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PSI Practice Exam 10024

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The direction of massage movements should always be:

a)

Origin to insertion

b)

Insertion to origin

c)

Across the muscle belly only

d)

Alternating random directions

2.

The insertion of a muscle is defined as:

a)

Fixed attachment closest to the skeleton

b)

Movable attachment farthest from the skeleton

c)

The center belly of the muscle

d)

Attachment only at a joint capsule

3.

The origin of a muscle is defined as:

a)

Movable attachment farthest from the skeleton

b)

Fixed attachment closest to the skeleton

c)

Attachment at the skin surface

d)

The tendon located in the middle of the muscle

4.

Which massage manipulation is a light, continuous stroking movement?

a)

Petrissage

b)

Effleurage

c)

Friction

d)

Tapotement

5.

Which manipulation involves kneading, lifting, and squeezing tissue?

a)

Petrissage

b)

Effleurage

c)

Friction

d)

Vibration

6.

A client with rosacea requests massage. Correct response?

a)

Provide deep, stimulating massage to increase circulation

b)

Avoid strong massage techniques

c)

Use aggressive exfoliation before massage

d)

Proceed with normal pressure on all areas

7.

A client with acne breakouts should:

a)

Avoid massage on affected areas

b)

Increase pressure to drain pustules

c)

Use rapid tapotement over lesions

d)

Apply friction directly on breakouts

8.

A client with widespread inflammation should:

a)

Continue regular massage on all areas

b)

Replace massage with soothing/purifying treatment

c)

Use strong petrissage to reduce swelling

d)

Skip cleansing and proceed to tapotement

9.

Why should massage be avoided in the wrong direction?

a)

It causes sagging and loss of resiliency

b)

It instantly strengthens muscles

c)

It prevents product absorption

d)

It reduces the client’s sensitivity

10.

Which manipulation should be used sparingly and never more than a few seconds in one spot?

a)

Petrissage

b)

Friction

c)

Vibration

d)

Effleurage

11.

Which manipulation involves rapid tapping or percussion?

a)

Effleurage

b)

Tapotement

c)

Petrissage

d)

Friction

12.

Which manipulation uses circular or crisscross rubbing movements?

a)

Friction

b)

Effleurage

c)

Tapotement

d)

Vibration

13.

Which manipulation should begin and end every massage?

a)

Tapotement

b)

Petrissage

c)

Effleurage

d)

Vibration

14.

Which manipulation improves circulation and stimulates glands?

a)

Friction

b)

Effleurage

c)

Tapotement

d)

Petrissage

15.

Which manipulation is highly stimulating and requires muscular contractions in the arms?

a)

Effleurage

b)

Petrissage

c)

Vibration

d)

Friction

16.

Facial massage is typically performed for:

a)

55 - 88 minutes

b)

1010 - 2020 minutes

c)

2525 - 3535 minutes

d)

4040 - 5050 minutes

17.

Massage pressure, type, and duration should vary according to:

a)

Client preference only

b)

Skin type and condition

c)

Room temperature

d)

Time of day

18.

When removing hands during massage, they should be:

a)

Lifted off abruptly

b)

Feathered off gently

c)

Pressed firmly into the skin

d)

Kept still until the next stroke

19.

For clients with facial hair, massage movements should be:

a)

Upward with brisk effleurage

b)

Downward with pressure-point techniques

c)

Circular across the hair growth

d)

Against the grain with friction

20.

Motor points are defined as:

a)

Points where stimulation causes contraction

b)

Areas of highest skin porosity

c)

Locations of maximum blood flow

d)

Joints between muscle and bone

21.

Massage products are designed to:

a)

Provide slip and glide during massage

b)

Increase muscle size

c)

Reduce skin temperature

d)

Eliminate natural oils

22.

Massage products encourage:

a)

Product absorption and conditioning effects

b)

Hair growth rate

c)

Nail hardening

d)

Bone density

23.

Which product type is rarely recommended for at-home use?

a)

Massage oils, creams, lotions, gels

b)

Mild facial cleansers

c)

SPF moisturizers

d)

Noncomedogenic toners

24.

Facial massage differs from home care regimens because:

a)

It is performed professionally in salons/spas

b)

It uses only water and soap

c)

It should be done every hour

d)

It avoids any contact with the skin

25.

One major benefit of massage is:

a)

Relaxation and improved circulation

b)

Permanent weight loss

c)

Increased bone length

d)

Instant cure of illness

26.

Haircoloring services allow cosmetologists to demonstrate:

a)

Corrective repair only

b)

Creative expression and artistic skill

c)

Limited gray coverage

d)

Basic sanitation only

27.

The cuticle contributes approximately what percentage of the hair’s overall strength?

a)

50%

b)

10%

c)

25%

d)

75%

28.

Which natural hair color type has the lowest strand density?

a)

Red

b)

Blonde

c)

Brown

d)

Black

29.

Hair that is resistant to moisture absorption is classified as having:

a)

High porosity

b)

Medium porosity

c)

Low porosity

d)

No porosity

30.

The system colorists use to determine the lightness or darkness of hair is called the:

a)

Tone system

b)

Level system

c)

Density system

d)

Texture system

31.

According to the level system, the darkest hair level is:

a)

Level 1

b)

Level 5

c)

Level 7

d)

Level 10

32.

In a haircolor formulation, the first number typically represents the:

a)

Tone

b)

Porosity

c)

Color level

d)

Density

33.

Haircolor analysis should always be performed under:

a)

Fluorescent lighting

b)

Incandescent lighting

c)

Natural lighting

d)

LED lighting

34.

Colors that cannot be created by mixing other colors are:

a)

Secondary

b)

Tertiary

c)

Primary

d)

Complementary

35.

The term “tone” refers to a color’s:

a)

Level

b)

Balance

c)

Hue

d)

Shade

36.

Warm tones appear lighter because they:

a)

Absorb more light

b)

Reflect more light

c)

Neutralize cool tones

d)

Absorb cool tones

37.

Demipermanent color is often used to:

a)

Lighten natural pigment

b)

Replace missing tone before color correction

c)

Provide maximum lift

d)

Cover 100% gray

38.

Metallic haircolors are generally:

a)

Reflective and bright

b)

Long-lasting and shiny

c)

Flat and dull with little reflection

d)

Safe for all chemical services

39.

When only deposit or minimal lift is desired, use:

a)

40-volume peroxide

b)

30-volume peroxide

c)

10-volume peroxide

d)

20-volume peroxide

40.

Ammonia in haircolor serves to:

a)

Close the cuticle

b)

Neutralize tones

c)

Open the cuticle for dye penetration

d)

Add pigment directly

41.

A lightener works by:

a)

Adding pigment

b)

Strengthening the cuticle

c)

Breaking down melanin pigment

d)

Depositing tone

42.

Off-scalp lighteners are designed to:

a)

Lift hair quickly and strongly, up to seven levels

b)

Be gentle for gray coverage

c)

Be applied to the scalp

d)

Deposit only tone

43.

Double-process blonding involves:

a)

Pre-lightening, then toning

b)

Toning only

c)

Adding metallic color

d)

Depositing without lift

44.

Permanent toners are applied to:

a)

Virgin hair

b)

Pre-lightened hair at levels 9–10

c)

Natural level 5 or darker

d)

Metallic bases

45.

During consultation, cosmetologists should:

a)

Promise extreme results

b)

Guarantee exact shades

c)

Manage expectations realistically

d)

Skip strand tests

46.

Which term should be avoided when describing haircolor results to clients?

a)

Bleached

b)

Lightened

c)

Colored

d)

Enhanced

47.

The preferred tool for applying haircolor evenly is a(n):

a)

Applicator brush

b)

Fingers

c)

Comb

d)

Spray bottle

48.

To ensure accurate formulation, measure color products:

a)

By sight

b)

On a flat, even surface

c)

Using approximate amounts

d)

Directly from the bottle

49.

According to federal law, a patch test must be given:

a)

Immediately before service

b)

12 hours before service

c)

24–48 hours before application

d)

72 hours before application

50.

Clients should be informed that temporary color can:

a)

Cause permanent staining

b)

Transfer to fabric and materials

c)

Require a patch test

d)

Bleach the hair

51.

When applying color to new growth and faded ends:

a)

Apply randomly

b)

Process based on analysis and strand test

c)

Skip timing

d)

Use metallic dyes

52.

Stronger lighteners:

a)

Process faster but can cause more damage

b)

Are safer than weaker formulas

c)

Always require less developer

d)

Work best on gray hair

53.

Coloring strands lighter than the natural shade creates:

a)

Highlighting

b)

Toning

c)

Foiling

d)

Balayage

54.

In foiling, slicing partings provide:

a)

Subtle contrast

b)

The strongest visual effect

c)

Minimal lift

d)

Natural blending

55.

Balayage involves applying lightener:

a)

To wet hair

b)

Directly to dry hair for a natural effect

c)

Using foils only

d)

For dramatic lines

56.

Foilayage is a technique that combines:

a)

Balayage and foiling

b)

Slicing and weaving

c)

Toner and bleach

d)

Warm and cool tones

57.

The medical term for gray or white hair is:

a)

Alopecia

b)

Canities

c)

Trichoptilosis

d)

Fragilitas crinium

58.

When neutralizing yellow tones in gray hair, use:

a)

Violet-based formulas

b)

Blue-based toners

c)

Green pigments

d)

Red tones

59.

For hair that is 70–90% gray, mix:

a)

Two parts desired shade, one part lighter shade

b)

Only the darker level

c)

Equal parts warm and cool

d)

Light tones only

60.

To ensure gray coverage, always add:

a)

Neutral tones

b)

Metallic dyes

c)

Warm tones only

d)

No toner

61.

When coloring redheads, it is best to:

a)

Refresh midshaft and ends with a demipermanent color

b)

Skip strand testing

62.

To remove mineral buildup before coloring, use a:

a)

Clarifying or purifying treatment

b)

Temporary rinse

c)

Warm water rinse

d)

Metallic shampoo

63.

Haircolor should never be applied if:

a)

The scalp has abrasions

b)

Hair is dry

c)

Hair was washed the same day

d)

The client has fine hair

64.

Strand testing helps identify:

a)

Hair color level only

b)

Elasticity, porosity, and breakage

c)

Developer strength

d)

Product expiration

65.

Which color type lasts several shampoos before fading?

a)

Temporary

b)

Semipermanent

c)

Permanent

d)

Metallic

66.

Which haircolor penetrates the cortex for the longest-lasting results?

a)

Permanent

b)

Semipermanent

c)

Demipermanent

d)

Temporary

67.

Which color coats the cuticle and rinses out after one shampoo?

a)

Temporary

b)

Permanent

c)

Demipermanent

d)

Metallic

68.

Which haircolor is ideal for blending gray without harsh regrowth lines?

a)

Demipermanent

b)

Semipermanent

c)

Permanent

d)

Temporary

69.

Which product type requires a patch test under federal regulation?

a)

Aniline derivative dyes

b)

Metallic salts

c)

Vegetable colors

d)

Temporary rinses

70.

Which color type is most often used for corrective services?

a)

Permanent

b)

Temporary

c)

Semipermanent

d)

Metallic

71.

Metallic haircolors are not recommended because they are:

a)

Unpredictable and incompatible with professional products

b)

Safe for chemical services

c)

Quick to lift

d)

FDA regulated

72.

Which tool ensures precise sectioning during color application?

a)

Rat-tail comb

b)

Tint brush

c)

Blow dryer

d)

Spray bottle

73.

Which tool prevents color from bleeding during highlighting?

a)

Foil

b)

Comb

c)

Paddle

d)

Clip

74.

Which tool is used to paint lightener during balayage?

a)

Tint brush

b)

Comb

c)

Measuring cup

d)

Blow dryer

75.

To accurately measure developer, use a:

a)

Measuring cup

b)

Tint brush

c)

Foil sheet

d)

Comb

76.

Which hair layer gives strength and elasticity?

a)

Cortex

b)

Cuticle

c)

Medulla

d)

Follicle

77.

Which layer contains natural pigment (melanin)?

a)

Cortex

b)

Cuticle

c)

Medulla

d)

Shaft

78.

Which layer protects the cortex?

a)

Cuticle

b)

Medulla

c)

Follicle

d)

Shaft

79.

Which layer may be missing in fine hair and has little color effect?

a)

Medulla

b)

Cortex

c)

Cuticle

d)

Follicle

80.

The strongest developer, providing the most lift, is:

a)

10 volume

b)

20 volume

c)

30 volume

d)

40 volume

81.

Deposit-only color uses:

a)

10-volume developer

b)

20-volume developer

c)

30-volume developer

d)

40-volume developer

82.

Ammonia’s main function in haircolor is to:

a)

Open the cuticle

b)

Add pigment

c)

Close the cuticle

d)

Remove buildup

83.

Hydrogen peroxide’s role in permanent color is to:

a)

Develop color molecules

b)

Add tone

c)

Neutralize pigment

d)

Strengthen cuticle

84.

Which test determines a possible allergic reaction?

a)

Patch test

b)

Strand test

c)

Porosity test

d)

Elasticity test

85.

Which test determines processing time and final color results?

a)

Strand test

b)

Patch test

c)

Elasticity test

d)

Texture test

86.

Which agency regulates haircoloring products in the U.S.?

a)

FDA

b)

OSHA

c)

EPA

d)

CDC

87.

Haircolor should not be applied if:

a)

Scalp abrasions are present

b)

The client has fine hair

c)

The hair is oily

d)

Hair is freshly shampooed

88.

To prevent unpredictable color results, always perform a:

a)

Strand test

b)

Elasticity test

c)

Density test

d)

Texture test

89.

During a color consultation, always:

a)

Avoid overpromising results

b)

Skip the patch test

c)

Guarantee level 10 blonde

d)

Omit analysis

90.

Before coloring, analyze:

a)

Hair texture, porosity, and density

b)

Nail color

c)

Skin tone

d)

Eye shape

91.

Fundamental colors that cannot be mixed are:

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Complementary

92.

Two primary colors mixed equally form a:

a)

Secondary color

b)

Tertiary color

c)

Complementary color

d)

Neutral color

93.

A primary and a secondary color mixed together form a:

a)

Tertiary color

b)

Secondary color

c)

Complementary color

d)

Base color

94.

Colors opposite each other on the color wheel are:

a)

Complementary

b)

Analogous

c)

Primary

d)

Tertiary

95.

Double-process blonding is used to:

a)

Achieve pale blonde shades in two steps

b)

Deposit color only

c)

Enhance natural tone

d)

Blend gray

96.

Toners for pale blond shades are typically:

a)

Permanent

b)

Temporary

c)

Metallic

d)

Vegetable-based

97.

Highlighting adds:

a)

Light strands for depth and dimension

b)

Dark tones only

c)

Cool tones to warm hair

d)

Pigment removal only

98.

Balayage involves:

a)

Freehand painting for natural highlights

b)

Foil wrapping

c)

Slicing sections

d)

Weaving partings

99.

Hair that absorbs moisture quickly has:

a)

High porosity

b)

Medium porosity

c)

Low porosity

d)

No porosity

100.

Hair that resists moisture absorption has:

a)

Low porosity

b)

Medium porosity

c)

High porosity

d)

Damaged porosity

101.

Hair that stretches and returns to its original length indicates:

a)

Good elasticity

b)

Poor elasticity

c)

No elasticity

d)

Weak elasticity

102.

Hair that breaks easily when stretched has:

a)

Poor elasticity

b)

Good elasticity

c)

Medium elasticity

d)

Strong elasticity

103.

Processing time is most affected by:

a)

Hair texture and porosity

b)

Eye color

c)

Client height

d)

Nail strength

104.

The layer responsible for hair’s strength and resistance to chemicals is the:

a)

Cortex

b)

Cuticle

c)

Medulla

d)

Follicle

105.

When formulating color, the first factor to consider is:

a)

The natural level of the hair

b)

Desired clothing tone

c)

Nail color

d)

Makeup shade