade credit most benefits because:

a)

It lowers long-term debt obligations

b)

It reduces equity capital requirements

c)

It provides interest-free short-term financing

d)

It improves book value of stock

67.

A factor purchases a firm’s accounts receivable at a discount. What is the primary benefit for the business?

a)

Total profit increases

b)

Immediate access to cash

c)

Higher retained earnings

d)

Reduced interest rates on loans

68.

Which statement about preferred stock is false?

a)

It has priority over common stock in dividends

b)

It usually has no voting rights

c)

It guarantees dividend payments even without profits

d)

It has priority over common stock if the company dissolves

69.

A company wants to conserve cash while using newest equipment. According to the chapter, the best option is:

a)

A term loan

b)

A bond issue

c)

Leasing the equipment

d)

Selling preferred stock

70.

A business seeks capital but wants no influence from capital contributors. Which financing source best fits this?

a)

Common stock issuance

b)

Preferred stock issuance

c)

Short-term debt financing

d)

Venture capital

71.

A corporation with a steady profit, but facing recession risk, should prioritize retained earnings mainly to:

a)

Increase dividends for stockholders

b)

Replace depreciating assets

c)

Increase the stock’s market value

d)

Issue more common stock

72.

A convertible bond is attractive to investors because it:

a)

Guarantees higher interest than other bonds

b)

Offers security through pledged assets

c)

Allows exchanging debt for stock

d)

Has no maturity date

73.

Why is issuing new bonds often more expensive for a company than taking a bank loan?

a)

Bonds require collateral

b)

Bonds require legal filings, underwriting, and printing

c)

Bond interest is higher

d)

Bonds must be sold below par value

74.

A line of credit differs from a short-term loan because:

a)

It has no interest obligations

b)

Funds may be borrowed as needed up to a limit

c)

It requires no promissory note

d)

It provides longer repayment periods

75.

A corporation issuing only common stock initially (as recommended in the text) benefits primarily because:

a)

Dividends are guaranteed

b)

Profit distribution is flexible

c)

Stock voting power is minimized

d)

Retained earnings cannot fund expansion

76.

Which is not a typical reason for retaining earnings?

a)

Replace obsolete equipment

b)

Provide financial security during low sales

c)

Increase employee salaries

d)

Purchase new capital assets

77.

Venture capitalists invest in high-risk firms because:

a)

Most startups are guaranteed profit

b)

Government guarantees repayment

c)

A few successful investments outweigh losses

d)

They gain full ownership of every company

78.

A new partner in a partnership may be required to contribute capital primarily to:

a)

Match voting power

b)

Balance financial risk among partners

c)

Increase retained earnings

d)

Provide tax credit

79.

Which source of capital provides ownership rights?

a)

Term loan

b)

Preferred stock

c)

Mortgage bond

d)

Trade credit

80.

Which of the following is the primary weakness of time-based compensation plans?

a)

They complicate payroll calculations

b)

They encourage employees to prioritize quantity over quality

c)

They do not financially reward additional effort or high-quality work

d)

They violate federal compensation laws

81.

A company using a piece-rate plan risks which of the following unintended outcomes?

a)

Workers exceeding production limits and causing labor shortages

b)

Experienced workers using shortcuts that reduce quality or safety

c)

Employees refusing to take vacations due to commission losses

d)

Employees earning more than salaried managers

82.

A combination plan is most effective for jobs that:

a)

Are purely focused on quantity output

b)

Involve several activities unrelated to sales or production volume

c)

Require little to no training

d)

Function under minimum wage exemptions

83.

Which factor does not affect pay levels according to the chapter?

a)

Local economic conditions

b)

Federal minimum wage laws

c)

Employee gender

d)

Supply and demand for labor

84.

The most significant challenge for companies that relocate production to low-wage countries is:

a)

Lack of international minimum wage laws

b)

Higher-than-expected costs such as shipping and tariffs

c)

Inability to recruit employees

d)

Excessive productivity of foreign workers

85.

Defined benefit retirement plans differ from defined contribution plans because defined benefit plans:

a)

Guarantee a predetermined monthly benefit at retirement

b)

Are fully funded by employees

c)

Are more common today than in the past

d)

Are always tax-exempt

86.

Which of the following benefits is required by federal law?

a)

Paid holidays

b)

Employer-funded medical insurance

c)

Workers' compensation insurance

d)

Paid maternity and paternity leave

87.

A cafeteria plan provides value primarily because:

a)

It limits employee choices to reduce company spending

b)

It allows employees to select benefits tailored to their personal needs

c)

It guarantees equal benefits for every employee

d)

It reduces the need for HR personnel

88.

The most important principle of effective training is that it must:

a)

Be taught only by professional instructors

b)

Be interesting and connected to learners' prior knowledge

c)

Avoid using technology

d)

Be delivered in long uninterrupted sessions

89.

360-degree feedback is used in performance reviews to:

a)

Replace supervisor evaluations entirely

b)

Ensure evaluations are based solely on productivity metrics

c)

Gather feedback from multiple relevant sources

d)

Reduce the need for self-evaluation

90.

An employee should not be surprised by negative performance review results because:

a)

Reviews must be scripted in advance

b)

Poor performance should have been addressed earlier through feedback

c)

HR laws require verbal warnings three months prior

d)

Self-evaluations eliminate negative surprises

91.

A key reason companies outsource HR services is to:

a)

Reduce the number of employees

b)

Lower payroll taxes

c)

Improve efficiency by hiring specialized external firms

d)

Eliminate the need for HR policies altogether

92.

Which situation most clearly indicates a need for additional training?

a)

A worker requests more vacation time

b)

Mild disagreements during team meetings

c)

Increased customer complaints about service errors

d)

An employee seeks promotion

93.

The greatest disadvantage of commission plans is that they:

a)

Encourage unethical or high-pressure selling

b)

Provide no opportunity for high earnings

c)

Are illegal in most states

d)

Do not motivate employees to increase sales

94.

Flexible scheduling such as flex-time or job sharing is used mainly to:

a)

Reduce worker productivity

b)

Encourage overtime work

c)

Help employees balance personal needs while meeting business needs

d)

Guarantee identical work hours for all employees

95.

An effective performance review conference should:

a)

Avoid discussing employee weaknesses

b)

Focus on the employee's personality traits

c)

Be based on objective information and job expectations

d)

Guarantee a raise if the review is positive

96.

One major risk of limiting piece-rate production to control costs is:

a)

The company may violate federal productivity laws

b)

Employees will intentionally hide their true abilities

c)

Employees may become upset and morale may decline

d)

Labor unions may require higher quotas

97.

A company offering event tickets or gift certificates for achieving short-term goals is using:

a)

A time plan

b)

A cafeteria plan

c)

A non-monetary performance incentive system

d)

A defined contribution reward plan

98.

Informal training differs from formal training in that it:

a)

Must be conducted in a classroom

b)

Is unstructured and often delivered one-on-one

c)

Requires certified trainers

d)

Cannot be used for new employees

99.

Which of the following is not true about HR technology improvements?

a)

Electronic records allow faster updates to employee data

b)

Online benefits communication increases efficiency

c)

Technology eliminates the need for security precautions

d)

Employees may update some of their own information online

100.

Which statement BEST explains why marketing costs can sometimes exceed production costs?

a)

Marketing activities require specialized equipment and large labor inputs

b)

Producers spend more on research than distribution

c)

Consumer goods are too inexpensive to manufacture

d)

Retailers set higher prices than wholesalers

101.

A business that emphasizes increasing production efficiency because demand exceeds supply is BEST described as:

a)

Customer-oriented

b)

Sales-oriented

c)

Production-oriented

d)

Profit-oriented

102.

Which activity is LEAST likely to occur during the introduction stage of the product life cycle?

a)

High production costs

b)

High profits

c)

Educating customers about a new product

d)

Limited competition

103.

What is the MAIN reason companies identify target markets?

a)

To reduce the need for market research

b)

To group customers with similar needs

c)

To eliminate competition

d)

To produce the highest-priced product possible

104.

Which element of the marketing mix determines the maximum revenue per unit?

a)

Product

b)

Price

c)

Distribution

d)

Promotion

105.

A bicycle manufacturer using a positioning chart comparing "price" and "performance" is MOST likely trying to:

a)

Identify unsought goods

b)

Select target markets

c)

Increase advertising efficiency

d)

Choose international distributors

106.

A company that shifts focus toward satisfying consumers' needs during design, production, and distribution is applying which concept?

a)

Marketing mix

b)

Customer profiling

c)

Marketing concept

d)

Production orientation

107.

Which of the following is an example of a shopping good?

a)

Milk

b)

Toothpaste

c)

Laptop computer

d)

Candy

108.

During which product life-cycle stage do profits typically begin to decline even if sales remain high?

a)

Introduction

b)

Growth

c)

Maturity

d)

Decline

109.

The "place utility" provided by distribution refers to:

a)

Offering multiple product sizes

b)

Setting prices at competitive levels

c)

Ensuring products are available where customers want them

d)

Reducing promotional spending

110.

Which statement BEST describes specialty goods?

a)

Customers purchase them regularly without thought

b)

Customers are unwilling to compare alternatives

c)

Customers will search extensively for a preferred brand

d)

Customers buy them only during sales promotions

111.

Market research is most essential in which stage of developing a marketing plan?

a)

Setting the price

b)

Writing promotional messages

c)

Identifying target markets

d)

Determining warehouse locations

112.

A declining product that still has a small but loyal customer base would MOST likely require which strategy?

a)

Increase production

b)

Heavy advertising

c)

Minimal marketing and selling off remaining inventory

d)

Reducing all competing brands

113.

Which activity is NOT one of the eight major marketing activities?

a)

Researching

b)

Financing

c)

Packaging

d)

Grading and valuing

114.

A company selling tablet computers to both consumers and businesses is offering a product considered:

a)

A convenience good only

b)

An industrial good only

c)

Both a consumer good and an industrial good

d)

Neither industrial nor consumer good

115.

A sales-oriented business primarily focuses on:

a)

Heavy promotion and wide distribution

b)

Long-term customer satisfaction

c)

Offering low-quality goods

d)

Increasing research expenditures

116.

Which factor is LEAST likely to influence pricing decisions?

a)

Product quality

b)

Competition

c)

Demand

d)

Packaging design only

117.

In which product life-cycle stage does competition first become significant as similar brands appear on the market?

a)

Introduction

b)

Growth

c)

Maturity

d)

Decline

118.

Promotion mainly involves:

a)

Delivering goods to retail outlets

b)

Providing persuasive information to consumers

c)

Determining how many models to produce

d)

Setting product warranties

119.

Before determining the geographic area to market a product, managers should MOST likely consider:

a)

Production scheduling

b)

Climate and regional characteristics

c)

Retailer promotional budgets

d)

The number of employees in the company

120.

Which leadership trait most directly prevents a manager from reacting to stereotypes or first impressions?

a)

Stability

b)

Objectivity

c)

Understanding

d)

Confidence

121.

An employee follows a manager's guidance primarily because they admire and want approval from the manager. This is an example of:

a)

Reward power

b)

Identity power

c)

Expert power

d)

Position power

122.

Which situation would least justify an autocratic leadership style?

a)

A rush order with strict deadlines

b)

Managing temporary seasonal employees

c)

Highly experienced employees performing routine tasks

d)

A factory emergency requiring immediate action

123.

A manager strongly believes employees enjoy their work and take initiative. This belief aligns most closely with which management view?

a)

Close management

b)

Limited management

c)

Flexible management

d)

Open management

124.

Which soft skill is most directly harmed when a manager's verbal and nonverbal communication do not match?

a)

Teamwork

b)

Communication

c)

Networking

d)

Professionalism

125.

A situational leader supervising a team of expert employees working remotely should most likely use which style?

a)

Autocratic

b)

Democratic

c)

Open

d)

Close

126.

Which leadership characteristic most directly supports building cooperative relationships among employees?

a)

Initiative

b)

Cooperation

c)

Honesty

d)

Courage

127.

A manager relying primarily on position power will likely face which limitation?

a)

Employees follow willingly

b)

Employees grant the manager more expert power

c)

Employees may comply but lack motivation

d)

Employees feel appreciated and involved

128.

A manager adjusting the amount of supervision based on employee experience is demonstrating:

a)

Autocratic leadership

b)

Situational leadership

c)

Limited management

d)

Reward power

129.

Which is a disadvantage of the democratic leadership style?

a)

It reduces employee motivation

b)

It causes human relations problems

c)

It is inefficient for routine or time-sensitive work

d)

It prevents employee involvement

130.

Which factor least influences job satisfaction?

a)

Employee personal characteristics

b)

The manager's leadership style

c)

The employee's financial investments outside work

d)

Relationships with coworkers

131.

Employee assistance programs (EAPs) are primarily designed to address:

a)

Personal issues that negatively affect work performance

b)

Routine payroll and benefits administration

c)

Productivity tracking for high performers

d)

Job-specific technical skill training

132.

Which is the most important reason managers must understand their own biases?

a)

To appear more confident

b)

To treat employees as individuals

c)

To enforce more consistent rules

d)

To make faster decisions

133.

A new employee is nervous and insecure about a task. Which approach is most effective?

a)

Decrease supervision to build independence

b)

Provide close support and feedback

c)

Switch to an open leadership style immediately

d)

Avoid involvement so the employee learns independently

134.

Which leadership style most risks causing employee boredom and frustration?

a)

Open

b)

Democratic

c)

Autocratic

d)

Situational

135.

What is the main purpose of work rules?

a)

To punish employees for poor behavior

b)

To maintain an effective working environment

c)

To increase the number of tasks employees must complete

d)

To allow employees full control over their work

136.

According to the "hot stove principle," effective discipline should be:

a)

Delayed and private

b)

Immediate, consistent, and clearly communicated

c)

Public and unpredictable

d)

Based solely on employee feedback

137.

Which type of power is granted by employees rather than the manager’s position?

a)

Position and reward power

b)

Reward and expert power

c)

Expert and identity power

d)

Position and identity power

138.

A manager who routinely arrives late, despite expecting punctuality from employees, is lacking which soft skill?

a)

Networking

b)

Teamwork

c)

Professionalism

d)

Critical thinking

139.

Which statement best explains why a leader must have judgment?

a)

To react emotionally to difficult situations

b)

To make decisions based on personal preference

c)

To consider facts carefully before making decisions

d)

To avoid gathering new information

140.

Which of the following BEST explains why the U.S. is described as a "service economy"?

a)

Most U.S. firms focus on mass production

b)

Service firms greatly outnumber manufacturing firms

c)

U.S. firms export more services than goods

d)

Service firms require fewer employees

141.

A company increases the number of identical products produced per hour while maintaining quality. This is primarily an improvement in:

a)

Output

b)

Productivity

c)

Effectiveness

d)

Marketing efficiency

142.

Which situation reflects high supply and low demand?

a)

Prices drop because many similar products exist

b)

Prices rise because many people want the product

c)

Firms increase marketing to boost sales

d)

Product availability is limited, raising price

143.

A business that extracts minerals used by car manufacturers is classified as:

a)

A service business

b)

A goods-producing business

c)

A nonprofit enterprise

d)

A retail enterprise

144.

An American company competing with lower-priced foreign goods is an example of:

a)

Market segmentation

b)

Total quality management

c)

Global competition

d)

Mass production

145.

Which of the following BEST describes effectiveness?

a)

Producing the most goods in the least time

b)

Making correct decisions about products customers want

c)

Reducing workforce to lower costs

d)

Lowering product price while increasing sales

146.

Total quality management (TQM) MOST emphasizes:

a)

Using foreign suppliers for cheaper materials

b)

Continuous improvement and teamwork

c)

Increasing output regardless of cost

d)

Eliminating all employee decision-making

147.

Which innovation MOST transformed the relationship between businesses and customers by enabling 24-hour access?

a)

Mass production

b)

Internet technology

c)

Cellular communication

d)

Assembly lines

148.

A company redesigns its workflow by allowing groups of employees to manage entire processes. This MOST clearly illustrates:

a)

Re-engineering

b)

Mass production

c)

Downsizing

d)

Marketing

149.

A firm that reduces product variety and lays off workers to cut costs is engaging in:

a)

Empowerment

b)

Downsizing

c)

Specialization

d)

Output reduction

150.

Which statement about the GDP is TRUE?

a)

It includes illegal and off-record income

b)

It measures only goods, not services

c)

It excludes underground economy transactions

d)

It decreases when population increases