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Sustainability principles worksheet (Grade 11)

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When planning and delivering a construction project, sustainability can be achieved by selecting approaches. Which of the following are ways the text lists to achieve sustainability? Select all that apply.

a)

Using renewable and recyclable resources

b)

Sourcing materials locally

c)

Reusing and refurbishing materials

d)

Reducing energy consumption and waste

e)

Increasing project marketing spend

2.

Which organisation developed Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED) as an environmental certification scheme?

a)

Building Research Establishment (BRE)

b)

US Green Building Council (USGBC)

c)

Timber Research and Development Association (TRADA)

d)

Committee on Climate Change

3.

In sustainability assessment, what does third-party verification mean according to the text?

a)

Internal self-declaration by the project team

b)

Confirmation from an independent party that a project meets standards

c)

Approval by local residents through a public vote

d)

Automatic certification when digital technologies are used

4.

Which of the following is a BREEAM rating benchmark used to assess buildings?

a)

Outstanding

b)

Baseline

c)

Certified Bronze

d)

Minimal

5.

The WELL Building Standard evaluates aspects of the built environment related to health and wellbeing. Which factors are included? Select all that apply.

a)

Air

b)

Water

c)

Nourishment

d)

Light

e)

Fitness

6.

Which additional WELL Building Standard factors are included beyond air, water, nourishment, light and fitness? Select all that apply.

a)

Comfort

b)

Mind

c)

Noise

d)

Finance

7.

According to PAS 2035:2019, which of the following are retrofit roles specified in the standard? Select all that apply.

a)

Retrofit assessor

b)

Retrofit co-ordinator

c)

Retrofit designer

d)

Retrofit evaluator

e)

Retrofit financier

8.

Which of the following are examples of energy efficiency measures (EEMs) suitable for retrofitting an existing terraced property? Select all that apply.

a)

Insulation upgrades

b)

Glazing upgrades

c)

Installation of heat pumps

d)

Replacing decorative paint colours

9.

Which statement best describes the standard’s whole-house approach under PAS 2035?

a)

Install interventions one at a time to minimise disruption

b)

Identify and install all energy-saving interventions together so they interact to optimise energy efficiency

c)

Focus only on space-heating systems while ignoring fabric measures

d)

Retrofit only when fuel prices are low

10.

Which types of sustainable solutions are described as prefabricated construction benefits? Select all that apply.

a)

Reduced waste

b)

Lower build costs

c)

Consistent accuracy and quality of components

d)

Reduced construction time

e)

Increased onsite wet trades

11.

Smart glass (also known as switchable glass) changes appearance when exposed to specific stimuli. Which benefits are listed? Select all that apply.

a)

Reduced energy costs

b)

Increased privacy

c)

Controlled room temperatures

d)

Improved security

e)

Higher structural load capacity

12.

Which are the two main types of reed beds used to treat wastewater and sewage effluent?

a)

Horizontal flow

b)

Vertical flow

c)

Circular flow

d)

Diagonal flow

13.

Grey water is defined in the text as water that has not been purified for drinking. Which of the following is an example of grey water?

a)

Water from a river used for a municipal supply

b)

Recycled water from a sink

c)

Bottled mineral water

d)

Rainwater after mains treatment

14.

Which of the following are benefits of a green roof described in the text? Select all that apply.

a)

Reduction of water run-off from roof areas

b)

Extended roof life

c)

Sound insulation

d)

Providing a habitat for wildlife

e)

Increased chimney height

15.

Under environmental legislation, which act created an independent advisory body (the Committee on Climate Change) and supports emissions reductions through policy measures?

a)

Environmental Protection Act 1990

b)

Climate Change Act 2008

c)

Clean Air Act 1993

d)

Water Act 2014

16.

Which measures are covered by the Clean Air Act 1993 according to the text? Select all that apply.

a)

Prohibition of dark smoke from chimneys

b)

Requirement for new furnaces to be smokeless (as far as is reasonably practicable)

c)

Emission of grit and dust from furnaces

d)

Declarations of smoke control areas by local authorities

e)

Automatic exemption for domestic fireplaces

17.

In a smoke control area, what must a client do to emit smoke from their chimney lawfully?

a)

Burn household waste to reduce costs

b)

Use authorised fuels or exempt appliances

c)

Increase chimney height to disperse smoke

d)

Operate the appliance only at night

18.

According to the Water Act 2014, which aims are included? Select all that apply.

a)

Reform the water industry to be more innovative and responsive to customers

b)

Increase the resilience of water supplies to natural hazards such as droughts and floods

c)

Address the availability and affordability of insurance for flood risks

d)

Mandate universal metering for all domestic properties

19.

Which part of the Building Regulations 2010 sets requirements on conservation of fuel and power for buildings in England and Wales?

a)

Part F

b)

Part L

c)

Part P

d)

Part G

20.

Which part of the Building Regulations 2010 covers electrical safety in dwellings?

a)

Part P

b)

Part B

c)

Part K

d)

Part M

21.

Which part of the Building Regulations 2010 addresses ventilation requirements?

a)

Part F

b)

Part H

c)

Part Q

d)

Part C

22.

Which part of the Building Regulations 2010 deals with sanitation, hot water safety and water efficiency?

a)

Part G

b)

Part E

c)

Part K

d)

Part R

23.

What was the primary public health and environmental event that prompted the first Clean Air Act (1956) in the UK?

a)

The 1947 floods

b)

The Great Smog of 1952

c)

The 1963 cold winter

d)

The London cholera outbreak of 1854

24.

According to the Water Act 2014, what is a key purpose of the legislation?

a)

To privatize all water utilities

b)

To reform the water industry to improve competition and resilience and support a flood insurance scheme

c)

To abolish water abstraction licensing

d)

To transfer regulation of water to local authorities only

25.

Which regulation primarily focuses on protecting people from ill health caused by exposure to hazardous substances in workplaces?

a)

Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) Regulations 2002

b)

Energy Performance of Buildings Regulations 2007

c)

Control of Pollution (Oil Storage) Regulations 2001

d)

Hazardous Waste (England and Wales) Regulations 2005

26.

Under the Hazardous Waste (England and Wales) Regulations 2005, who is responsible for producing or storing hazardous waste?

a)

Producer or holder

b)

Carrier

c)

Consignee

d)

Auditor

27.

Under the Hazardous Waste (England and Wales) Regulations 2005, who is responsible for collecting and transporting hazardous waste?

a)

Producer or holder

b)

Carrier

c)

Consignee

d)

Inspector

28.

Under the Hazardous Waste (England and Wales) Regulations 2005, who is responsible for receiving hazardous waste for recycling or disposal?

a)

Producer or holder

b)

Carrier

c)

Consignee

d)

Broker

29.

According to the Control of Pollution (Oil Storage) (England) Regulations 2001, at what storage quantity do the regulations require more secure containment facilities in England?

a)

More than 50 litres of oil

b)

More than 200 litres of oil

c)

More than 500 litres of oil

d)

More than 2,000 litres of oil

30.

In the context of oil storage regulations, what is a mobile bowser?

a)

An underground oil sump

b)

A wheeled trailer fitted with a tank for carrying oil

c)

A fixed bunded tank in a plant room

d)

A ship-borne oil storage vessel

31.

Under the Energy Performance of Buildings requirements, when must an energy performance certificate be produced?

a)

Only when a building is demolished

b)

Whenever a building is sold, rented out or constructed

c)

Only for industrial buildings over 10,000 m²

d)

Only when a boiler is replaced

32.

Who is required to display a display energy certificate (DEC) under the Energy Performance of Buildings regime?

a)

All domestic homeowners

b)

Large public buildings open to the public

c)

Only private offices over three storeys

d)

Only buildings with air-conditioning systems

33.

What key information should a display energy certificate (DEC) include for a large public building?

a)

Operational energy rating and validity information displayed prominently

b)

Architectural drawings and fire escape plans

c)

Employee energy training records

d)

Detailed fuel purchase invoices for the past five years

34.

Test yourself: Which option best explains what a U-value is and why it is important to consider when designing buildings?

a)

It is a measure of a material’s thermal transmittance; lower values mean less heat loss, so specifying low U-values improves a building’s energy efficiency.

b)

It is a rating of a material’s embodied carbon; higher values indicate greener materials, so designers should select materials with high U-values.

c)

It is a measure of acoustic absorption; lower values indicate better sound insulation, making low U-values essential for quiet spaces.

d)

It is an index of fire resistance; higher values mean slower flame spread, so higher U-values are chosen to meet safety codes.

35.

According to conservation guidance in the worksheet, which substance is suitable for consolidating weathered limestone, and how should it be applied?

a)

Nanolime (calcium hydroxide dispersion) applied in multiple coats by brush or low‑pressure spray until refusal

b)

Epoxy resin injected under pressure and left uncoated

c)

Polyvinyl acetate emulsion rolled on in a single heavy coat

d)

Portland cement slurry trowelled over the surface

36.

Test yourself: Which set correctly names the three types of listed status for buildings in England and Wales?

a)

Grade I, Grade II*, Grade II

b)

Grade A, Grade B, Grade C

c)

Grade 1, Grade 2, Grade 3

d)

Scheduled, Registered, Conserved

37.

Under the Town and Country Planning Act 1990, planning permission needs to be sought when carrying out which types of work?

a)

Build a new property

b)

Increase the size of an existing property

c)

Make significant alterations to an existing property

d)

Change the use of an existing property

e)

Repaint interior walls in the same color

38.

From the outlined steps in the planning permission process, which outcomes are stated as possible after an application is considered?

a)

Permission refused

b)

Permission granted

c)

Application not decided within 8 weeks

d)

Automatic approval if no objections are received

39.

Which of the following are principles of lean construction stated in the worksheet?

a)

Efficiency and best value

b)

Ensuring the work environment is clean and safe

c)

Improving planning with continuous review and improvement

d)

Increasing inventories to stabilise supply

40.

A common example of a lean construction technique is just‑in‑time deliveries. Which is a stated benefit of this technique?

a)

Less storage space is needed

b)

Increased inventory requirements on site

c)

Longer lead times for installation

d)

More waste generated during construction

41.

In the construction sector, artificial intelligence (AI) is commonly used for which purpose according to the worksheet?

a)

Developing safety systems by tracking interactions on a construction site and alerting supervisors to potential issues

b)

Designing architectural styles for heritage buildings

c)

Laying bricks autonomously in decorative patterns

d)

Mixing concrete to achieve a specific slump without supervision

42.

In advanced manufacturing, what is the role of computer numerical control (CNC) as described in the worksheet?

a)

Controlling machine tools using software linked to CAD to automate operations such as milling, lathing, routing and grinding

b)

Designing building layouts for planning applications

c)

Increasing reliance on manual labour for bespoke components

d)

Producing only mass‑manufactured identical parts with low accuracy

43.

What is a stated advantage of using manufacturing robots in construction factories for modular units?

a)

They automate repetitive tasks to increase production rates and accuracy while protecting workers from hazards

b)

They eliminate the need for any human oversight on site

c)

They primarily slow down assembly to reduce defects

d)

They replace the use of CAD and CNC in producing components

44.

Describe CNC by choosing the option that best explains what it is and how it is used in manufacturing.

a)

A manual method of guiding tools using hand wheels and gauges on workshop lathes

b)

A system in which computer-controlled machine tools follow programmed instructions to cut, drill or shape materials

c)

A quality-inspection checklist used to verify dimensions after components are made

d)

A scheduling approach for organising shifts on a factory floor

45.

A research task asks you to find out the current UK WEEE targets and decide whether the UK is meeting them. Which option best summarises what you must do to complete this task?

a)

Identify the latest UK WEEE collection and recovery targets, then evaluate performance data to judge compliance against those targets

b)

List examples of electrical appliances, then describe how they are recycled in different countries

c)

Explain the role of producers and distributors, then design a new take-back scheme for a retailer

d)

Calculate the mass of household waste produced by a local community and compare it with EU municipal targets