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Chemistry through Energy Review

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 3hrs 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

_____ substances have a pH range of 0 - 6.9 and turn pH indicators red

a)

Basic

b)

Acidic

c)

Neutral

2.

_____ substances have a pH of 7

a)

Basic

b)

Acidic

c)

Neutral

3.

_____ substances have a pH range of 7.1 - 14 and turn pH indicators blue

a)

Basic

b)

Acidic

c)

Neutral

4.

Which statement best defines a force in mechanics?

a)

A push or pull with strength and direction

b)

A quantity describing speed without direction

c)

An object's resistance to thermal change only

d)

A property measured only in kilograms of mass

5.

Which unit is used to measure force in SI?

a)

Newton

b)

Joule

c)

Pascal

d)

Watt

6.

Which pair lists two forces that oppose motion through contact or air?

a)

Friction and air resistance

b)

Gravity and normal force

c)

Tension and spring force

d)

Torque and centripetal force

7.

A 10 N rightward force and a 6 N leftward force act on a block on a frictionless surface. What is the net force and direction?

a)

4 N to the right

b)

16 N to the right

c)

6 N to the left

d)

4 N to the left

8.

Two students pull a cart in the same direction with 7 N and 9 N. What is the net force?

a)

16 N forward

b)

2 N forward

c)

0 N forward

d)

8 N backward

9.

Balanced forces on an object imply which outcome?

a)

Zero net force and no change in motion

b)

Positive net force and speeding up

c)

Negative net force and slowing down

d)

Zero mass and infinite inertia

10.

Unbalanced forces acting on an object will most directly cause which effect?

a)

Acceleration changing the object's motion

b)

Temperature increase without motion change

c)

Mass increase while speed stays constant

d)

Only a change in direction at zero speed

11.

Newton’s First Law describes inertia. Which scenario illustrates it best?

a)

A puck glides at constant velocity on ice until friction acts

b)

A ball speeds up when a larger force is applied

c)

A rocket accelerates as exhaust gases exit

d)

A falling object reaches a highest point then drops

12.

According to Newton’s Second Law, which change doubles an object’s acceleration when net force is constant?

a)

Halving the mass of the object

b)

Doubling the mass of the object

c)

Reducing time of motion

d)

Increasing distance traveled

13.

A net force of 12 N acts on a 3 kg cart. What is the acceleration?

a)

4 m/s^2

b)

3 m/s^2

c)

36 m/s^2

d)

0.25 m/s^2

14.

Two ice skaters push off each other. Which statement matches Newton’s Third Law?

a)

Forces are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction

b)

The heavier skater experiences a larger force applied

c)

Each skater exerts a force without any reaction

d)

Only the lighter skater accelerates due to friction

15.

When a rocket launches, the action–reaction pair is best described as which interaction?

a)

Gases pushed downward and rocket pushed upward

b)

Gravity pulling rocket down and thrust pushing up

c)

Pilot pushing lever and engines ignite upward

d)

Air pushing sideways and fins cutting the air

16.

Which statement correctly distinguishes mass and weight for an astronaut?

a)

Mass stays constant; weight changes with gravity

b)

Mass changes with gravity; weight stays constant

c)

Both mass and weight change between planets

d)

Neither mass nor weight change between planets

17.

On Earth, what is the weight of a 50kg×9.8m/s250 kg \times 9.8 m/s^2 astronaut (take g = 9.8 m/s^2)?

a)

490 N downward

b)

50 N downward

c)

9.8 N upward

d)

540 N upward

18.

Gravity depends on mass and distance. Which comparison is correct?

a)

Greater mass or closer distance means stronger pull

b)

Greater mass or farther distance means weaker push

c)

Smaller mass and closer distance means weaker pull

d)

Smaller distance and smaller mass means stronger push

19.

Which force directly opposes gravity on a skydiver during a steady fall?

a)

Air resistance (drag) upward

b)

Normal force upward

c)

Tension force downward

d)

Centripetal force sideways

20.

Terminal velocity occurs when which condition is met for a falling object?

a)

Drag equals weight with opposite directions

b)

Drag exceeds weight with same direction

c)

Net force equals mass times distance

d)

Gravity equals mass with same direction

21.

A 2 kg object experiences a net force of 6 N to the left while moving right. What is its acceleration and how will its speed change?

a)

3 m/s^2 left; speed decreases

b)

3 m/s^2 right; speed increases

c)

12 m/s^2 left; speed increases

d)

3 m/s^2 left; speed increases

22.

Which statement best defines friction in mechanics?

a)

Force opposing motion between contacting surfaces

b)

Force causing motion along contacting surfaces

c)

Force acting only when objects are airborne

d)

Force that always increases object’s speed

23.

Static friction is most accurately described as the force that

a)

resists start of motion between contacting surfaces

b)

opposes motion as flat surfaces slide

c)

acts when a round object rolls forward

d)

acts when an object moves through fluid

24.

A puck slides on ice with nearly constant speed. The primary friction type opposing its motion is

a)

sliding friction between flat surfaces

b)

static friction between stationary objects

c)

rolling friction on a flat surface

d)

fluid friction due to a dense liquid

25.

Which scenario is best modeled by rolling friction?

a)

A bike tire moving over pavement

b)

A crate being dragged across floor

c)

A swimmer moving through water

d)

A book resting on a desktop

26.

Which step is NOT part of constructing a free-body diagram for an object?

a)

Draw arrows for each force with direction and size

b)

Choose the object and draw a box or dot

c)

Label each force type and magnitude clearly

d)

Sketch the object’s path and its future velocity

27.

A 1.5 kg book rests on a horizontal table. Which set of forces must appear and balance in its free-body diagram?

a)

Weight downward and normal upward equal in size

b)

Weight downward and friction forward equal in size

c)

Normal upward and applied forward equal in size

d)

Friction backward and tension upward equal in size

28.

An object on a rough horizontal surface is pulled right by 50 N while friction is 10 N left, normal is 20 N up, and weight is 20 N down (as shown). The net horizontal force is

a)

40 N to the right

b)

60 N to the right

c)

10 N to the left

d)

0 N horizontally

29.

A crate initially at rest requires a small push to start moving, then less force to keep it moving steadily. Which explanation best fits?

a)

Static friction maximum exceeds kinetic sliding friction

b)

Rolling friction becomes larger than fluid friction

c)

Weight increases causing normal force to drop

d)

Normal force vanishes once motion begins

30.

A book is pushed rightward across a desk and speeds up to the right. Which free-body diagram best represents the horizontal forces?

a)

Rightward push larger than leftward friction

b)

Rightward push equal to leftward friction

c)

Leftward friction larger than rightward push

d)

No horizontal forces on the book

31.

A book is pushed rightward across a desk at constant velocity. Which statement about horizontal forces is correct?

a)

Push and friction are equal in magnitude

b)

Push is greater than friction

c)

Friction is greater than push

d)

No friction acts on the book

32.

Which set lists the four forces most likely acting on a book sliding across a desk while being pushed?

a)

Applied push, friction, normal, weight

b)

Applied push, tension, drag, buoyant

c)

Thrust, lift, drag, weight

d)

Magnetic, electric, weight, thrust

33.

Momentum p is defined as which expression and has which SI units?

a)

p = m v, units kg·m/s

b)

p = m/a, units N·s

c)

p = F t, units kg/s

d)

p = v/t, units m/s²

34.

Impulse J equals which quantity and corresponds to which physical change?

a)

J = F Δt; equals change in momentum

b)

J = m v; equals change in speed

c)

J = F/m; equals change in force

d)

J = Δx/Δt; equals change in position

35.

A 0.40 kg soccer ball moving at 12 m/s to the right is stopped by a goalie in 0.060 s by a constant force. What is the magnitude of the average force on the ball?

a)

80 N

b)

4.8 N

c)

8.0 N

d)

48 N

36.

A 90 kg sprinter at 8.5 m/s increases mass to 100 kg while keeping the same speed in another season. How does momentum change?

a)

Increases from 765 to 850 kg·m/s

b)

Stays the same at 765 kg·m/s

c)

Decreases from 850 to 765 kg·m/s

d)

Doubles from 765 to 1530 kg·m/s

37.

Two balls collide head‑on on a frictionless surface: ball A transfers all its momentum to ball B. Which statement best describes total momentum?

a)

Total momentum is conserved and unchanged

b)

Total momentum increases during collision

c)

Total momentum decreases to zero

d)

Total momentum depends on shapes only

38.

A 1.5 kg cart moving at 3.0 m/s to the right collides and sticks to a 0.5 kg cart initially at rest. What is the speed of the combined carts immediately after?

a)

2.25 m/s right

b)

3.0 m/s right

c)

1.5 m/s right

d)

0.75 m/s right

39.

A book is pushed to the right and moves at constant velocity while the push stops. What happens immediately after the push ends, considering friction?

a)

The book slows down due to friction

b)

The book keeps speed due to inertia

c)

The book speeds up due to friction

d)

The book moves left due to push

40.

Which statement best describes a reference point in studying motion?

a)

A stationary object used to judge another's motion

b)

Any moving object used to compare velocities

c)

The starting location chosen by the traveler

d)

An origin on a coordinate grid by default

41.

What is meant by a frame of reference?

a)

The observer's viewpoint for describing motion

b)

The map scale used to measure distance

c)

The path an object follows through space

d)

The instrument used to record positions

42.

Which quantity is a scalar?

a)

Time interval of 5 minutes

b)

Velocity of 12 m s south

c)

Displacement of 30 km east

d)

Force of 8 newtons west

43.

Which option correctly identifies a vector?

a)

A speed of 25 kilometers per hour

b)

A mass of three kilograms

c)

A displacement of 6 meters north

d)

An energy of fifty joules

44.

A hiker walks 4 km east, then 2 km east. What are the distance and displacement?

a)

Distance 6 km, displacement 6 km east

b)

Distance 6 km, displacement 2 km east

c)

Distance 2 km, displacement 6 km east

d)

Distance 4 km, displacement 2 km east

45.

A car travels 4 km east, then 2 km west along the same road. What is the displacement?

a)

2 km east

b)

2 km west

c)

6 km east

d)

0 km

46.

An athlete runs a winding trail totaling 750 km and ends 400 km southeast of the start. Which statement is correct?

a)

Distance is 750 km and displacement is 400 km SE

b)

Distance is 400 km SE and displacement is 750 km

c)

Distance equals displacement because paths match

d)

Displacement is undefined without path direction

47.

If you start and end at the same point after walking 10 m east and 10 m west, what are distance and displacement?

a)

Distance 20 m and displacement 0 m

b)

Distance 0 m and displacement 20 m

c)

Distance 10 m and displacement 10 m east

d)

Distance 20 m and displacement 20 m

48.

Two vectors act along a straight line in opposite directions, 8 m east and 3 m west. The resultant displacement is

a)

5 m east

b)

11 m east

c)

5 m west

d)

11 m west

49.

Which change would most affect whether an object appears to move?

a)

Changing the observer's frame of reference

b)

Changing units from meters to kilometers

c)

Changing the color of the object observed

d)

Changing the time of day for observation

50.

Which expression correctly defines average speed?

a)

Total distance divided by total time

b)

Displacement divided by total time

c)

Change in velocity over time

d)

Distance covered in a specific moment

51.

Which statement best distinguishes velocity from speed?

a)

Velocity includes direction of motion

b)

Velocity excludes magnitude information

c)

Speed includes displacement vector

d)

Speed and velocity are always identical

52.

Which unit is appropriate for acceleration in SI?

a)

m s⁻²

b)

m s⁻¹

c)

km h⁻¹

d)

m

53.

A car moves 150 km in 3 hours along a highway. What is its average speed?

a)

50 km h⁻¹

b)

45 km h⁻¹

c)

60 km h⁻¹

d)

55 km h⁻¹

54.

Which scenario represents instantaneous speed?

a)

Speed shown at a single speedometer reading

b)

Unchanging speed over a long trip

c)

Total distance divided by drive time

d)

Average velocity in a fixed direction

55.

Which change always indicates acceleration?

a)

Turning while maintaining constant speed

b)

Maintaining straight motion at steady speed

c)

Resting at a stoplight with engine on

d)

Moving equal distances each equal time

56.

A runner’s velocity changes from 2.0 m s⁻¹ east to 6.0 m s⁻¹ east in 4.0 s. What is the acceleration?

a)

+1.0 m s⁻² east

b)

+2.0 m s⁻² east

c)

+0.5 m s⁻² east

d)

+1.5 m s⁻² east

57.

Which option correctly matches the type of acceleration with its description?

a)

Negative acceleration: slowing down

b)

Positive acceleration: turning right

c)

Changing direction: speed unchanged only

d)

Positive acceleration: decreasing speed

58.

A cyclist moves at 8 m s⁻¹ north and then turns east at the same speed. Which statement is true about acceleration during the turn?

a)

There is acceleration because direction changes

b)

There is no acceleration because speed stays same

c)

Acceleration is zero because displacement stops

d)

Acceleration is negative because velocity decreases

59.

In a distance–time graph like the one shown, what does a horizontal line segment represent about the object's motion?

a)

Object moving forward at steady speed

b)

Object moving backward at steady speed

c)

Object stopped with zero speed

d)

Object accelerating at increasing rate

60.

On a distance–time graph, which slope indicates faster motion over the same time interval?

a)

Steeper positive slope line

b)

Shallower positive slope line

c)

Horizontal zero slope line

d)

Curved line bending downward

61.

In the distance–time graph panel, the red curve transitions from steep to gentler slope. What does this change indicate?

a)

Object is decelerating over time

b)

Object is accelerating over time

c)

Object maintains constant speed

d)

Object reverses direction abruptly

62.

Which statement best describes a negative slope on a distance–time graph?

a)

Object moves away from origin faster

b)

Object moves backward toward origin

c)

Object is stationary at origin

d)

Object speeds up away from origin

63.

Refer to the velocity–time graph with piecewise linear segments. What does a horizontal line above the time axis signify?

a)

Constant velocity with zero acceleration

b)

Zero velocity with constant acceleration

c)

Increasing velocity with positive acceleration

d)

Decreasing velocity with negative acceleration

64.

In the velocity–time graph, a line with positive constant slope indicates the object is

a)

Speeding up in the positive direction

b)

Slowing down toward zero velocity

c)

Moving backward at constant speed

d)

Stopped with no displacement change

65.

From a velocity–time graph, how do you determine the object's acceleration during a straight-line segment?

a)

Read the y-intercept directly

b)

Compute the slope of the segment

c)

Calculate the area under the curve

d)

Measure the maximum velocity value

66.

In a distance–time graph, a curved line that becomes steeper with time most likely shows

a)

Positive acceleration of the object

b)

Negative acceleration of the object

c)

Constant velocity throughout

d)

Intermittent stopping behavior

67.

Consider the blue polyline on the distance–time graph that rises, flattens, then drops back to zero distance. Which sequence best matches its motion?

a)

Speed up, continue faster, stop suddenly

b)

Move at steady speed, stop, return steadily

c)

Accelerate quickly, decelerate slowly, stop

d)

Oscillate around zero, then remain stopped

68.

If the velocity–time graph crosses the time axis from positive to negative velocity with a straight negative slope, what is true about the motion?

a)

Object keeps moving forward faster

b)

Object slows to rest then reverses

c)

Object remains at rest throughout

d)

Object moves backward at constant speed only

69.

Which feature distinguishes changing velocity from constant velocity on graphs?

a)

Curved distance–time line or sloped v–t line

b)

Horizontal distance–time line or curved v–t line

c)

Steeper distance–time line with same slope

d)

Any line segment parallel to the x-axis

70.

Two runners are shown on a distance–time graph with straight lines from the origin: Runner A has a steeper line than Runner B. What can you conclude?

a)

Runner A has greater constant speed

b)

Runner B has greater constant speed

c)

Both have equal constant speed

d)

Runner A starts later but finishes sooner

71.

On a distance–time graph, what does a section labeled 'Stop' at a nonzero distance imply about position and velocity during that interval?

a)

Position fixed, velocity zero

b)

Position decreasing, velocity negative

c)

Position increasing, velocity positive

d)

Position oscillating, velocity varying

72.

The area under a velocity–time graph between t1 and t2 represents which quantity?

a)

Change in acceleration

b)

Change in displacement

c)

Average acceleration

d)

Instantaneous speed

73.

Which statement best describes a chemical equation?

a)

It shows how atoms combine and react

b)

It lists atomic masses for each element

c)

It displays electron configurations for atoms

d)

It records temperatures for physical changes

74.

Which observation is a reliable sign that a chemical reaction occurred?

a)

Bubbling indicating gas formation

b)

Increase in mass without cause

c)

Temporary warming by sunlight

d)

Phase change from melting only

75.

In a chemical equation, what are reactants?

a)

Substances that go into the reaction

b)

Substances that come out as products

c)

Small numbers showing atom counts

d)

Arrows indicating direction of yield

76.

What does the coefficient in 2H2O represent?

a)

Number of molecules present

b)

Number of oxygen atoms only

c)

Charge on the water molecule

d)

Number of hydrogen atoms only

77.

According to the law of conservation of mass, which statement is true?

a)

Mass is neither created nor destroyed

b)

Mass may increase with temperature

c)

Products always weigh less than reactants

d)

Mass is created during combustion

78.

Which part of an equation indicates “to produce”?

a)

The reaction arrow symbol

b)

The plus signs between terms

c)

The subscripts near elements

d)

The parentheses in formulas

79.

Balancing chemical equations primarily ensures what?

a)

Equal numbers of each atom on both sides

b)

Equal numbers of molecules on both sides

c)

Equal volumes of gases at all conditions

d)

Equal moles of reactants and products

80.

Which change would you make first to balance an unbalanced equation?

a)

Adjust coefficients before subscripts

b)

Change subscripts before coefficients

c)

Alter element symbols if needed

d)

Remove species that seem extra

81.

Which reaction type combines two or more reactants into one product?

a)

Synthesis reaction pattern

b)

Decomposition reaction pattern

c)

Single replacement pattern

d)

Double replacement pattern

82.

Identify the reaction type: 2HgO → 2Hg + O2

a)

Decomposition reaction type

b)

Synthesis reaction type

c)

Combustion reaction type

d)

Double replacement type

83.

Which scenario illustrates single replacement?

a)

Zn + CuCl2 → ZnCl2 + Cu

b)

H2 + O2 → H2O formed

c)

KBr + AgNO3 → KNO3 + AgBr

d)

CH4 + O2 → CO2 + H2O

84.

Double replacement reactions generally involve which pattern?

a)

Two compounds exchange ions

b)

One compound splits apart

c)

Element replaces another element

d)

Fuel reacts with oxygen gas

85.

Which feature defines a combustion reaction of a hydrocarbon?

a)

Reactant includes O2 and forms CO2 and H2O

b)

Reactant excludes O2 and forms only CO

c)

Products include metals and halides

d)

Reactants are two ionic compounds only

86.

A student balances H2 + O2 → H2O as H2 + O2 → 2H2O. What error remains?

a)

Oxygen atoms are not balanced yet

b)

Hydrogen atoms are not balanced yet

c)

Too many coefficients were reduced

d)

Subscripts for hydrogen were altered

87.

Which statement about subscripts versus coefficients is correct?

a)

Coefficients change molecule counts; subscripts change atom counts

b)

Subscripts change molecule counts; coefficients change atom masses

c)

Coefficients change charges; subscripts change mole ratios

d)

Subscripts change charges; coefficients change oxidation

88.

How many valence electrons do most atoms seek to achieve stability under the octet rule?

a)

Six electrons in outer shell

b)

Eight electrons in outer shell

c)

Ten electrons in outer shell

d)

Two electrons in outer shell

89.

Which statement best describes a covalent bond?

a)

Between metal and nonmetal, electrons transferred

b)

Between nonmetals, electrons shared

c)

Between metals, electrons move freely

d)

Between noble gases, electrons paired

90.

In an ionic bond, what happens to electrons and what particles result?

a)

Electrons shared, molecules form

b)

Electrons transferred, ions form

c)

Electrons delocalized, lattice forms

d)

Electrons excited, radicals form

91.

Which pair of elements is most likely to form an ionic compound?

a)

Carbon and hydrogen

b)

Nitrogen and oxygen

c)

Magnesium and chlorine

d)

Oxygen and sulfur

92.

When drawing a Lewis dot structure for a molecule, what do the dots represent?

a)

Protons in the nucleus

b)

Core electrons of atoms

c)

Valence electrons involved

d)

Neutrons in isotopes

93.

A metal–metal bond is characterized by which electron behavior?

a)

Electrons fixed in pairs

b)

Electrons shared in specific bonds

c)

Electrons transferred to nonmetals

d)

Electrons in a sea moving freely

94.

Hydrogen and helium are exceptions to the octet rule. What stable valence count do they seek?

a)

Four electrons total

b)

Six electrons total

c)

Two electrons total

d)

Eight electrons total

95.

Which description correctly matches cation and anion in ionic bonding?

a)

Cation negative nonmetal, anion positive metal

b)

Cation positive metal, anion negative nonmetal

c)

Cation neutral atom, anion charged molecule

d)

Cation noble gas, anion halogen

96.

Which rule correctly describes naming for ionic compounds?

a)

Nonmetal first, then metal

b)

Metal first, then nonmetal

c)

Use prefixes for both elements

d)

Always include Roman numerals

97.

In ionic formulas, what do subscripts indicate?

a)

Average atomic masses

b)

Oxidation-number-based atom counts

c)

Electron configurations of ions

d)

Number of valence shells

98.

What is the oxidation number in compound naming?

a)

Charge after losing or gaining electrons

b)

Number of atoms in a molecule

c)

Position in the periodic table

d)

Total protons in the nucleus

99.

Using the criss-cross method, which formula results from Mg2+ and Br−?

a)

MgBr

b)

MgBr3

c)

MgBr2

d)

Mg2Br

100.

Which name matches Al2O3, following ionic naming rules?

a)

Aluminum trioxide

b)

Dialuminum oxide

c)

Aluminum oxide

d)

Aluminum(II) oxide

101.

For covalent compounds, how are names formed?

a)

Metal first, then nonmetal

b)

Use prefixes from subscripts for both elements

c)

Add Roman numerals to metals

d)

Drop all prefixes for monoatomic pairs

102.

What is the correct prefix for a subscript of 7 in covalent naming?

a)

Hepta-

b)

Hexa-

c)

Octa-

d)

Nona-

103.

Name N2O3 using covalent naming conventions.

a)

Dinitrogen trioxide

b)

Dinoxide trinitrogen

c)

Nitrogen dioxide three

d)

Trioxygen dinitride

104.

Who organized the known elements into the periodic table based on similar characteristics?

a)

Dmitri Mendeleev

b)

John Dalton

c)

Niels Bohr

d)

Marie Curie

105.

What does a period represent on the periodic table?

a)

Horizontal row and energy levels

b)

Vertical column and valence count

c)

Diagonal line and atomic radius

d)

Block region and electron subshell

106.

Elements in the same group share which feature most directly?

a)

Similar chemical properties

b)

Identical atomic masses

c)

Same number of protons

d)

Equal number of neutrons

107.

Which statement best distinguishes metals from nonmetals?

a)

Metals conduct heat; nonmetals are poor conductors

b)

Metals are brittle; nonmetals are malleable

c)

Metals are gases; nonmetals are mostly liquids

d)

Metals have low melting points; nonmetals have high

108.

Which property is characteristic of metalloids?

a)

Semi-conductive and somewhat malleable

b)

Always gaseous at room temperature

c)

Completely non-conductive insulators

d)

Liquid state and highly ductile

109.

Which element family typically has 1 valence electron and is highly reactive?

a)

Alkali Metals

b)

Halogen Family

c)

Noble Gases

d)

Alkaline Earth Metals

110.

Alkaline Earth Metals generally tend to:

a)

Lose two electrons when reacting

b)

Gain two electrons when reacting

c)

Remain inert under all conditions

d)

Form gaseous diatomic molecules

111.

Halogens most commonly achieve stability by:

a)

Gaining one electron to form anions

b)

Losing one electron to form cations

c)

Sharing eight electrons in metals

d)

Releasing two electrons as photons

112.

Noble gases are generally nonreactive because:

a)

They have full valence shells

b)

They have empty valence shells

c)

They have unstable nuclei

d)

They possess liquid phases

113.

Transition metals are best described as:

a)

Variable valence and good conductors

b)

Fixed valence and poor conductors

c)

Gaseous at room temperature

d)

Metalloids with stair-step traits

114.

Which statement about valence electrons and groups is correct?

a)

Same group means same valence number

b)

Same period means same valence number

c)

Group number equals total electrons

d)

Period number equals valence count

115.

Hydrogen is not considered a typical member of which family in this summary?

a)

Alkali Metals

b)

Halogen Family

c)

Noble Gases

d)

Transition Metals

116.

Which set correctly pairs family with reactivity trend?

a)

Halogens: highly reactive nonmetals

b)

Noble gases: highly reactive metals

c)

Alkali metals: nonreactive solids

d)

Transition metals: highly reactive gases

117.

An element is shiny, ductile, and a good conductor at room temperature. Which classification fits best?

a)

Metal with typical metallic properties

b)

Nonmetal with poor conductivity

c)

Noble gas with full shell

d)

Metalloid with brittle character

118.

Given an element in Group 17 and Period 3, predict its most likely behavior in reactions with sodium.

a)

It gains one electron forming NaCl

b)

It loses one electron forming NaF

c)

It shares two electrons forming Na2

d)

It remains inert forming no salt

119.
What is the atomic number?
a)
number of protons
b)
number of neutrons
c)
number of electrons
d)
 number of protons and neutrons
120.
What is the mass number?
a)
the number of protons
b)
the sum of the number of protons and the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom 
c)
number of neutrons
d)
number of electrons
121.
an electron has this charge
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
122.
a neutron has this charge
a)
negative
b)
positive
c)
neutral
123.
a proton has this charge
a)
negative
b)
positive
c)
neutral
124.
An element is composed of how many types of atoms?
a)
5
b)
3
c)
1
125.
vertical columns in the periodic table are _________ of elements with similar properties. 
a)
groups
b)
periods
126.
_______ are horizontal  rows of elements that contain increasing numbers of protons and electrons.
a)
groups
b)
periods
127.
What is an electron dot diagram (same as Lewis Dot diagram)?
a)
use the element symbol and dots to represent OUTER energy level electrons.
b)
Use the element symbol and dots to represent INNER energy level electrons.
128.
Elements that have properties of both metals and nonmetals are _____
a)
metals
b)
metalloids
c)
nonmetals
129.
energy level one can contain at most _____ electrons.
a)
2
b)
8
c)
18
130.
___________ composed mostly of the protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
a)
atomic mass
b)
mass number
c)
atomic number
131.
all matter is made of what 
a)
energy 
b)
atoms 
c)
electrons 
d)
compounds 
132.
an atom with atomic number 6 would have how many protons 
a)
6
b)
12
c)
3
d)
cannot be determined 
133.
What is the atomic mass of "F"
a)
9
b)
18
c)
17
d)
19
134.
How many the valence electrons does "Al" have?
a)
5
b)
10
c)
3
d)
13
135.
How many valence electrons are in the atom "Mg"?
a)
1
b)
5
c)
3
d)
9
136.
What is the number of protons that the element in this image contain?
a)
14
b)
7
c)
15
d)
18
137.
How many neutron are in the atom "K"?
a)
7
b)
2
c)
39
d)
12
138.
"C" is the element symbol for which element?
a)
calcium
b)
carbon
c)
chlorine
d)
cadmium
139.
What is the atomic symbol for sodium?
a)
Na
b)
So
c)
NaCl
d)
S
140.
What is the atomic number for an element with three protons?
a)
2
b)
1
c)
3
d)
6
141.
The first energy level can hold up to, how many electrons?
a)
8
b)
4
c)
2
d)
5
142.
The second energy level can hold up to, how many electrons?
a)
2
b)
8
c)
10
d)
12
143.
How many Hydrogen atoms are in Water (H2O)
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
144.
How many TOTAL atoms are in Water (H2O)
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
145.
The metalloids are found on the what?
a)
Stairsteps
b)
4th period
c)
At the bottom
d)
In the middle
146.
The noble gases have how many valence electrons?
a)
1
b)
8
147.
Which statement about the atomic nucleus is correct?
a)
The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a negative charge
b)
The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a positive charge
c)
The nucleus is made of electrons and has a positive charge
d)
The nucleus is made of electrons and has a negative charge
148.
The first column on the periodic table is called?
a)
alkali metals
b)
halogens
c)
noble gases
d)
transition metals
149.
The elements in this group have 5 valence electrons and include elements N, P, and As.
a)
Group 5
b)
Group 1
c)
Group 18
d)
Group 15
150.
The elements in this group have 7 valence electrons and include elements such as F, Cl, and I.
a)
Group 1
b)
Group 7
c)
Group 17
151.
What side of the periodic table are the nonmetals on?
a)
middle
b)
left
c)
right
d)
bottom
152.
From what atoms does the metals range from?
a)
Li to Al
b)
B to He
c)
Ca to Zn
d)
C to F
153.
An atom has an atomic number of 5, and an atomic mass of 11. How many neutrons does this atom have?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
7
154.
two or more atoms bonded together
a)
mixture
b)
cluster
c)
molecule
d)
atom
155.
Atoms in a molecule are held together by....
a)
gravity
b)
physical bonds
c)
chemical bonds
d)
properties
156.
How many neutrons are in the element Lithium?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
157.
All the elements on the left side of the periodic table (in blue) are called..
a)
Metals
b)
Metalloid
c)
Nonmetals
158.
which family of metals is most reactive?
a)
transition metals
b)
boron family 
c)
alkali family 
d)
noble gases
159.
which family is least reactive?
a)
transition metals
b)
boron family 
c)
alkali family 
d)
noble gases
160.

Which statement best defines matter?

a)

Anything that has mass and takes up space

b)

Anything that can be seen with the naked eye

c)

Anything made only of elements and compounds

d)

Anything that can be dissolved in a liquid

161.

Which description matches a pure substance?

a)

Fixed composition with consistent properties

b)

Variable composition with visible parts

c)

Combination that can be separated by settling

d)

Mixture whose particles scatter light

162.

Which example is an element?

a)

Gold with symbol Au

b)

Water with formula H2O

c)

Sodium chloride NaCl

d)

Milk in a glass

163.

What distinguishes a compound from an element?

a)

Two or more elements chemically combined

b)

Two or more substances physically mixed

c)

Single type of atom in the sample

d)

Particles that settle out over time

164.

Which statement about mixtures is correct?

a)

Components retain their original properties

b)

Components form new chemical substances

c)

Composition is always fixed ratio

d)

Particles are always single atoms

165.

A homogeneous mixture where particles are fully dissolved is called a:

a)

Solution with uniform appearance

b)

Colloid with dispersed droplets

c)

Suspension with large particles

d)

Heterogeneous mixture sample

166.

Which property most reliably distinguishes a solution from a colloid?

a)

Tyndall effect shows no light scattering

b)

Particles settle after standing

c)

Components are visibly different

d)

Made only from elements not compounds

167.

Which mixture will scatter a beam of light but not settle over time?

a)

Colloid such as milk or fog

b)

Solution such as saltwater

c)

Suspension such as sand water

d)

Homogeneous alloy mixture

168.

Which mixture is most likely to settle upon standing?

a)

Suspension with large particles

b)

Colloid with medium particles

c)

Solution with ions molecules

d)

Homogeneous mixture sample

169.

A clear sports drink appears uniform and does not scatter light. What classification fits best?

a)

Solution with dissolved particles

b)

Colloid with dispersed droplets

c)

Suspension with large solids

d)

Heterogeneous visible mixture

170.

Which scenario best uses the Tyndall effect for identification?

a)

Shining a light to see scattering in milk

b)

Weighing a sample to find its mass

c)

Heating a sample to boil away water

d)

Measuring color with a spectrometer

171.

Which pair correctly matches mixture type with particle size trend?

a)

Solution—very small; Suspension—large

b)

Solution—large; Colloid—largest

c)

Colloid—ions; Suspension—molecules

d)

Suspension—smallest; Solution—largest

172.

A lab sample looks uniform. After one hour, solid material settles to the bottom, and a beam of light was scattered before settling. What is the best classification?

a)

Suspension due to settling observed

b)

Solution due to uniform appearance

c)

Colloid due to light scattering

d)

Pure substance due to single phase

173.

Which statement best describes a chemical equation?

a)

It shows how atoms combine and react

b)

It lists atomic masses for each element

c)

It displays electron configurations for atoms

d)

It records temperatures for physical changes

174.

Which observation is a reliable sign that a chemical reaction occurred?

a)

Bubbling indicating gas formation

b)

Increase in mass without cause

c)

Temporary warming by sunlight

d)

Phase change from melting only

175.

In a chemical equation, what are reactants?

a)

Substances that go into the reaction

b)

Substances that come out as products

c)

Small numbers showing atom counts

d)

Arrows indicating direction of yield

176.

What does the coefficient in 2H2O represent?

a)

Number of molecules present

b)

Number of oxygen atoms only

c)

Charge on the water molecule

d)

Number of hydrogen atoms only

177.

According to the law of conservation of mass, which statement is true?

a)

Mass is neither created nor destroyed

b)

Mass may increase with temperature

c)

Products always weigh less than reactants

d)

Mass is created during combustion

178.

Which part of an equation indicates “to produce”?

a)

The reaction arrow symbol

b)

The plus signs between terms

c)

The subscripts near elements

d)

The parentheses in formulas

179.

Balancing chemical equations primarily ensures what?

a)

Equal numbers of each atom on both sides

b)

Equal numbers of molecules on both sides

c)

Equal volumes of gases at all conditions

d)

Equal moles of reactants and products

180.

Which change would you make first to balance an unbalanced equation?

a)

Adjust coefficients before subscripts

b)

Change subscripts before coefficients

c)

Alter element symbols if needed

d)

Remove species that seem extra

181.

Which reaction type combines two or more reactants into one product?

a)

Synthesis reaction pattern

b)

Decomposition reaction pattern

c)

Single replacement pattern

d)

Double replacement pattern

182.

Identify the reaction type: 2HgO → 2Hg + O2

a)

Decomposition reaction type

b)

Synthesis reaction type

c)

Combustion reaction type

d)

Double replacement type

183.

Which scenario illustrates single replacement?

a)

Zn + CuCl2 → ZnCl2 + Cu

b)

H2 + O2 → H2O formed

c)

KBr + AgNO3 → KNO3 + AgBr

d)

CH4 + O2 → CO2 + H2O

184.

Double replacement reactions generally involve which pattern?

a)

Two compounds exchange ions

b)

One compound splits apart

c)

Element replaces another element

d)

Fuel reacts with oxygen gas

185.

Which feature defines a combustion reaction of a hydrocarbon?

a)

Reactant includes O2 and forms CO2 and H2O

b)

Reactant excludes O2 and forms only CO

c)

Products include metals and halides

d)

Reactants are two ionic compounds only

186.

A student balances H2 + O2 → H2O as H2 + O2 → 2H2O. What error remains?

a)

Oxygen atoms are not balanced yet

b)

Hydrogen atoms are not balanced yet

c)

Too many coefficients were reduced

d)

Subscripts for hydrogen were altered

187.

Which statement about subscripts versus coefficients is correct?

a)

Coefficients change molecule counts; subscripts change atom counts

b)

Subscripts change molecule counts; coefficients change atom masses

c)

Coefficients change charges; subscripts change mole ratios

d)

Subscripts change charges; coefficients change oxidation

188.

Which statement best defines energy in physics?

a)

The ability to do work

b)

The rate of doing work

c)

Force applied over distance

d)

The capacity to move time

189.

Kinetic energy depends directly on which two quantities?

a)

Mass and speed

b)

Force and time

c)

Height and gravity

d)

Charge and voltage

190.

Which formula correctly gives kinetic energy for an object of mass m and speed v?

a)

KE equals one half m v squared

b)

KE equals m g h

c)

KE equals force times distance

d)

KE equals work over time

191.

Gravitational potential energy near Earth’s surface depends on which variables?

a)

Mass, gravity, height

b)

Force, distance, time

c)

Charge, field, distance

d)

Pressure, volume, temperature

192.

Which equation gives gravitational potential energy?

a)

PE equals m g h

b)

PE equals one half m v squared

c)

PE equals work over time

d)

PE equals force times distance

193.

Mechanical energy of a system is defined as

a)

The sum of KE and PE

b)

Only the kinetic energy

c)

Only the potential energy

d)

The product of KE and PE

194.

Which choice lists only forms of electromagnetic energy?

a)

Light, UV, X-rays

b)

Heat, sound, pressure

c)

Bonds, nuclei, charge

d)

Wind, tides, friction

195.

According to the law of conservation of energy, in a closed system energy

a)

Cannot be created or destroyed

b)

Is used up during motion

c)

Is created by doing work

d)

Is destroyed when transferred

196.

Work done on an object is defined as

a)

Force multiplied by distance

b)

Force divided by time

c)

Mass multiplied by speed

d)

Energy divided by power

197.

Power is best described as

a)

Work done per unit time

b)

Force applied per unit mass

c)

Energy stored per unit height

d)

Distance moved per unit force

198.

A 0.10 kg bird flies at 8 m/s. What is its kinetic energy?

a)

3.2 joules

b)

0.8 joules

c)

6.4 joules

d)

1.6 joules

199.

A 50 kg diver stands on a 10 m platform. What is the diver’s gravitational potential energy relative to the water? Use g = 9.8 m/s^2.

a)

4,900 joules

b)

500 joules

c)

980 joules

d)

50,000 joules

200.

Two students push identical carts 20 m. Student A uses 50 N in 10 s; Student B uses 50 N in 5 s. Which statement is correct?

a)

Both do equal work, B has greater power

b)

A does more work, B has less power

c)

B does more work, A has greater power

d)

Both have equal power, equal work