wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Dental anomalies quiz

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A conical extra tooth between 11 and 21 is called:

a)

Odontoma

b)

Mesiodens

c)

Dens evaginatus

d)

Gemination

2.

Most common complication of mesiodens:

a)

Root dilaceration

b)

Delayed eruption of incisors

c)

Taurodontism

d)

Posterior crossbite

3.

Fusion in primary teeth is associated with:

a)

Macrodontia of successors

b)

Delayed exfoliation

c)

Hypodontia in permanent teeth

d)

Supernumerary teeth

4.

Tooth count in gemination is:

a)

Reduced

b)

Increased

c)

Normal

d)

Not useful

5.

“Tooth within a tooth” appearance:

a)

Dens evaginatus

b)

Dens invaginatus

c)

Talon cusp

d)

Dilaceration

6.

Common risk of dens invaginatus:

a)

Attrition

b)

Early pulp necrosis

c)

Hypereruption

d)

Infraocclusion

7.

Enlarged pulp chamber + apical furcation:

a)

Taurodontism

b)

Amelogenesis imperfecta

c)

Concrescence

d)

Extra root

8.

Taurodontism is most common in:

a)

Maxillary canines

b)

Mandibular molars

c)

Maxillary incisors

d)

Mandibular incisors

9.

Hook-like projection from cingulum area is:

a)

Talon cusp

b)

Dens invaginatus

c)

Fusion

d)

Dilaceration

10.

Anomaly most linked to delayed eruption:

a)

Gemination

b)

Mesiodens

c)

Taurodontism

d)

Talon cusp

11.

Radiographic “tooth within a tooth”:

a)

Fusion

b)

Concrescence

c)

Dens invaginatus

d)

Dens evaginatus

12.

Key feature of MIH:

a)

Symmetrical lesions

b)

Diffuse opacities

c)

Demarcated opacities

d)

Thin enamel

13.

MIH enamel is usually:

a)

Hard

b)

Smooth

c)

Porous

d)

Thick

14.

LA difficulty in MIH due to:

a)

Thick enamel

b)

Narrow foramina

c)

Chronic pulpal inflammation

d)

Short roots

15.

Best restoration for severe MIH molar:

a)

Composite

b)

GIC

c)

Amalgam

d)

SSC (stainless steel crown)

16.

Hypoplastic AI enamel is:

a)

Soft

b)

Thin but hard

c)

Normal thickness

d)

Easily worn away

17.

Hypomaturation AI shows:

a)

Thin enamel

b)

Normal thickness but opaque

c)

Pitted enamel

d)

Smooth surfaces

18.

AI may be associated with:

a)

Coeliac disease

b)

Diabetes

c)

Nephrocalcinosis

d)

Kawasaki disease

19.

Best restoration for severe hypocalcified AI molar:

a)

Composite

b)

GIC

c)

Veneer

d)

SSC

20.

Appearance of fluorosis:

a)

Demarcated opacity

b)

Diffuse white/brown opacities

c)

Local hypoplasia

d)

Post-eruptive breakdown

21.

Fluorosis is distinguished from MIH by:

a)

Sensitivity

b)

Brown stains

c)

Symmetrical lesions

d)

Breakdown of enamel

22.

Best treatment for mild fluorosis:

a)

Crown

b)

Veneer

c)

Microabrasion

d)

Extraction

23.

Fluorosis risk increases most when fluoride >

a)

0.5 ppm

b)

0.7 ppm

c)

1.0 ppm

d)

2.0 ppm

24.

Which statement correctly describes the difference between natal and neonatal teeth?

a)

Natal teeth erupt within the first 30 days of life, while neonatal teeth are present at birth.

b)

Natal teeth are present at birth, while neonatal teeth erupt within the first 30 days of life.

c)

Both natal and neonatal teeth erupt after 6 months.

d)

Neonatal teeth are always supernumerary, while natal teeth are always primary teeth.

25.

Which of the following best describes a key difference between Amelogenesis Imperfecta (AI) and Molar-Incisor Hypomineralisation (MIH)?

a)

AI affects only first permanent molars and incisors, while MIH affects all teeth.

b)

MIH is genetic and affects all teeth, while AI is environmental and affects only molars.

c)

AI affects all or most teeth due to a genetic defect, while MIH affects specific teeth due to developmental insult.

d)

MIH always presents with thin enamel, while AI always presents with demarcated opacities.

26.

Which finding is most characteristic of Dentinogenesis Imperfecta (DI)?

a)

Well-demarcated white–cream opacities on molars with post-eruptive breakdown

b)

Translucent grey-blue or amber teeth with rapid enamel chipping and dentine wear

c)

Generalised thin enamel with normal dentine radiodensity

d)

Patchy opacities on incisors with sensitivity but normal tooth morphology

27.

Management of a Leong’s cusp (talon cusp) includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Gradual selective grinding over multiple visits to avoid pulp exposure

b)

Applying desensitising agents or fluoride varnish after reduction

c)

Sealing the developmental groove to prevent caries

d)

Performing complete cusp reduction in a single visit if the tooth is asymptomatic

28.

The diagnosis of MIH is based on all of the following features EXCEPT:

a)

Presence of well-demarcated opacities on first permanent molars

b)

Post-eruptive enamel breakdown on newly erupted FPMs

c)

Hypersensitivity or difficulty with anaesthesia in affected molars

d)

Generalised enamel thinning affecting most teeth in the dentition

29.

Hypodontia is commonly associated with all of the following syndromes EXCEPT:

a)

Ectodermal dysplasia

b)

Down syndrome

c)

Cleft lip and palate in Van der Woude syndrome

d)

Marfan syndrome

30.

Which of the following AI types is characterised by thin but hard enamel?

a)

Hypocalcified AI

b)

Hypomaturation AI

c)

Hypoplastic AI

d)

Hypomaturation–hypoplastic AI