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Exam 4:

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a mold?

a)

Candida auris

b)

Rhizomucor pussulus

c)

Torulopsis glabrate

d)

Cryptococcus neoformans

e)

Trichosporon beigelii

2.

Which of the following is a Methotrexate analog that is MOST LIKELY to be employed in the treatment of Liver cancer?

a)

Photrexate

b)

Pemetrexed

c)

Pralatrexate

d)

Nolatrexed

e)

Edatrexate

3.

Which of the following produces its antifungal effect by inhibiting Leucyl-tRNA synthetase?

a)

Omoconazole

b)

Haloprogin

c)

Ciclopirox

d)

Griseofulvin

e)

Tavaborole

4.

All of the following are inhibitors of fungal cell wall synthesis EXCEPT:

a)

Aculeacins

b)

Pneumocandins

c)

Nikkomycins

d)

Undecylenic acid

e)

Polyoxin-D

5.

Which of the following is a triazole antifungal drug that is used primarily for the management of onychomycosis?

a)

Miconazole

b)

Terconazole

c)

Efinaconazole

d)

Econazole

e)

Sertaconazole

6.

Which of the following is an imidazole antifungal drug that is used primarily for the management of vaginal candidiasis?

a)

Butoconazole

b)

Terconazole

c)

Voriconazole

d)

Luliconazole

e)

Sulconazole

7.

Methotrexate has been found useful in which of the following conditions? SATA

a)

Procuring an abortion

b)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

c)

PCP

d)

Cutaneous T-Cell Lymphoma

e)

Psoriasis

8.

Which of the following is the CORRECT maintenance dose of Rezzayo for the treatment of invasive candidiasis?

a)

400 mg PO QD

b)

200 mg PO BID

c)

200 mg IV weekly

d)

200 mg IV QD

e)

400 mg IV twice a week

9.

Mr. Zut, who has been diagnosed with a Chlamydia infection, presents with urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be used in managing his current presentation?

a)

Ancobon

b)

Adrucl

c)

Mexate

d)

Cytoxan

e)

Platinol

10.

All of the following statements about Cyclophosphamide are true EXCEPT: The drug is:

a)

An Alkylating agent

b)

An immunosuppressive agent

c)

An antiemetic agent

d)

An anti-inflammatory agent

e)

A teratogenic agent

11.

Pulmonary fibrosis is the TLT for which of the following?

a)

Adriamycin

b)

Bleomycin

c)

Cisplatin

d)

Dactinomycin

e)

Etoposide

12.

Which of the following is employed in the prevention of the management of the TLT of Cytoxan?

a)

Soliris

b)

Hydration

c)

Ifosfamide

d)

Mesna

e)

Mucomyst

13.

For the treatment of Multiple Myeloma, Dexamethasone is combined with which of the following?

a)

Velcade

b)

Kyprolis

c)

Darzalex

d)

Oncovin and Adriamycin

e)

Emplicitis

14.

Which of the following is NOT contained in the M2 Regimen that is used to treat Multiple Myeloma?

a)

CCNU

b)

Cytoxan

c)

Melphalan

d)

Carmustine

e)

Vincristine

15.

Which of the following is an indication of 5-Fluorouracil?

a)

Superficial basal cell carcinoma

b)

Myasthenia gravis

c)

Condylomata acuminata

d)

Pancreatic cancer

e)

Acute cerebellar syndrome

16.

Which of the following is an indication of 5-Fluorocytosine?

a)

Chromoblastomycosis

b)

Sporotrichosis

c)

Coccidioidomycosis

d)

Cryptococcal meningitis

e)

Candida-induced septicemia

17.

Which of the following statements about Ibrexafungerp is FALSE?

a)

It is a substrate for CYP 3A4

b)

It inhibits CYP 2C8

c)

It is highly plasma protein bound

d)

It primarily undergoes renal excretion

e)

It has a half-life of about 20 hours

18.

Which of the following statements about Brexafemme is FALSE?

a)

It is a triterpenoid antifungal agent

b)

It is an inhibitor of cell membrane synthesis

c)

It is employed in treating a Candida infection that is resistant to Echinocandins and Triazole antifungals

d)

It is employed in the treatment of vulvovaginal candidiasis

e)

It is administered on a BID basis

19.

Which of the following is involved in the mechanism of action of Methotrexate in neoplasms? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Alkylation of nucleic acids

b)

Inhibition of Thymidylate synthase

c)

Inhibition of de novo synthesis of nucleic acids

d)

Inhibition of Dihydrofolate reductase

e)

Inhibition of Aldehyde oxidase

20.

Which of the following is absent from the Hyper-CVAD A regimen when it is employed in managing Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)
Adriamycin
b)

Cytarabine

c)

Cyclophosphamide

d)

Dactinomycin

e)

Dexamethasone

21.

Which of the following statements about Hyper-CVAD B is FALSE?

a)

It is employed in managing Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

b)

It contains Methotrexate

c)

It consists of ara-A

d)

It is given for 21 days in each cycle

e)

Its administration commences after giving the Hyper-CVAD A regimen for 21 days

22.

With concurrent administration, Fluconazole will elevate the AUC of which of the following? SATA

a)

Antidepressants

b)

Antiepileptics

c)

Plavix

d)

Proton Pump Inhibitors

e)

Oral Hypoglycemics

23.

Which of the following statements about Terbinafine is INCORRECT?

a)

It decreases the metabolism of SSRI

b)

It accentuates the hepatotoxicity of Alcohol

c)

It decreases the duration of action of Caffeine

d)

It decreases the metabolism of Tricyclic antidepressants

e)

Its absorption is impaired by acidic food

24.

Which of the following statements about Amphotericin B is FALSE? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Its Lipid Complex formulation consists of a 7:3 ratio of Dimyristoylphosphatidyl glycerol to Dimyristoylphosphatidyl choline

b)

Its deoxycholate preparation can be administered with Intralipid

c)

It can be administered intravitreally, subconjunctivally, and intra-articularly

d)

It is well distributed into the pleural, peritoneal, and synovial compartments

e)

Its terminal half-life is 15 hours

25.

Itraconazole is effective in the treatment of which of the following conditions? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Pseudallescheriasis

b)

Protothecosis

c)

Leishmaniasis

d)

Sporotrichosis

e)

Amoebic meningoencephalitis caused by Naegleria fowleri

26.

Which of the following statements about Vfend is FALSE?

a)

It is a strong inhibitor of CYP 3A4

b)

It is a substrate for CYP 2C9 and 2C19

c)

Its initial dosing regimen, when given IV for Aspergillosis treatment, is 6 mg/kg Q12H x 2 doses

d)

It can impair night vision and also cause chromatopsia

e)

It is effective against the sexual form of Pseudallescheria boydii

27.

Which of the following is consistent with a long-term adverse effect of Amphotericin B?

a)

A serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL

b)

Hypomagnesemia, Hypokalemia, Hypercalcemia

c)

Hemoptysis, Epistaxis, Melena

d)

A BUN of 27 mg/dL

e)

Bradycardia and Normocytic, normochromic anemia

28.

Which of the following is NOT present in the EMA-CO combination anticancer regimen?

a)

Vincristine

b)

Adriamycin

c)

Methotrexate

d)

Etoposide

e)

Cyclophosphamide

29.

Select the INCORRECT statement about the EP-EMA combination anticancer regimen: (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

It consists of a Topoisomerase inhibitor

b)

It is used to treat Hydatidiform mole

c)

It is used to treat Choriocarcinoma

d)

It consists of an Anthracycline antibiotic

e)

It consists of a Taxane

30.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an indication of Edatrexate?

a)

Breast cancer

b)

Head and neck Cancer

c)

Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

d)

Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer

e)

Pancreatic Cancer

31.

Which of the following combination anticancer regimens is NOT matched with the correct type of cancer that it is used to treat?

a)

CYVADIC → Osteosarcoma

b)

OFF → Pancreatic Cancer

c)

MBC → Colorectal Cancer

d)

ELF → Stomach Cancer

e)

MACOA → Burkitt’s Lymphoma

32.

Which of the following combination anticancer regimens that are employed in managing Breast cancer consists of an Anabolic steroid and an Ethylenimine Alkylating agent?

a)

FECD

b)

VATH

c)

TCHP

d)

ACTH

e)

IMF

33.

Since Ms. Rul is severely allergic to Cisplatin, which of the following should be employed in treating her Ovarian Cancer? SATA

a)
CHAD
b)

Olaparib

c)

Irinotecan

d)

CISCA

e)

CAP

34.

Which of the following drugs is used to treat Ovarian Cancer?

a)

Olaparib

b)

Irinotecan

c)

CISCA

d)

CAP

e)

Olaparib

35.

Which of the following combination regimens that are being used to treat Mrs. Luq’s breast cancer accurately suggests that Mrs. Luq is receiving two Human Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor Inhibitors?

a)

NFL

b)

TCP

c)

TDP

d)

ACD

e)

ACTH

36.

Which of the following is used to treat Colorectal Cancer? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

CAPOX

b)

FOLFIRI + Cetuximab

c)

XELOX

d)

Dostarlumab

e)

CMV

37.

SATA: Thiotepa

a)

Aziridine analog

b)

TEPA (Triethylenphosphoramide) is an active metabolite

c)

Can cross the BBB

d)

DNA Cross-Linking Agent

e)

TEPA (triethylenphosphoramide) is an inactive metabolite

38.

Which of the following statements about Cyclophosphamide is CORRECT?

a)

Cyclophosphamide is a Pyrimidine analog

b)

Cyclophosphamide is a Purine analog

c)

Cyclophosphamide is a Prodrug

d)

Cyclophosphamide is a Nitrosourea analog

e)

Cyclophosphamide is an Aziridine analog

39.

Which of the following statements about Cyclophosphamide is/are CORRECT?

a)

Cyclophosphamide is a nitrogen mustard analog

b)

Cyclophosphamide has one chiral center

c)

Cyclophosphamide is a pro-drug. Carbinolamine is an active compound

d)

Acrolein and Chloracetaldehyde are toxic metabolites of Cyclophosphamide

e)

Cyclophosphamide has 2 chiral centers

40.

The structure illustrated below is a/an: (Cytarabine)

a)

Purine analog

b)

Nucleoside analog

c)

Nucleotide analog

d)

Nitrosourea analog

e)

Thymidine analog

41.

SATA: The structure illustrated below is a:

a)

Pyrimidine analog

b)

Purine analog

c)

Nucleoside analog

d)

Cytidine analog

e)

Uracil analog

42.

Streptozocin is a/an:

a)

Aromatic Nitrogen Mustard

b)

Aliphatic Nitrogen Mustard

c)

Organoplatinum Compound

d)

Nitrosourea Analog

e)

Anthraquinone Glycoside

43.

Bendamustine is a/an:

a)

Weak Acid

b)

Aliphatic Nitrogen Mustard

c)

Weak Base

d)

Amphoteric Compound

e)

Folic Acid Analog

44.

SATA: Bendamustine (Treanda):

a)

Triterpene Alkaloid

b)

Aliphatic Nitrogen Mustard

c)

Aromatic Nitrogen Mustard

d)

Organoplatinum Compound

e)

DNA Cross-Linking Agent

45.

The structure illustrated below is a/an:

a)

Vinca Alkaloid Analog

b)

Nitrosourea Analog

c)

Purine Nucleoside Analog

d)

Pyrimidine Analog

e)

Folic Acid Analog

46.

Chlorambucil is a/an:

a)

Nitrosurea Analog

b)

Aliphatic Nitrogen Mustard

c)

Pyrimidine Nucleoside Analog

d)

Aromatic Nitrogen Mustard

e)

Folic Acid Analog

47.

Which of the following statements about Cyclophosphamide is CORRECT?

a)

Cyclophosphamide is a Nitrosourea Analog

b)

Cyclophosphamide is an Aromatic Nitrogen Mustard

c)

Cyclophosphamide has one chiral center

d)

Nephrotoxicity and Neurotoxicity are caused by the toxic metabolite Carbinolamine

e)

Cyclophosphamide is a Nucleoside Analog

48.

The ____ solution must be used to inactivate Mechlorethamine in the event of accidental skin contact.

a)

Sodium Metabolite

b)

Water for Injection

c)

Sodium Thiosulfate

d)

Normal Saline (0.9% Sodium Chloride)

e)

5% Dextrose

49.

SATA: Mechlorethamine (Mustargen)

a)

Triterpene Alkaloid

b)

Aliphatic Nitrogen Mustard

c)

Aromatic Nitrogen Mustard

d)

Organoplatinum Compound

e)

DNA Cross-Linking Agent

50.

The structure illustrated below is a/an: (Temozolomide)

a)

Procarbazine Analog

b)

Aromatic Nitrogen Mustard Analog

c)

Nitrosourea Analog

d)

Nucleoside Analog

e)

Folic Acid Analog

51.

Methotrexate is a/an:

a)

Purine Analog

b)

Pyrimidine Analog

c)

Nitrosourea Analog

d)

Aromatic Nitrogen Mustard

e)

Folic Acid Analog

52.

Dacarbazine is a/an:

a)

Imidazole Analog

b)

Pyrimidine Analog

c)

Nitrosourea Analog

d)

Benzamide Analog

e)

Triazole Analog

53.

Methotrexate is a:

a)

DNA Alkylating Agent

b)

DHF Reductase Inhibitor

c)

Prodrug

d)

DNA Methylating Agent

e)

Topoisomerase I Inhibitor

54.

Melphalan is:

a)

Highly reactive, more toxic, and kills cancer cells and normal cells

b)

More stable, less toxic, and more selective for cancer cells

c)

A prodrug

d)

An Aziridine analog

e)

Aliphatic Nitrogen Mustard

55.

SATA: Melphalan

a)

Melphalan is an aromatic nitrogen mustard

b)

Melphalan has one chiral center. S isomer is active

c)

Melphalan is an amphoteric substance

d)

Melphalan is a less toxic and less reactive nitrogen mustard

e)

Oral absorption is decreased with food

56.

SATA: Melphalan

a)

Triterpene Alkaloid

b)

Aromatic Nitrogen Mustard

c)

Contains 2 Chiral Centers

d)

DNA Cross-Linking Agent

e)

Contains 1 Chiral Center

57.

SATA: Streptozocin (Zanosar):

a)

Aromatic Nitrogen Mustard

b)

It is used for the treatment of Pancreatic Cancer

c)

Nitrosourea Analog

d)

Procarbazine Analog

e)

It is used for the treatment of Glioblastoma Multiforme

58.

Thiotepa is a/an:

a)

Imidazole Analog

b)

Aziridine Analog

c)

Nitrosourea Analog

d)

Aromatic Nitrogen Mustard

e)

Procarbazine Analog

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