wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

NOA 56-60

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 8hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 25-year-old female patient has sustained burns to the back of the right arm, posterior trunk, front of the left leg, anterior head and neck, and perineum. Using the Rule of Nines, calculate the total body surface area percentage that is burned?

(a)  

2.

A 68-year-old male patient has partial-thickness burns to the front and back of the right and left leg, front of right arm, and anterior trunk. Using the Rule of Nines, calculate the total body surface area percentage that is burned?

(a)  

3.

A 35-year-old male patient has full-thickness burns to the anterior and posterior head and neck, front of left leg, and perineum. Using the Rule of Nines, calculate the total body surface area percentage that is burned?*

(a)  

4.

A burn wound may be covered using the patient’s own skin.

a)

Skin graft

b)

Autograft

c)

Meshed graft

d)

Split-thickness graft

5.

What do you do if inhalation injury is suspected?:

a)

Start o2 therapy

b)

Instruct the patient to begin coughing

c)

Administer an inhaler

d)

Get a STAT chest x-ray

6.

What may the patient with inhalation injuries suffer from?:

a)

 carbon monoxide poisoning

b)

Barking cough

c)

smoke poisoning

d)

thermal damage

7.

Vary in size and have multiple tiny slits that allow the skin to be stretched to cover a larger area.

What is this?:

(a)  

8.

After the graft is placed, How long should the area be immobilized to permit attatchment?:

a)

24 hours

b)

72 hours

c)

3-7 days

d)

6 weeks

9.

A patient had a deep skin biopsy. How should the nurse respond to the patient’s concern about postprocedure care?

a)

"An appointment will be made for you to return for suture removal."

b)

“The area must be examined at intervals beginning 48 hours after the procedure.”

c)

“No postprocedure care is required, and the results will be available immediately.”

d)

“Be prepared to spend a minimum of 1 night in the hospital.”

10.

A patient presents with a Stage 3 pressure ulcer to the sacrum. The wound has a large amount of exudate. What type of dressing would be utilized for this type of wound?

a)

Absorptive

b)

Occlusive

c)

Wet

d)

Dry

11.

The LVN/LPN is preparing to change a dressing on a patient with negative pressure wound therapy. Which of these is the most important nursing intervention?

a)

Cleanse the wound with normal saline.

b)

Apply a transparent adhesive dressing.

c)

Medicate the patient about 1 hour before the procedure.

d)

Check the suction canister for drainage.

12.

The nurse is determining the presence of jaundice in a dark-skinned patient. Observation of which areas would assist in the visual evaluation? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Helix of the ear

b)

Soles of feet

c)

Oral mucous membranes

d)

Palms of hands

e)

Absence of seborrheic keratosis

13.

Which of these is a general term used to document a wound, sore, tumor, or other tissue damage?

a)

Patch

b)

Papule

c)

Lesion

d)

Nevi

14.

An older adult patient is admitted to the hospital with multiple large, purplish bruises on the arms. When questioned further, the patient states “these happen when I barely bump into something”. How are these lesions documented?

a)

Lentigines

b)

Potential elder abuse

c)

Senile angiomas

d)

Senile purpura

15.

A patient presents for a shave biopsy of a skin lesion on the shoulder. What type of excision is done with this procedure?

a)

A wedge of tissue is removed with an incision

b)

Deep surgical excision

c)

Specimen obtained from the dermis with a scalpel

d)

Shallow excision using a circular tool

16.

The LVN/LPN is conducting an assessment on a patient with anxiety and notes that the patient has white lips, mucous membranes, and nail beds. How is this documented?

a)

Cyanosis

b)

jaundice

c)

pallor

d)

Erythema

17.

An older adult patient is complaining about her wrinkled skin. How could the nurse explain this occurrence to her?

a)

“This is caused by increased dryness of your skin as you age.”

b)

“This is caused by thinning of the skin and degeneration of elastin fibers.”

c)

“You have less melanin as you age.”

d)

“This is caused by decreased production of vitamin D.”

18.

A patient with a minor skin infection has orders to apply which of these topical medications?

a)

Acyclovir (Zovirax)

b)

Septal perforation hydrocortisone (Cortizone)

c)

Bacitracin and polymyxin B (Polysporin)

d)

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

19.

An obese patient is admitted with intertrigo between the abdominal skinfolds. The physician treats the patient for the presence of C. albicans. Which interventions are used for this condition?

a)

Apply cornstarch to skinfolds after bathing.

b)

Keep tissue soft with the use of baby oil.

c)

Apply wet soaks using iodine solution.

d)

Apply antifungals and corticosteroids as ordered.

20.

A woman of childbearing age is to begin taking Soriatane. Which instructions should the patient receive concerning this medication?

a)

Avoid extreme temperatures while taking this medication.

b)

The medication may increase the risk for lymphomas.

c)

No reliable drug studies have been completed concerning the use of this medication during pregnancy.

d)

Use reliable contraception during therapy and for 3 years after therapy with Soriatane.

21.

The nurse is caring for a patient who sustained a burn injury 1 week ago and has been transferred to the nursing unit. The patient has a bounding pulse and hypertension. This would signify which condition?

a)

hypoxia

b)

Fluid volume excess

c)

infection

d)

hypovalemia

22.

Which of these are accurate descriptions of basal cell carcinomas? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Pearly appearance

b)

Treated with surgical excision

c)

Rapid growth and tend to metastasize

d)

Related to sun exposure

23.

A patient reveals the use of angelica as an alternative therapy. Which instruction should the nurse provide for this patient?

a)

No known side effects have been noted.

b)

The agent requires the use of an occlusive dressing.

c)

The agent causes skin atrophy.

d)

The agent can cause a skin rash if a patient is exposed to sunlight.

24.

Patients who are pregnant, malnourished, immunosuppressed, or taking antibiotics are among those who are at risk for which condition?

a)

Psoriasis

b)

Acne

c)

Fissures

d)

Candidiasis

25.

A patient is being treated with intravenous amphotericin B for a severe fungal infection. This drug treatment is highly toxic to which body system?

a)

Renal

b)

Cardiovascular

c)

hepatic

d)

mucoskeletal

26.

A patient has received an order for ketoconazole (Nizoral). The nurse knows that this medication is used for which purpose?

a)

To treat an overgrowth of keratin

b)

To treat a viral infection

c)

To treat bacterial infection

d)

To treat a fungal infection

27.

The nurse is working in the postoperative area and just received a patient recovering from a blepharoplasty. For which possible complications should the nurse monitor? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Temporary or permanent facial nerve damage

b)

Hematoma

c)

Phlebitis

d)

Corneal injury

28.

Which of these are accurate descriptions of basal cell carcinomas? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Pearly appearance

b)

Treated with surgical excision

c)

Rapid growth and tend to metastasize

d)

Related to sun exposure

29.

A patient with liver dysfunction is seen in the clinic. What does the nurse expect to note during the examination of the eye?

a)

Macula

b)

Scotomata

c)

Icterus

d)

Arcus senilis

30.

The nurse observes an adult patient in self-administration of eardrops. Which action by the patient indicates the need for more teaching?

a)

The patient lies down with the affected ear up after administering drops.

b)

The patient holds the dropper near the opening of the canal during administration.

c)

The patient warms the drops to body temperature before administration.

d)

The patient pulls the auricle down and back during administration.

31.

The patient with a hearing aid asks the nurse to repeat questions multiple times. Which is the nurse’s priority intervention?

a)

Soak the hearing aid in normal saline.

b)

Irrigate the canal with normal saline.

c)

Change the hearing aid battery.

d)

Check the hearing aid’s placement.

32.

The LPN is collecting assessment data on a patient complaining of seeing double. How is this documented?

a)

Hyperopia

b)

Scotomata

c)

Photophobia

d)

Diplopia

33.

A patient is treated with mydriatic drops for an ophthalmologic examination in the clinic. What does the nurse tell the patient to do after the exam?

a)

advise patient to drive carefully if visual acuity is poor.

b)

Observe for greenish urine.

c)

Maintain bed rest for 4 hours.

d)

Wear sunglasses because the eyes will be sensitive to light.

34.

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of visual disturbances. Which medications would the nurse suspect are most likely related to the disturbances? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Digitalis (Lanoxin)

b)

Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin)

c)

Cimetidine (Tagamet)

d)

Indomethacin (Indocin)

35.

A severely stressed patient is being seen in the clinic. What should the nurse expect to notice upon assessment of the eye?

a)

Contracted iris and constricted pupil

b)

Relaxed iris and dilated pupil

c)

Contracted iris and dilated pupil

d)

Relaxed iris and constricted pupil

36.

A patient who had eye surgery on the right eye is being discharged from the hospital. What statement made by the patient would suggest that patient education has been effective?

a)

"I am excited that I will be able to go bowling this weekend.”

b)

“I have been straining trying to have a bowel movement.”

c)

“It is okay for me to rub my eyes if I get something in them.”

d)

“I will make sure to sleep on my left side for a little while.”

37.

During a teaching session, a patient frequently asks the nurse to repeat questions. What is the best action by the nurse?

a)

Shout loudly in patient's ear.

b)

Use exaggerated facial expressions.

c)

Place a bright light behind you.

d)

Speak slowly in lower tones.

38.

The nurse is conducting an admission assessment on a patient with bulging eyes. What medical history is suspected in this patient?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Hyperthyroidism

c)

Liver failure

d)

Diabetes

39.

What is the leading cause of blindness worldwide?

a)

Retinal detachment

b)

Macular degeneration

c)

Cataracts

d)

Glaucoma

40.

An older adult patient with chronic asthma was recently diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. What drug order received from the health care provider would the nurse question?

a)

Betaxolol (Betoptic)

b)

Timolol (Timoptic)

c)

Brimonidine (Alphagan)

d)

Levobetaxolol (Betaxon)

41.

A patient comes into the clinic complaining of inflammation of the eyelids. The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing which disorder?

a)

Chalazion

b)

Hordeolum

c)

Blepharitis

d)

Stye

42.

A patient who had keratoplasty of the left eye 1 week ago comes in for a follow-up appointment complaining of redness, swelling, increased light sensitivity, and pain. Which patient statement indicates the need for further education on postoperative care?

a)

“I must immediately notify the health care provider of these signs and symptoms.”

b)

“These are normal signs and symptoms related to keratoplasty.”

c)

“Corticosteroid drops usually help prevent the risk for rejection.”

d)

"These are signs and symptoms of a rejection of the corneal graft.”

43.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has sustained a traumatic facial injury. The patient begins to complain of sudden flashes of light accompanied by cloudy vision. What is the likely cause?

a)

Astigmatism

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Retinal detachment

d)

Macular degeneration

44.

The LPN is assisting with admission and needs to have the patient sign forms. The patient requests their glasses and states they cannot see images that are close. Which condition does this patient have?

a)

Hyperopia

b)

Astigmatism

c)

Myopia

d)

Presbyopia

45.

The LPN is caring for a patient after cataract surgery. What is the most important nursing intervention in the care of the postoperative cataract patient?

a)

Maintain bed rest for 12 hours.

b)

Have the patient use caution when driving home.

c)

Prevent strain on the operative side.

d)

Have the patient reinsert contact lenses after 1 hour.

46.

An older adult patient with a cloudy lens is scheduled for keratoplasty. What preoperative medication should the nurse expect to be ordered by the health care provider?

a)

Mydriatic agent

b)

Topical corticosteroid

c)

Systemic antimicrobial agent

d)

Miotic agent

47.

A patient is prescribed brinzolamide (Azopt) ophthalmic solution for the treatment of glaucoma. The nurse educates the patient about which side effect?

a)

Bitter taste

b)

Increased urine output

c)

Tingling of fingers

d)

Sore throat

48.

The nurse is preparing a patient for a stapedectomy. Which information will the nurse include in the patient’s preoperative teaching?

a)

Vertigo and nausea may occur after surgery.

b)

Tinnitus is common for weeks after surgery.

c)

Change the sterile packing and dressing daily.

d)

Hearing will return immediately after surgery.

49.

What is the most common cause of obstruction of the external ear canal?

a)

Insects

b)

Impacted cerumen

c)

Foreign body

d)

Swimmers ear

50.

A patient is complaining of malaise, headache, and soreness behind one ear. The nurse notes redness and swelling upon assessment. What condition does the nurse suspect based on this information?

a)

Foreign body

b)

Otitis media

c)

Labyrinthitis

d)

Mastoiditis

51.

The nurse is caring for a patient with Ménière disease. Which symptoms would the nurse expect to observe in this patient? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Nausea

b)

Tinnitus

c)

Vertigo

d)

Pallor

52.

A patient with Ménière disease is experiencing severe vertigo. Which instruction should the nurse give to the patient to assist in controlling the vertigo? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Lie still and watch television.

b)

Increase daily fluid intake.

c)

Avoid sudden head movement.

d)

Decrease sodium in the diet.

53.

A patient tells the nurse, “My ears are ringing.” The nurse reviews the patient’s medication list and determines which drug may be causing this?

a)

Warfarin (Coumadin)

b)

Meperidine (Demerol)

c)

Acetaminophen with codeine (Tylenol with Codeine)

d)

Furosemide (Lasix)

54.

A patient who swims regularly has been diagnosed with external otitis. Which instructions should the nurse include when educating the patient?

a)

Irrigate the ears with warm water.

b)

Avoid placing eardrops on the ear wick.

c)

Use ear buds while jogging.

d)

Use ear plugs while swimming.

55.

A child is brought into the emergency department with an upper respiratory infection, fever, and a painful ear. What does the nurse expect the patient to be treated for?

a)

Otitis media

b)

Labyrinthitis

c)

Impacted cerumen

d)

Otitis externa

56.

A patient with chronic swimmers ear is taught measures to avoid exacerbation. Which of these does the LPN tell the patient to do?

a)

Use a drying agent after swimming or bathing.

b)

Dry the ear canal with cotton-tipped applicators.

c)

Wear earplugs when sleeping.

d)

Consult a surgeon to have ear tubes placed.

57.

The patient with an upper respiratory infection complains of vertigo and nausea. What does the nurse suspect with these symptoms?

a)

Labyrinthitis

b)

Mastoiditis

c)

Otitis media

d)

Foreign body

58.

IOP is increased above normal.

a)

Cataracts

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Conjunctivitis

d)

Macular Degeneration

59.

When the lens of the eye becomes opaque (i.e cloudy) it is no longer transparent.

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Cataracts

c)

Retinal detatchment

d)

Enucleation

60.

What symptoms should the LPN tell the patient who was diagnosed with Cataracts to expect?:

a)

Ghost images/floaters

b)

Cloudy vision

c)

Seeing spots

d)

Blindness

61.

What's this?

(a)  

62.

What is this?:

(a)  

63.

If the patient is prescribed 2 eyedrops. How long should you wait in between?:

a)

10 minutes

b)

1 minute

c)

5 minutes

d)

You don't need to wait.

64.

How long should you or the patient apply gentle pressure to the lacrimal sac at the inner canthus of the eye after administering eye drops?:

a)

30 seconds

b)

15 seconds

c)

1 minute

d)

5 minutes

65.

Dilate pupil. Used before examinations and uveitis.

a)

Meclizine

b)

cyclopentolate eye drops

c)

Mydriatics

d)

Miosis

66.

Prevent or treat nausea and vomiting and motion sickness. 

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Pepto Bismol

c)

Meclizine

d)

Epinephrine

67.

Treatment of chronic open-angle glaucoma.

a)

Timolol

b)

Latanoprost

c)

Epinephrine

d)

silver sulfadiazine

68.

Increases aqueous outflow in open-angle glaucoma and ocular hypertension.

a)

Epinephrine

b)

silver sulfadiazine

c)

Latanoprost

d)

corticosteroids

69.

Dilate pupil. Used in open-angle glaucoma. Decrease corneal congestion. Control hemorrhage.

a)

corticosteroids

b)

Miotics

c)

Mydriatics

d)

Epinephrine

70.

Prevent/treat wound infections in patients with second and third-degree burns.

a)

Mydriatics

b)

silver sulfadiazine

c)

Miotics

d)

naproxen

71.

Prevent redness and swelling caused by inflammation from causes other than a bacterial infection. For short-term use only.

a)

corticosteroids

b)

Icy-hot

c)

Biofreeze

d)

Florasone

72.

Constrict pupils.

a)

Miotics

b)

Mydriatics

73.

Dilate pupils.

a)

Mydriatics

b)

Miotics

74.

What should the nurse be on alert for when assessing a burn victim?

a)

hypoxia

b)

excess fluid volume or deficient fluid volume

c)

hypovolemia

d)

infection.

75.

What are possible behaviors you may see in a patient with a hearing deficit?:

a)

Speech deterioration slurring or dropping ends of words

b)

Pain from wearing hearing aids

c)

Social withdrawal  afraid to participate in social activities

d)

depression from mental disability.

e)

Suspiciousness - fear that people are talking about them because of the inability to hear the entire conversation

76.

When caring for a client who is visually impaired, what are the best techniques for communication? Select all that apply.

a)

Avoid using words such as "see" or "look"

b)

Explain where items are on the diet tray

c)

Provide a visual description of the room

d)

Speak clearly and loudly to the client

e)

Touch the client's arm when communicating

77.

Which of the following should you not do when taking care of a patient who has difficulty hearing?:

a)

Speak loudly in their good ear.

b)

Provide adequate lighting directed toward your face.

c)

Do not eat, smoke, or chew gum if the patient reads lips.

d)

Ensure that the patient knows you are present. Try to move in the patient’s line of vision.

78.

Your patient is being treated for open-angle glaucoma. What assessment finding is NOT typically present with this type of glaucoma?

a)

Tunnel vision

b)

Cloudy vision

c)

Optic disc cupping

d)

High intraocular pressure

79.

What signs and symptoms are present with angle-closure glaucoma? Select all that apply:

a)

Sudden vision changes (halos around lights or blurred vision)

b)

No pain

c)

Patients are mainly asymptomatic

d)

Red eyes

e)

Severe eye pain

80.

Difficulty reading 

Changes in color vision ( colors look faded or yellow) 

One of the earliest symptoms is seeing a halo around lights

Glaring of objects in bright lights 

Distortion of objects 

Blurred vision

Poor night vision

Double vision in one eye

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Cataracts

c)

Retinal detatchment

81.

The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client with a diagnosis of detached retina. Which of the following is associated with this eye disorder?

a)

Pain in the affected eye

b)

Total loss of vision

c)

sense of a curtain falling across the field of vision

d)

A yellow discoloration of the sclera.

82.

Which of the following symptoms would occur in a client with a detached retina?

a)

Flashing lights and floaters

b)

Homonymous hemianopia

c)

Loss of central vision

d)

Ptosis

83.

True or False: Basal and squamous cell carcinoma are both considered nonmelanoma types of skin cancer.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

84.

Identify the patients below who are at a HIGH risk for developing skin cancer. Select all that apply:

a)

A 22-year-old female who reports using a tanning bed three times per week.

b)

A 55-year-old male with dark skin that reports always wearing sunscreen while outdoors.

c)

A 35-year-old female with light-colored skin and eyes that reports frequent sunburns as a child.

d)

A 29-year-old who reports a family history of melanoma.

85.

What's this?

a)

Melanocytes

b)

Basal cells

c)

Squamous cells

86.

What's this?

a)

Squamous cells

b)

Basal cells

c)

Melanocytes

87.

What's this?

a)

Melanocytes

b)

Squamous cell

c)

Basal cell

88.

What needs to be included in Patient teaching regarding skin cancer prevention:

a)

Always use sunscreen SPF of at least 15, higher is better if sunburn easily (reapply Q2H)

b)

Avoid prolonged sun exposure between 10 am and 4 pm; avoid artificial tanning.

c)

Use a lip balm with sunscreen, wear a hat with a wide brim and cover the back of the neck; stay in shade; wear tightly woven, loose-fitting clothing

d)

Apply sunscreen q5h

89.

Commonly called shingles. The first symptoms are pain, itching, and heightened sensitivity along a nerve pathway, followed by the formation of vesicles.

Lesions typically last approximately 2 weeks. 

The infection is contagious to people who have not had previous exposure to the virus.

Treated with antivirals.

a)

Herpes zoster

b)

Herpes simplex

c)

HIV

d)

Dematitis

90.

Characterized by scaly, dermal patches caused by overproduction of keratin. Can occur at a rate up to seven times the rate of normal cells. Thought to be autoimmune has periods of exacerbations and remissions. Affects both men and women, the onset is young and middle adulthood.

The classic sign is the appearance of bright-red lesions that may be covered with silvery scales

It May affect a limited body area or maybe extensive 

Risk factors: Infections, Skin trauma, Genetics, Stress, Seasons, Hormones, Medications, Obesity, Female sex

a)

Dermatitis

b)

Pruritis

c)

Dermatitis

d)

Psoriasis

91.

Which of the following is not a function of the skin?

a)

Synthesis of vitamin D

b)

Secretion of hormones

c)

Blood reservoir

d)

Body temperature regulation