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BISC 110 Final Review

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the fundamental unit of life?

a)

Atom

b)

Cell

c)

Molecule

d)

Tissue

2.

Which of the following best describes the structure of a cell membrane?

a)

Rigid wall

b)

Fluid mosaic

c)

Solid barrier

d)

Crystalline lattice

3.

What is the main function of phospholipids in the cell membrane?

a)

Provide energy for the cell

b)

Form a bilayer that separates the cell from its surroundings

c)

Store genetic information

d)

Synthesize proteins

4.

Which term refers to the ability of a biological membrane to allow certain substances to pass while blocking others?

a)

Permeability

b)

Selective permeability

c)

Osmosis

d)

Diffusion

5.

What is homeostasis?

a)

The process of cell division

b)

The maintenance of stable internal conditions in an organism

c)

The breakdown of food molecules

d)

The movement of water across a membrane

6.

Which feedback mechanism is most commonly used by living organisms to maintain homeostasis?

a)

Positive feedback

b)

Negative feedback

c)

Neutral feedback

d)

Random feedback

7.

How does hydrogen bonding affect the properties of water?

a)

It makes water a good solvent and allows for cohesion and temperature regulation

b)

It causes water to evaporate quickly

c)

It prevents water from mixing with other substances

d)

It makes water heavier than most liquids

8.

Which process requires a membrane protein and moves substances down their concentration gradient without energy input?

a)

Simple diffusion

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Active transport

d)

Osmosis

9.

Which process requires energy input (e.g., ATP) to move substances against their concentration gradient?

a)

Simple diffusion

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Active transport

d)

Osmosis

10.

What is a concentration gradient?

a)

The difference in temperature across a membrane

b)

The difference in the concentration of a substance across a space or membrane

c)

The difference in pressure across a cell

d)

The difference in pH across a solution

11.

How do concentration gradients impact the movement of solutes?

a)

Solutes move from areas of low concentration to high concentration

b)

Solutes move from areas of high concentration to low concentration

c)

Solutes do not move in response to concentration gradients

d)

Solutes move randomly regardless of concentration

12.

What distinguishes active transport from passive transport?

a)

Active transport requires energy, while passive transport does not.

b)

Passive transport requires energy, while active transport does not.

c)

Both require energy.

d)

Neither requires energy.

13.

The polymer of a carbohydrate is called a polysaccharide. What are the three main types and their functions?

a)

Starch (energy storage in plants), Glycogen (energy storage in animals), Cellulose (structural support in plants)

b)

Glucose (energy), Fructose (sweetness), Sucrose (table sugar)

c)

Protein (structure), Lipid (energy), Nucleic acid (information)

d)

Water (hydration), Salt (electrolyte), Vitamin (coenzyme)

14.

What is the building block, or monomer, of a protein? How many types of these building blocks are there in total?

a)

Amino acids; 20 types

b)

Fatty acids; 10 types

c)

Nucleotides; 4 types

d)

Sugars; 5 types

15.

What roles do proteins play in the cell and/or body?

a)

Structural support, enzymes, transport, signaling, and immune response

b)

Only energy storage

c)

Only genetic information

d)

Only hormone production

16.

Which organs are considered functional organs in the digestive system, where food passes through?

a)

Mouth, Esophagus, Stomach, Small Intestine, Large Intestine

b)

Pancreas, Liver, Gallbladder

c)

Heart, Lungs, Kidneys

d)

Brain, Spinal Cord, Nerves

17.

What are the main objectives of breathing? List the gases involved in inhalation and exhalation.

a)

To obtain oxygen and remove carbon dioxide; oxygen is inhaled, carbon dioxide is exhaled

b)

To obtain nitrogen and remove oxygen; nitrogen is inhaled, oxygen is exhaled

c)

To obtain carbon dioxide and remove oxygen; carbon dioxide is inhaled, oxygen is exhaled

d)

To obtain hydrogen and remove nitrogen; hydrogen is inhaled, nitrogen is exhaled

18.

What are the “air sacs” of the lung called, and where does gas exchange actually take place?

a)

Alveoli; gas exchange occurs in the alveoli

b)

Bronchi; gas exchange occurs in the bronchi

c)

Trachea; gas exchange occurs in the trachea

d)

Diaphragm; gas exchange occurs in the diaphragm

19.

Describe how blood carries oxygen. What is the name of the protein that binds to oxygen?

a)

Hemoglobin binds to oxygen in red blood cells

b)

Insulin binds to oxygen in white blood cells

c)

Myosin binds to oxygen in muscle cells

d)

Collagen binds to oxygen in skin cells

20.

Which system responds faster to changes in the body: the endocrine system or the nervous system?

a)

Endocrine system

b)

Nervous system

c)

Both respond at the same speed

d)

Neither responds quickly

21.

What is the main function of the hypothalamus in the endocrine system?

a)

Producing insulin

b)

Regulating body temperature and controlling hormone release

c)

Pumping blood

d)

Digesting food

22.

Which hormone is released when blood glucose levels are too high?

a)

Glucagon

b)

Insulin

c)

Melatonin

d)

Adrenaline

23.

What is the role of melatonin in the body?

a)

Regulates blood pressure

b)

Controls sleep-wake cycles

c)

Increases muscle strength

d)

Stimulates digestion

24.

Which part of a neuron receives incoming signals?

a)

Axon

b)

Dendrites

c)

Cell body

d)

Myelin sheath

25.

What is a synapse?

a)

A type of hormone

b)

A gap between two neurons where communication occurs

c)

A part of the heart

d)

A digestive enzyme

26.

Compare the roles of the endocrine and nervous systems in maintaining homeostasis. How do they work together or separately?

a)

Both systems only work separately and never together

b)

The nervous system provides rapid responses, while the endocrine system provides slower, longer-lasting effects; both can work together to maintain homeostasis

c)

Only the endocrine system maintains homeostasis

d)

Only the nervous system maintains homeostasis

27.

Explain the negative feedback mechanism for controlling blood glucose levels.

a)

Blood glucose levels are ignored by the body

b)

High blood glucose triggers insulin release, lowering glucose; low glucose triggers glucagon release, raising glucose

c)

Blood glucose is always kept high

d)

Blood glucose is controlled by melatonin

28.

Which type of diabetes requires insulin injections due to insufficient insulin production?

a)

Type 1 diabetes

b)

Type 2 diabetes

c)

Gestational diabetes

d)

Juvenile diabetes

29.

Why is sensory adaptation beneficial in everyday life?

a)

It allows us to ignore constant stimuli and focus on changes in our environment.

b)

It increases our sensitivity to pain.

c)

It prevents us from detecting new stimuli.

d)

It causes receptors to stop working.

30.

How do general senses differ from special senses?

a)

General senses have receptors distributed throughout the body, while special senses have localized receptors.

b)

General senses are only found in the brain.

c)

Special senses do not require receptors.

d)

General senses are not involved in touch or pain.

31.

What is DNA, and what essential information does it store?

a)

Genetic information for the development and functioning of living organisms

b)

Instructions for protein digestion

c)

Data for cell respiration

d)

Information for blood circulation

32.

In the 'ladder' analogy for DNA structure, what do the sides and rungs represent?

a)

Sides: sugar-phosphate backbone; Rungs: nitrogenous base pairs

b)

Sides: protein chains; Rungs: amino acids

c)

Sides: lipid bilayer; Rungs: carbohydrates

d)

Sides: cell membrane; Rungs: enzymes

33.

How does RNA differ from DNA in structure?

a)

RNA has ribose sugar, is single-stranded, and contains uracil instead of thymine

b)

RNA has deoxyribose sugar, is double-stranded, and contains thymine

c)

RNA has glucose sugar, is triple-stranded, and contains cytosine

d)

RNA has ribose sugar, is double-stranded, and contains adenine

34.

What is a codon, and what does it encode?

a)

A sequence of three nucleotides that encodes an amino acid

b)

A sequence of two nucleotides that encodes a protein

c)

A single nucleotide that encodes a carbohydrate

d)

A sequence of four nucleotides that encodes a lipid

35.

What is genetic engineering?

a)

The direct manipulation of an organism's genes using biotechnology

b)

The study of animal behavior

c)

The process of cell division

d)

The measurement of genetic diversity

36.

What is PCR (polymerase chain reaction) used for?

a)

Amplifying DNA sequences

b)

Breaking down proteins

c)

Synthesizing carbohydrates

d)

Measuring blood pressure

37.

What are genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?

a)

Organisms whose genetic material has been altered using genetic engineering techniques

b)

Organisms that have not been changed genetically

c)

Organisms that are only found in nature

d)

Organisms that cannot reproduce

38.

Describe the process of transcription in protein production.

a)

The synthesis of RNA from a DNA template

b)

The breakdown of proteins into amino acids

c)

The conversion of RNA into DNA

d)

The replication of DNA

39.

Why is complementary base-pairing significant for DNA's function?

a)

It ensures accurate replication and transmission of genetic information

b)

It allows proteins to be digested

c)

It prevents mutation

d)

It causes cell division

40.

What is the purpose of simple cell division in the body?

a)

To increase the number of cells for growth and repair

b)

To produce energy for the cell

c)

To remove waste products from the cell

d)

To synthesize proteins

41.

Which process do human cells use to divide during growth and tissue repair?

a)

Meiosis

b)

Binary fission

c)

Mitosis

d)

Budding

42.

Define cytokinesis.

a)

The division of the cell's nucleus

b)

The process of DNA replication

c)

The division of the cytoplasm to form two separate cells

d)

The alignment of chromosomes at the cell center

43.

During mitosis, what happens to sister chromatids?

a)

They fuse together

b)

They separate and move to opposite ends of the cell

c)

They are destroyed

d)

They remain paired in the nucleus

44.

What is metastasis and why is it significant in cancer biology?

a)

The process of cell division

b)

The spread of cancer cells to other parts of the body, making treatment more difficult

c)

The repair of damaged DNA

d)

The formation of benign tumors

45.

What are the characteristics and outcomes of benign and malignant tumors?

a)

Benign tumors spread rapidly; malignant tumors do not spread

b)

Benign tumors do not invade other tissues; malignant tumors can invade and spread to other tissues

c)

Both types of tumors are harmless

d)

Malignant tumors are always smaller than benign tumors

46.

What is a mutagen?

a)

A type of cell

b)

A substance that causes mutations in DNA

c)

A protein that repairs DNA

d)

A chromosome

47.

Why is it necessary for gametes to have only one set of chromosomes?

a)

To ensure offspring have double the chromosome number

b)

To maintain the correct chromosome number in offspring after fertilization

c)

To allow for faster cell division

d)

To prevent genetic variation

48.

What does "diploid" mean, and how is it notated?

a)

One set of chromosomes, notated as n

b)

Two sets of chromosomes, notated as 2n

c)

Three sets of chromosomes, notated as 3n

d)

Four sets of chromosomes, notated as 4n

49.

What is the only pair of human chromosomes that is non-homologous?

a)

Chromosome 1

b)

Chromosome 21

c)

Sex chromosomes (X and Y)

d)

Chromosome 12

50.

Define "allele" and explain its significance in genetics.

a)

A type of cell division

b)

A variant form of a gene that contributes to genetic diversity

c)

A protein that repairs DNA

d)

A chromosome pair

51.

How does meiosis create haploid cells from diploid cells?

a)

By duplicating chromosomes

b)

By dividing the cell twice, reducing the chromosome number by half

c)

By fusing two cells together

d)

By increasing the chromosome number

52.

What is the end result of meiosis in terms of the type and number of cells produced?

a)

Two diploid cells

b)

Four haploid cells

c)

One diploid cell

d)

Four diploid cells

53.

How does crossing over, independent assortment, and random fertilization contribute to genetic variability in gametes?

a)

They ensure all gametes are genetically identical

b)

They increase genetic diversity by mixing genetic material in different combinations

c)

They prevent mutations from occurring

d)

They reduce the number of chromosomes in gametes

54.

What is nondisjunction, and what are its consequences?

a)

The correct separation of chromosomes during meiosis; leads to healthy offspring

b)

The failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis; can result in embryos with abnormal chromosome numbers

c)

The fusion of two gametes; leads to genetic diversity

d)

The replication of DNA; leads to mutations

55.

Compare the roles of mitosis and meiosis in the body. What specific differences between these processes support their different purposes?

a)

Mitosis produces genetically unique cells for reproduction; meiosis produces identical cells for growth

b)

Mitosis is for growth and tissue repair, producing identical cells; meiosis is for sexual reproduction, producing genetically unique haploid cells

c)

Both mitosis and meiosis produce identical cells for tissue repair

d)

Meiosis is for growth and tissue repair; mitosis is for sexual reproduction

56.

Which of the following structures is NOT part of the male reproductive system that contributes fluids to semen?

a)

Seminal Vesicles

b)

Prostate

c)

Ovaries

d)

Vas deferens

57.

Where does human egg production (oogenesis) occur within the female body?

a)

Uterus

b)

Ovaries

c)

Vagina

d)

Fallopian tubes

58.

What is the term for a packet of genetic information found in cells?

a)

Gene

b)

Allele

c)

Chromosome

d)

Phenotype

59.

What is the difference between an allele and a chromosome?

a)

An allele is a variant form of a gene, while a chromosome is a structure containing many genes

b)

An allele is a type of cell, while a chromosome is a protein

c)

An allele is a structure containing many genes, while a chromosome is a variant form of a gene

d)

An allele and a chromosome are the same thing

60.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between dominant and recessive alleles?

a)

Dominant alleles mask the effects of recessive alleles

b)

Recessive alleles mask the effects of dominant alleles

c)

Dominant and recessive alleles always produce the same phenotype

d)

Dominant alleles are always harmful

61.

What is the difference between heterozygous and homozygous genotypes?

a)

Heterozygous has two different alleles, homozygous has two identical alleles

b)

Heterozygous has two identical alleles, homozygous has two different alleles

c)

Heterozygous refers to phenotype, homozygous refers to genotype

d)

There is no difference

62.

What is a monohybrid cross?

a)

A cross involving one gene with two alleles

b)

A cross involving two genes with multiple alleles

c)

A cross involving only dominant alleles

d)

A cross involving only recessive alleles

63.

What is the expected genotypic ratio in the offspring of a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents (Aa x Aa)?

a)

1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa

b)

2 AA : 1 Aa : 1 aa

c)

1 AA : 1 Aa : 2 aa

d)

3 AA : 1 aa

64.

How can a pedigree be useful in genetics?

a)

It helps determine the pattern of inheritance of a trait

b)

It shows the structure of chromosomes

c)

It identifies the location of genes on a chromosome

d)

It measures the amount of DNA in a cell

65.

Which of the following is the only phenotype that can be used to know an individual's genotype for certain in a pedigree?

a)

Recessive phenotype

b)

Dominant phenotype

c)

Both dominant and recessive phenotypes

d)

Neither phenotype

66.

What is the difference between incomplete dominance and codominance?

a)

Incomplete dominance results in a blend of traits, codominance shows both traits equally

b)

Incomplete dominance shows only one trait, codominance shows a blend

c)

Incomplete dominance and codominance are the same

d)

Incomplete dominance results in no trait expression

67.

How do incomplete dominance and codominance affect the number of phenotypes?

a)

They increase the number of phenotypes

b)

They decrease the number of phenotypes

c)

They do not affect the number of phenotypes

d)

They eliminate all phenotypes

68.

What is polygenic inheritance?

a)

Inheritance controlled by multiple genes

b)

Inheritance controlled by a single gene

c)

Inheritance controlled by environmental factors only

d)

Inheritance controlled by dominant alleles only

69.

How can environmental factors influence the expression of traits?

a)

They can modify how traits are expressed, leading to variation

b)

They have no effect on trait expression

c)

They only affect dominant traits

d)

They only affect recessive traits

70.

Which of the following is a main role of white blood cells in the immune system?

a)

Transporting oxygen

b)

Defending the body against pathogens

c)

Producing hormones

d)

Digesting food

71.

Where are lymphocytes primarily found in the body?

a)

In the digestive system

b)

In lymph nodes and other lymphatic tissues

c)

In the skin

d)

In the bones

72.

Which of the following best describes the difference between innate and adaptive immunity?

a)

Innate immunity is specific, adaptive immunity is nonspecific

b)

Innate immunity acts early and is nonspecific, adaptive immunity is specific and develops later

c)

Both are specific and act at the same time

d)

Adaptive immunity is only found in plants

73.

Which of the following is an example of a physical barrier in the first line of innate defense?

a)

Antibodies

b)

Skin

c)

Helper T cells

d)

Plasma cells

74.

What is the main function of inflammation in the immune response?

a)

To increase blood pressure

b)

To isolate and combat areas of infection

c)

To produce hormones

d)

To digest nutrients

75.

Which cell type secretes histamine during the immune response?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Basophils

c)

Plasma cells

d)

Helper T cells

76.

How do fevers help protect the body during infection?

a)

By lowering body temperature

b)

By speeding up the immune response and inhibiting pathogen growth

c)

By producing antibodies directly

d)

By increasing oxygen transport

77.

Which of the following is a key feature of adaptive immunity?

a)

It acts immediately and is nonspecific

b)

It targets specific pathogens and has memory

c)

It only involves physical barriers

d)

It does not involve white blood cells

78.

What is the difference between cell-mediated and humoral immunity?

a)

Cell-mediated immunity involves antibodies, humoral immunity involves T cells

b)

Cell-mediated immunity involves T cells, humoral immunity involves antibodies

c)

Both involve only physical barriers

d)

Both are part of innate immunity

79.

Which cells present antigens to helper T cells?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

c)

Basophils

d)

Platelets

80.

What are the "master cells" of the immune system that initiate and coordinate the adaptive immune response?

a)

Helper T cells

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Basophils

d)

Macrophages

81.

B and T cells are which type of white blood cell?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Basophils

d)

Eosinophils

82.

What is the main function of antibodies in the immune system?

a)

To digest food

b)

To bind to antigens and help neutralize pathogens

c)

To produce hormones

d)

To transport oxygen

83.

What is the difference between the primary and secondary immune responses?

a)

The primary response is faster and stronger than the secondary

b)

The secondary response is faster and stronger due to memory cells

c)

Both responses are identical

d)

The secondary response only occurs in plants

84.

What is the purpose of vaccination?

a)

To cure diseases instantly

b)

To build up the body's defenses against infectious diseases

c)

To increase blood pressure

d)

To produce hormones

85.

Which pathogen has spores that are carried through the air?

a)

protist/parasite

b)

fungi

c)

bacteria

d)

virus

86.

Influenza is caused by:

a)

virus

b)

bacteria

c)

parasite

d)

fungi