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Anatomy Final (part 1)

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The tendency of the body to maintain stable internal conditions is called:

a)

metastasis

b)

homeostasis

c)

responsiveness

d)

adaptation

e)

evolution

2.

Each of the graphs below reflects changes in some hypothetical body parameter. Which graph best represents a dynamic equilibrium?

a)

straight line

b)

wavy line

c)

positive line

d)

negative line

3.

What is the most important reason that an ultrasound is used to evaluate development of the fetus rather than a CT scan?

a)

Ultrasounds are cheaper

b)

x-rays are more likely to harm the fetus than sound waves

c)

CT scans are unable to penetrate the amniotic fluid

d)

ultrasounds are portable

4.

Which of the following techniques is best to evaluate breath sounds in an asthmatic patient?

a)

palpation

b)

auscultation

c)

inspection

d)

percussion

5.

Which of the following lists parts of the body's organization from most complex to simplest?

a)

whole body, organelle, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, atom

b)

whole body, organ system, organ, cell, tissue, organelle, atom

c)

whole body, organ system, organelle, tissue, cell, organ, atom

d)

whole body, organ system, organ, tissue, cell, organelle, atom

e)

whole body, organ, organ system, tissue, cell, organelle, atom

6.

The only polysaccharide synthesized in the human body is:

a)

cellulose

b)

starch

c)

cholesterol

d)

glycogen

e)

prostaglandin

7.

Which of the following is most important in determining the chemical properties of an element?

a)

number of neutrons

b)

presence of hydrogen bonds

c)

van der Waals forces

d)

number of valence electrons

e)

contents of the nucleus

8.

What element is part of the backbone of protein molecules but is not part of the basic structure of either carbohydrates or lipids?

a)

carbon

b)

nitrogen

c)

oxygen

d)

hydrogen

9.

How do catalysts (enzymes) influence activation energy and reaction rates?

a)

up activation energy and up reaction rate

b)

up activation energy and down reaction rate

c)

down activation energy and down reaction rate

d)

down activation energy and up reaction rate

10.

What are the amphiphilic molecules that make up most of the bilayer of the cell membrane?

a)

triglycerides

b)

sterols

c)

phospholipids

d)

saccharides

e)

eicosanoids

11.

Minerals from the diet are important as each of the following except:

a)

structural components

b)

cofactors

c)

electrolytes

d)

energy sources

12.

What determines the identity of an element?

a)

the number of electrons

b)

the number of neutrons

c)

the number of protons

d)

the number of protons plus neutrons

13.

What about the carbon makes it suitable as the basis of organic compounds?

a)

it is highly electronegative so it is very reactive

b)

it is amphiphilic so it can dissolve in many different solvents

c)

it has valence electrons so it can form bonds with 4 other atoms

d)

it has more than 1 isotope so it can form a wide variety of compounds

14.

Which of the following is not the correct pairing of polymer and monomer?

a)

protein- amino acid

b)

nucleic acid- nucleotide

c)

polysaccharide- monosaccharide

d)

all of the above are the correct pairings

15.

____ is the reaction involved in the formation of polymers like proteins, during which ____.

a)

hydrolysis; water molecules are released

b)

hydrolysis; water molecules are added

c)

hydration synthesis; water molecules are added

d)

dehydration synthesis; water molecules are released

e)

condensation; an ATP molecule is released

16.

Which of the following concerning pH is not true?

a)

pH is a measure of the H+ concentration

b)

the conformation of a protein can be changed by changes in pH

c)

an acid is a proton donor

d)

increasing the pH from 5 to 8 increases the H+ concentration by a factor of 1000

17.

Which of the following is a disaccharide?

a)

lactose

b)

galactose

c)

glucose

d)

fructose

e)

amylose

18.

What class molecule is defined as a hydrophobic organic molecule?

a)

protein

b)

carbohydrate

c)

lipid

d)

nucleic acid

19.

Which of the following molecules does not contain a double bond?

a)

cis fatty acid

b)

trans fatty acid

c)

polyunsaturated fatty acid

d)

saturated fatty acid

20.

Which of the following types of compounds can be configured into the greatest variety of shapes, allowing it to serve the greatest variety of purposes?

a)

triglycerides

b)

fatty acids

c)

phospholipids

d)

plysaccharides

e)

proteins

21.

Most human cells range from 10-15 micrometers in diameter. What limits how large a cell can be?

a)

a cell's lifespan

b)

nutrients available in the environment of a cell

c)

the relationship between its volume and surface area

d)

the ability to produce membrane proteins

e)

the size of the nucleus

22.

Which of the following is not primarily involved in the degradation or oxidation of substances?

a)

lysosome

b)

proteasome

c)

nucleosome

d)

peroxisome

23.

What do ribosomes do?

a)

make carbohydrates for attaching to proteins

b)

make proteins

c)

make steroids and other lipids

d)

make RNA

e)

involved in the separation of chromosomes during mitosis

24.

An ion gate in the plasma membrane that opens or closes when a chemical binds to it is call a/an:

a)

gated transporter

b)

chemically-gated carrier

c)

ligand-gated channel

d)

aquaporin

e)

hormone-sensitive pump

25.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

A cell's second messengers serve mainly to transport solutes through the membrane

b)

The brush border of a cell is composed of cilia

c)

Most of the molecules of the plasma membrane are proteins

d)

A cell's glycocalyx helps distinguish it from foreign cells so it won't be attacked by the immune system

26.

Which of the following would be most likely to diffuse through a plasma membrane without assistance of a membrane protein?

a)

Na+

b)

fatty acid

c)

Ca2+

d)

a carbohydrate

e)

Cl-

27.

A red blood cell is placed in a hypotonic solution. This means that the concentration of solutes in the solution is ____ than the concentration of solutes in the cell and will cause the cell to ____>

a)

higher; swell

b)

lower; swell

c)

higher; shrink

d)

lower; shrink

28.

Which of the following would not be expected to be found imbedded in the plasma membrane?

a)

hormone receptor

b)

an enzyme (like lactase)

c)

ribosome

d)

cell identity marker

29.

What does everyone inherit, largely unchanged, from their maternal grandmother?

a)

X chromosome

b)

1/2 of your genes

c)

mitochondrial DNA

d)

the tendency to be bald

30.

____ provide motility to sperm, ____ help clear mucus in the respiratory tract, and ____ increase a cell's surface area.

a)

Cilia; microvilli; flagella

b)

microvilli; cilia; flagella

c)

microvilli; flagella; cilia

d)

flagella; microvilli; cilia

e)

flagella; cilia; microvilli

31.

Which of the following is not an example if a process known as "bulk transport"?

a)

endocytosis

b)

exocytosis

c)

transcytosis

d)

diffusion

32.

Facilitated diffusion and active transport have in common that both are:

a)

processes involving transport of a solute up its concentration gradient

b)

processes involving transport of a solute down its concentration gradient

c)

processes involving the use of energy provided by ATP

d)

processes that are ATP independent

e)

examples of carrier-mediated transport

33.

Which of the following is not a part of a cell's cytoskeleton

a)

microtubule

b)

microvillus

c)

intermediate filament

d)

microfilament

34.

Which of the following is a type of supportive connective tissue?

a)

areolar connective tissue

b)

dense irregular connective tissue

c)

elastic dense regular connective tissue

d)

dense irregular connective tissue

e)

fibrocartilage

35.

What is the predominate protein in dense regular connective tissue?

a)

actin

b)

collagen

c)

elastic

d)

keratin

e)

fillagrin

36.

Which of these is a primary germ layer?

a)

mucosa

b)

epidermis

c)

endothelium

d)

ectoderm

e)

epithelium

37.

Fibers and ground substance make up the ____ of a connective tissue.

a)

cytosol

b)

matrix

c)

cytoplasm

d)

umbo

38.

Which type of epithelium has a single layer of cells with little cytoplasm so tends to be less active?

a)

simple squamous epithelium

b)

simple cuboidal epithelium

c)

stratified columnar epithelium

d)

simple columnar epithelium

e)

pseudo stratified columnar epithelium

39.

What tissue lines the small intestine?

a)

simple columnar epithelium

b)

simple cuboidal epithelium

c)

stratified squamous epithelium

d)

stratified cuboidal epithelium

40.

Which of the following is not a type of fiber found in connective tissue?

a)

reticular

b)

areolar

c)

collagenous

d)

elastic

41.

Which type of epithelium appears layered when it is actually only a single layer of cells?

a)

simple columnar epithelium

b)

stratified squamous epithelium

c)

stratified columnar epithelium

d)

simple squamous epithelium

e)

pseudo stratified columnar epithelium

42.

____ glands release their secretions when the entire cell breaks down, whereas ____ glands release their secretion when the end (apex) of the cell is pinched off.

a)

endocrine; exocrine

b)

merocrine; apocrine

c)

apocrine; merocrine

d)

holocrine; apocrine

e)

merocrine; holocrine

43.

Which of the following is not one of the 4 basic types of which the body is composed?

a)

epithelium

b)

muscle tissue

c)

connective tissue

d)

adipose

e)

nervous tissue

44.

Which type of epithelium lines surfaces exposed to abrasion?

a)

simple columnar epithelium

b)

stratified columnar epithelium

c)

stratified squamous epithelium

d)

simple squamous epithelium

e)

pseudo stratified columnar epithelium

45.

How does epithelium usually obtain nutrients?

a)

by diffusion from capillaries in the underlying connective tissue

b)

by diffusion from fluid in the adjacent lumen

c)

from capillaries that penetrate the epithelium

d)

by transcytosis through cells of the basement membrane

46.

In what type of tissue are glial cells found?

a)

cartilage

b)

nervous

c)

adipose

d)

bone

e)

muscular

47.

Which type of tissue usually has relatively few cells and an abundance of matrix that is most important to its function?

a)

adipose

b)

epithelium

c)

nervous tissue

d)

muscle tissue

e)

connective tissue

48.

The replacement of damaged tissue with functional tissue of the same type is called:

a)

metaplasia

b)

fibrosis

c)

neoplasia

d)

apoptosis

e)

regeneration

49.

All of the following are important functions of the skin except:

a)

sensing the external environment

b)

production of vitamin C

c)

protection against entry of pathogens such as bacteria

d)

regulation of body temperature

e)

protection against ultraviolet radiation from the sun

50.

What kind of tissue makes up the superficial layer of the skin?

a)

Simple squamous epithelium

b)

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

c)

dense regular connective tissue

d)

dense irregular connective tissue

e)

nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

51.

What protein is concentrated in the dead cells at the surface of the epidermis

a)

collagen

b)

keratin

c)

elastin

d)

melanin

e)

reticulin

52.

What cells of the epidermis are sensory cells of the nervous system?

a)

melanocytes

b)

fibroblasts

c)

stem cells

d)

keratinocytes

e)

tactile (Merkel) cells

53.

What is the main protein in the fibers that make up the dermis?

a)

collagen

b)

keratin

c)

elastin

d)

melanin

e)

reticulin

54.

From what type of skin cell does the most-deadly type of skin cancer arise?

a)

melanocytes

b)

dendritic cells

c)

stem cells

d)

keratinocytes

e)

tactile (Merkel) cells

55.

Which of the following is the superficial layer of the epidermis made up of dead cells?

a)

stratum lucidum

b)

stratum spinosum

c)

stratum granulosum

d)

stratum basale

e)

stratum corneum

56.

Which cells secrete enzymes and hydrochloric acid that break down bone?

a)

osteoblast

b)

osteoclast

c)

osteocyte

d)

chondroblast

e)

osteogenic cell

57.

When the matrix of bones, ____ provides hardness, whereas ____ provides flexibility.

a)

calcium, phosphate and other minerals; proteins

b)

collagen and elastic fibers; minerals

c)

glycoproteins; proteoglycans

d)

calcium carbonate; calcium phosphate

e)

proteins; collagen

58.

A growing long bone in a child has only two areas of cartilage near the epiphysis. These two areas are

a)

elastic cartilage and epiphyseal plate

b)

epiphyseal plate and epiphyseal line

c)

primary and secondary ossification centers

d)

fibrocartilage and articular cartilage

e)

articular cartilage and epiphyseal plate

59.

Wolff's Law of bone explains the effect of

a)

different diets on bone elongation

b)

mechanical stress on bone remodeling

c)

temperature on bone growth

d)

age on bone thickening

e)

gender on bone widening

60.

What is interstitial bone growth?

a)

the process by which bones of the skull are formed

b)

the process by which adult bones widen

c)

the process of bone growth at the epiphyseal plate

d)

the process by which adult bones lengthen

e)

the process by which circumferential lamellae are formed

61.

Which organs controls how much calcium is in the body, not just how it is distributed?

a)

bone and small intestine

b)

kidney and small intestine

c)

bone

d)

kidney and bone

e)

kidney

62.

How should the body respond to rising blood calcium levels?

a)

increase calcitriol, increase PTH, decrease calcitonin

b)

decrease calcitriol, increase PTH, decrease calcitonin

c)

increase calcitriol, decrease PTH, decrease calcitonin

d)

decrease calcitriol, decrease PTH, increase calcitonin

e)

decrease calcitriol, increase PTH, increase calcitonin

63.

A 65-year old woman who is concerned about her family history of osteoporosis, has a DEXA scan done and is told her t-score is 0. What does this mean?

a)

She should be glad that her bone density is very good for her age

b)

she has osteopenia and should be watched closely

c)

she has osteoporosis and should start treatment

d)

there is an error as a 0 is not a possible result

64.

What is smooth, flat, slightly concave or convex articular surface?

a)

condyle

b)

facet

c)

head

d)

process

e)

tubercle

65.

Which of the following bones contains a paranasal sinus?

a)

temporal

b)

pariteal

c)

vomer

d)

sphenoid

e)

lacrimal

66.

Which of the following helps form the zygomatic arch?

a)

ethmoid

b)

sphenoid

c)

temporal

d)

frontal

e)

pariteal

67.

What passes through intervertebral foramina?

a)

blood vessels

b)

spinal cord

c)

spinal nerves

d)

spinal muscles

e)

transverse ligament

68.

What part of the humerus articulates with the radius?

a)

radial tuberosity

b)

tubercle

c)

capitulum

d)

ulnar tuberosity

e)

trochlea

69.

Which of the following bones articulates with the distal end of the radius?

a)

hamate

b)

trapezoid

c)

trapezium

d)

capitate

e)

scaphoid

70.

The medial malleolus is a feature of what bone?

a)

fibula

b)

femur

c)

tibia

d)

radius

e)

atlas

71.

What bone is informally known as the "sitting bone" as it most directly bears one's weight when seated?

a)

sacrum

b)

ilium

c)

pubis

d)

ischium

e)

coccyx

72.

Which of the following bones would bear the least weight when a person stands?

a)

sacrum

b)

tibia

c)

fibula

d)

femur

e)

calcaneus

73.

Which of the following is one of the tarsal bones?

a)

capitate

b)

trapezium

c)

pisiform

d)

cuboid

e)

lunate

74.

Which of the following is the least moveable?

a)

a diarthrosis

b)

a syndesmosis

c)

an amphiarthrosis

d)

a synarthrosis

75.

Which of the following is a type of fibrous joint?

a)

synarthrosis

b)

synostosis

c)

suture

d)

amphiarthrosis

e)

symphysis

76.

Which of the following joints does not contain fibrocartilage?

a)

knee

b)

pubic symphysis

c)

ankle

d)

shoulder

77.

Which type of joint is the epiphyseal plate?

a)

synostosis

b)

gomphosis

c)

symphysis

d)

syndesmosis

e)

synchondrosis

78.

Which of the following is an example of a pivot joint?

a)

knee

b)

shoulder

c)

interphalangeal joint

d)

humeroradial joint

e)

metacarpal-phalangeal joint

79.

Which of the following will allow the force applied through a lever to move the heaviest load?

a)

short effort arm and short resistance arm

b)

short effort arm and long resistance arm

c)

long effort arm and long resistance arm

d)

long effort arm and short resistance arm

80.

Squatting from the anatomical position involves ____ the hip and ____ the knee

a)

flexing; flexing

b)

flexing; extending

c)

extending; extending

d)

extending; flexing

e)

abducting; flexing

81.

What is the term for the motion in which the thigh, rotating at the hip, swings away from the body in a frontal plane?

a)

extension

b)

flexion

c)

adduction

d)

abduction

82.

Which of the following is damaged in a high ankle sprain?

a)

interosseous membrane

b)

medial collateral ligament

c)

anterior cruciate ligament

d)

deltoid ligament

83.

What disorder involves the loss of articular cartilage from wear and tear?

a)

rheumatoid arthritis

b)

osteoarthritis

c)

bursitis

d)

a sprain

e)

tendonitis

84.

Which of the following concerning synovial joints is not true?

a)

synovial fluid helps nourish articular cartilage

b)

minimizing use of the knee helps maintain the health of its articular cartilage

c)

menisci within the knee absorb shock and stabilize the joint

d)

bursae help tendons move freely over bones

85.

What is the most common type of lever through which muscles act in the human body?

a)

1st class

b)

2nd class

c)

3rd class

d)

4th class

86.

Pitchers often require Tommy John surgery because of stresses placed on the ____ in the elbow.

a)

ulnar collateral ligament

b)

ACL

c)

Ligamentum teres

d)

Radial collateral ligament

87.

What layer of the skin contains finger-like upward projections?

a)

papillary layer of the epidermis

b)

reticular layer of the dermis

c)

papillary layer of the dermis

d)

hypodermis

e)

reticular layer of the epidermis

88.

Which of the following is not an effect elicited by ultraviolet light striking the skin?

a)

increase in the production of melanin

b)

increased risk of developing skin cancer

c)

production of vitamin D

d)

increase in the body stores of folic acid

89.

Which of the following glands develops at puberty in the groin, axillae and areas of the beard and under stress or sexual stimulation produces an oily sweat which may contain pheromones?

a)

apocrine sweat glands

b)

merocrine sweat glands

c)

mammary sweat glands

d)

ceruminous glands

e)

sebaceous glands

90.

Which of the following skin conditions or appearances would most likely result from liver failure?

a)

pallor

b)

erythema

c)

seborrheic dermatitis

d)

jaundice

e)

melanization

91.

Which of the following is not one of the major roles of the skeletal system?

a)

endocrine organ

b)

buffer acid

c)

site of hematopoiesis (blood cell production)

d)

reservoir for calcium

92.

Which of the following statements is not true?

a)

the outer layer of bone is cortical bone that is supported internally by trabecular bone

b)

yellow marrow is where active blood cell production takes place

c)

bone density peaks around age 30

d)

rickets is related to deficiency of vitamin D

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