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Accountability online content and eye disorders

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Personal responsibility for one's actions and a commitment to improve practice

(a)  

2.

Which of the following includes accountability in nursing:

a)

Professional components

b)

Administrative components

c)

Ethical components

d)

Legal components

3.

Which of the following organizations establish standards of care/practice?

a)

Joint Commission

b)

American Nurse Association

c)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

d)

National League of Nursing

4.

Which of the following establish guidelines for nurses?

a)
Healthcare policies and procedures.
b)
Patient care standards and protocols.
c)
Medical research and findings.
d)

Standards of Care.

5.

What are the four core values in the UCBA curriculum?

a)
logical reasoning, written communication, personal ethics, global awareness
b)
creative thinking, clear expression, legal reasoning, civic duty
c)
analytical skills, persuasive writing, moral judgment, community engagement
d)

Caring, patient centeredness, safety, quality.

6.

Which of the following are components of accountability in the nursing profession?

a)

Successful completion of a program providing the body of knowledge necessary for performance of the role

b)

A focus toward service, be it community or in an organizational capacity

c)

Allegiance to a code of ethics

d)

Autonomy of the role

e)

Membership in a professional organization

7.

A nurse administers the wrong dose of medication to a patient but recognizes the
error immediately. What is the nurse’s most appropriate initial action?
A. Document the error in the patient’s chart without informing anyone
B. Notify the physician and follow the facility’s error reporting policy
C. Monitor the patient for side effects and say nothing if the patient is stable
D. Report the error to a colleague at the end of the shift

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

8.

As a nursing student, you are responsible and accountable for...

a)

What you learn

b)

Student Nurse Association Code of Ethics

c)

UCBA Nursing Curriculum's Core Values

d)

Nurse Practice Act

e)

The patients you take care of

9.

Which of the following are factors affecting nursing practice and accountability?

a)

Cultural beliefs

b)

Science and technology

c)

Legislation

d)

Consumer demand

e)

Economics

10.

processing the knowledge & skills
necessary to perform one’s job appropriately and
safely in nursing

a)
Nursing qualifications
b)
Clinical skills assessment
c)
Patient care standards
d)

Nursing competence

11.

What are the four domains of nursing practice?

a)

Health and Wellness Promotion

b)

Illness Prevention

c)

Health Restoration

d)

Clinical Practice

e)

Care for the Dying

12.

A process that enables individuals and
communities to increase their control over the
determinants of well-being, thereby improving their
overall well-being which leads to improving overall
health

a)

Health and Wellness Promotion

b)

Illness Prevention

c)
Wellness management
d)
Health awareness
13.

Maintain optimal health by preventing disease
• Hand hygiene
• Aseptic Technique
• Precautions

a)

Illness Prevention

b)

Health and Wellness Promotion

c)

Health restoration

d)

Caring for the Dying

14.

Getting back to previous health status

a)

Health Restoration

b)

Illness Prevention

c)

Health and Wellness Promotion

d)

Caring for the Dying

15.

Live comfortably as possible until death
• Hospice care
• Palliative care

a)

Health and Wellness Promotion

b)

Illness Prevention

c)

Health Restoration

d)

Caring for the Dying

16.

Which of the following explains the Benner Skill Acquisition Model?

a)
The Benner Skill Acquisition Model describes patient care techniques.
b)
The Benner Skill Acquisition Model focuses on medication administration only.
c)
The Benner Skill Acquisition Model outlines five levels of nursing proficiency from novice to expert.
d)
The Benner Skill Acquisition Model categorizes nurses by their age and experience.
17.

Which of the following is described from the Benner Skill Acquisition Model?

New grad; starting to recognize more significant information

a)
Competent
b)
Novice
c)
Proficient
d)
Advanced Beginner
18.

Which of the following of Benner Skill Acquisition Model is described?

2-3 years of experience, recognize parts but not the whole

a)
Competent
b)
Expert
c)
Proficient
d)
Novice
19.

Which of the following skills that will develop with more experience is described?

Effective communication; Make real connections to patients
and their families/ friends and your colleagues

a)

Cognitive skills

b)

Technical skills

c)

Interpersonal skills

d)
Basic listening skills
20.

A newly licensed nurse is assigned to care for a patient with a chest tube. The
nurse has observed the procedure during orientation but has never independently
provided care for a patient with a chest tube. Which action demonstrates
professional competence?
A. Perform the chest tube care independently to build confidence
B. Ask a senior nurse to supervise while providing the chest tube care
C. Refuse to care for the patient until more training is completed
D. Delegate chest tube care to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

21.

actions taken by government bodies and other societal actors to attain specific health-related goals

-include laws, regulations, government agency guidelines, position statements, resolutions, judicial decrees, and budget priorities

a)
Health policies
b)
Health initiatives
c)
Wellness programs
d)
Public health strategies
22.

________ _________ may also develop health policy.
• Not established in law or regulation
• Still have influence over policy change

a)

Private Agencies

b)
Government agencies
c)
Nonprofit organizations
d)
Interest groups
23.

Which of the following executive branch agencies affects health policies?

a)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
b)

Centers for Disease Control (CDC)

c)
Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)
d)
Department of Labor (DOL)
24.

Which state executive agencies affect health policies?

a)

State health departments

b)
Environmental Protection Agency
c)

State boards of nursing

d)
Department of Education
25.

Which Federal Agencies affect health policies?

a)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
b)
Department of Education (ED)
c)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

d)

US Dept of Health and Human Services (DHHS)

26.

Responsible for tracking state health data and statistics; maintaining birth, death, marriage,
and divorce records; and enforcing statewide health laws, such as smoking bans

a)

Ohio Department of Health

b)
State Health Agency
c)
Department of Public Safety
d)
State Vital Records Office
27.

Responsible for establishing training and certification standards for EMS personnel,
accrediting training programs, overseeing the state’s trauma system, and/or licensing
medical transportation services.

a)
State Medical Board
b)

Offices of EMS

c)
National EMS Council
d)
Emergency Services Commission
28.

At the county or municipal level, local departments of health administer health policies and offer many vital services to their communities

a)

Local Health Agencies

b)

City or Local Health Departments

c)

Local Social Service Organizations

d)

Ohio Dept of Health

29.

Provide clinical, environmental, health promotion, and population-based services such as free clinics, sexual health,
HIV/AIDs testing, and tuberculosis and dental clinic
• Provide information about locations of main healthcare facilities and the number of health professionals in the
community

a)

Local Health Agencies

b)

Local Social Service Organizations

c)

City or Local Health Departments

d)

Offices of Emergency Services

30.

Local Social Service Organizations
• Child Health Insurance Program (CHIP)
• Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) supplemental nutrition program

a)

Local Social Service Organizations

b)

City/Local Health Departments

c)

Local Health Agencies

d)

State Health Agencies

31.

process of gaining recognition through a peer review process that evaluates the organization quality
• The Joint Commission for healthcare provider organizations “Magnet”
• Nursing Education accreditation
• American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN)
• Accreditation Commission for Education in Nursing (ACEN)


a)

Health Departments

b)

Accreditation

c)

Health Agencies

d)

Health Policies

32.

Usually offered by employer or through a group plan
• Health maintenance organizations (HMOs)
• Preferred-provider organizations (PPOs)
• Point-of-service (POS) Plan
• Consumer-driven healthcare plan (CDHP)

a)

Private Plans

b)

Federal Plans

c)

Medicare Parts

d)

Personal Payment

33.

Medicare, Medicaid, Affordable Care Act are all examples of which type of Healthcare Reimbursement type?

a)

Private Plans

b)

Federal Plans

c)
Employer-sponsored healthcare
d)
Private healthcare reimbursement
34.

Available to people age 65 or older, younger people with disabilities, those with end-stage renal disease

a)
Medicare
b)
Medicaid
c)
Social Security
d)
Private Insurance
35.

Available to lower income, elderly, & people with eligible disabilities

a)
Aid initiatives for unemployed individuals and veterans.
b)

Medicare

c)

Medicaid

d)

Affordable Care Act

36.

Healthcare reform law enacted in March 2010 that ensures all U.S. citizens and nationals, or those lawfully present in the U.S. have access to affordable health care coverage regardless of health history


a)
Health Insurance Portability Act
b)
Patient Protection Act
c)
Affordable Care Act (ACA)
d)
Medicare Modernization Act
37.

Which part of medicare is described:

Covers hospitalization and inpatient visits, like nursing home visits.

a)
Medicare Part C
b)
Medicare Part D
c)
Medicare Part B
d)
Medicare Part A
38.

Which medicare part is described below:

Helps to cover medically necessary services and outpatient visits/doctor appointments

a)
Medicare Part A
b)
Medicare Part C
c)
Medicare Part D
d)
Medicare Part B
39.

Which medicare part is described below:

Includes all services covered under Parts A and B, usually includes Plan D prescription drug coverage, and may cover other services such as hearing and vision testing.

a)
Medicare Part B
b)
Medicare Supplement (Medigap)
c)
Medicare Advantage (Part C)
d)
Medicare Part D
40.

Which medicare part is described below:

Provides prescription coverage

a)
Medicare Part D
b)
Medicare Part C
c)
Medicare Part B
d)
Medicare Part A
41.

• Client pays insurer directly – no insurance
• Higher overall healthcare expenses
• Individuals sicker than those who pay lower percentage of healthcare costs

a)

Medicare part D

b)

Medicare part A

c)

Personal Payment

d)

Federal Plans

42.

• Define standards of practice
(legal issues)
• Identify professional behaviors
• Support nursing research
• Participate in policy development

a)

CDC

b)

Professional Organizations for Nursing Practice Purpose

c)

Personal Payment

d)

National Leage of Nurses (NLN)

43.

A nurse is teaching a group of older adults about Medicare coverage. Which statement by a participant indicates a correct understanding of Medicare?
A. “Medicare Part A helps cover hospital stays and some home health services.”
B. “Medicare Part B pays for all prescription medications.”
C. “Medicare Part C is only available to people under 65 years of age.”
D. “Medicare Part D covers vision and dental care.”

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

44.

Near sightedness

*can only see near, cannot see far

a)

Myopia

b)

Hyperopia

c)

Presbyopia

d)

Cataracts

45.

Farsightedness

*can see far

*can't see near

a)

Myopia

b)

Hyperopia

c)

Presbyopia

d)

Cataracts

46.

If a person’s visual acuity is tested with a Snellen chart and reported to be 20/60,
the nurse knows the number 60 indicates which of the following?
A. the distance at which a person stood from the chart
B. The distance at which a person with normal vision can read the chart
C. a persons vision is 60% less then that of a person with normal vision
D. The person has three times poorer vision in the right eye than in the left eye

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

47.

Age-related condition where the lens of the eye loses its flexibility, making it harder to focus on close objects

*common part of aging, not a disease!

a)
Astigmatism
b)
Cataract
c)
Presbyopia
d)
Myopia
48.

The following symptoms describe what?

Difficulty reading small print
 Holding reading material farther away to see it clearly
 Eye strain or headaches with close work (reading, sewing, etc.)
 Needing reading glasses or bifocals

a)
Presbyopia
b)
Myopia
c)
Astigmatism
d)
Hyperopia
49.

opacification (clouding) of the lens of the eye that can significantly interfere with light transmission to the retina and the ability to perceive images clearly

a)
Cataract
b)
Retinal detachment
c)
Glaucoma
d)
Macular degeneration
50.

Not smoking and refraining from heavy alcohol use can help prevent cataracts.

a)

False

b)
Prevent cataracts by smoking occasionally.
c)
Reduce cataracts by consuming more sugary drinks.
d)

True

51.

The following symptoms describe what?

 Trouble reading
 Blurred Vision
 Necessity of cleaning glasses
 Lens cloudiness may be visible
 Color discrimination impaired especially in blue to purple range. Glare complaints- halos around lights at night

a)
Glaucoma
b)
Macular Degeneration
c)
Cataracts
d)
Retinal Detachment
52.

The nurse expects a patient with a cataract to complain about which symptom? Select all that apply.
A. Eye pain when doing close work
B. Double vision
C. Halos around lights at night
D. Blurred Vision
E. Eye pain

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

53.

Which of the following is the main cataract intervention?

a)
Cataract medication
b)
Vision therapy
c)
Cataract surgery
d)
Laser eye treatment
54.

What is the basic explanation of cataract surgery?

a)
Cataract surgery is a procedure to remove the cloudy lens of the eye and replace it with an artificial lens.
b)
Cataract surgery is a method to enhance the color of the eye's iris.
c)
Cataract surgery involves injecting medication into the eye to improve vision.
d)
Cataract surgery is a technique to reshape the cornea for better focus.
55.

You can receive cataract surgery as soon as you start experiencing symptoms to prevent further progression of the cataracts.

a)

Surgery is not an option.

b)

True

c)

False

d)
Cataract surgery is only available after complete blindness occurs.
56.

Your patient just got cataract surgery. Which instructions should you give them?

a)

Avoid driving/bending over on the first day

b)

Wear protective eye wear while sleeping/avoid sleeping on affected side

c)

Stop the use of eyedrops once your pain level is below a 4

d)

Avoid lifting heavy or any strenuous activity for a few weeks

e)

Report signs of infection

57.

Why should your patient avoid bending over/lifting heavy objects after cataract surgery?

a)
Lifting heavy objects helps strengthen the eye muscles post-surgery.
b)
Patients can bend over to improve circulation after surgery.
c)
Patients should avoid bending over and lifting heavy objects after cataract surgery to prevent increased intraocular pressure and potential complications.
d)
Bending over is encouraged to relieve discomfort after cataract surgery.
58.

A patient is scheduled for cataract surgery. Which of the following statements indicates that the patient understands post-operative care?
A. “I can resume all my normal activities immediately after surgery.”
B. “I should avoid bending over or lifting heavy objects for a few weeks after surgery.”
C. “I do not need to use the eye drops the doctor prescribed if my eye feels fine.”
D. “It is normal to have severe pain and vision loss after surgery.”

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

59.

Cataracts are known as the silent thief of vision.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Characterized by optic neuropathy with gradual loss of peripheral vision and (usually) increased
intraocular pressure (force within the eye causing tissue damage)

a)
Macular Degeneration
b)
Glaucoma
c)
Retinal Detachment
d)
Cataracts
61.

Which type of Glaucoma: the most common type, develops slowly/Degenerative changes in Schlemm’s canal obstructs drainage of aqueous Humor - increased intraocular pressure

a)
Angle-Closure Glaucoma
b)
Normal-Tension Glaucoma
c)
Secondary Glaucoma
d)
Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma
62.

Which type of glaucoma: acute- occurs suddenly as a result of complete blockage

a)
Chronic glaucoma
b)
Acute glaucoma
c)

Primary open-angle closure glaucoma

d)
Normal-tension glaucoma
63.

The following symptoms describe what?

No Symptoms
Tunnel Vision
Decreased Accommodation –impaired dark adaptation
Halos around lights

a)

Open Angle Glaucoma

b)

Closed Angle Glaucoma

c)
Retinal Detachment
d)
Cataracts
64.

The following symptoms describe what?

Abrupt onset of Pain
Headache
Fixed pupil
Reddened conjunctiva & cloudy cornea
Nausea/Vomiting
Change in visual acuity, could have halos around lights

a)
Retinal detachment
b)
Chronic open-angle glaucoma
c)
Acute angle-closure glaucoma
d)
Migraine with aura
65.

The following image shows an example of what?

a)
Two children playing with a frisbee and a kite.
b)

Cataracts

c)

Glaucoma

d)

Macular Degeneration

66.

The three P's of open angle glaucoma include...

a)

Preventable

b)

Painless

c)

Permanent

d)

Pressure

67.

All of the following would be used for a diagnostic test for vision disorders except

a)

Tonometry

b)

Ecogram

c)

Gonioscopy

d)

Visual field testing

68.

Which of the following are treatment options for primary open angle glaucoma?

a)
Eye drops and herbal remedies
b)

Medications and surgery.

c)
Diet changes and exercise
d)
Vision therapy and acupuncture
69.

Which of the following are treatment options for angle closure glaucoma?

a)
Eye drops and dietary changes.
b)
Physical therapy and acupuncture.
c)
Vision correction and lifestyle adjustments.
d)

Medications for emergency treatment, then surgery.

70.

All pharmacologic therapy for glaucoma does the following (both/either or):

a)

Increase outflow of aqueous humor

b)

decrease production of aqueous humor

c)

increase production of aqueous humor

d)

decrease outflow of aqueous humor

71.

Which type of eye medication causes the pupil to constrict?

a)
Antihistamines
b)
Miotics
c)
Dilators
d)
Myotics
72.

Which type of eye medication caused the pupil to dilate?

a)
Mydriatic eye medications
b)
Lubricating eye solutions
c)
Steroid eye ointments
d)
Antibiotic eye drops
73.

outpatient surgery that is done with a laser/Changes the trabecular meshwork configuration and leads to increased aqueous outflow

a)
Laser trabeculoplasty
b)
Laser cataract surgery
c)
Laser photocoagulation
d)
Laser iridotomy
74.

creates a drainage hole (permanent fistula) between the anterior and posterior chambers into the space
under the conjunctiva where it can be absorbed into systemic circulation

a)
Trabeculectomy
b)
Iris surgery
c)
Glaucoma drainage device
d)
Corneal transplant
75.

Your patient is taking eye drops for their glaucoma. They are complaining of discomfort from the eyedrops. What do you tell them?

a)
You need to use the drops more frequently to reduce discomfort.
b)
You should stop using the drops immediately.
c)
The discomfort is a sign of an allergic reaction.
d)

You may experience some discomfort, but it should improve.

76.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has been newly diagnosed with
open-angle glaucoma. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I should take my prescribed eye drops every day to help lower the pressure in my eyes.”
B. “This condition can cause gradual loss of my peripheral vision.”
C. “If I don’t take my medication, I could go blind.”
D. “I can stop using my eye drops once my vision improves.”

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

77.

A gradual process of degeneration in the macular area of the retina.
 Leading cause of blindness in older adults

a)

macular degeneration (AMD)

b)
Diabetic retinopathy effects
c)
Retinal detachment syndrome
d)
Cataract formation process
78.

thinning of macular tissue related to the aging process, vision loss is gradual

a)

Exudative/Wet Macular Degeneration

b)
Retinal detachment
c)

Nonexudative/Dry Macular Degeneration

d)
Cataract formation
79.

abnormal blood vessels form and hemorrhage on the retina, vision loss is severe

a)

Exudative/Wet Macular Degeneration

b)

Nonexudative/Dry Degeneration

c)
Age-related macular degeneration
d)
Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
80.

 Dark or empty area in the center of vision
 Bend in telephone poles or road
 Words on a page look blurred
 Difficulty performing tasks that require close central
 Vision such as cooking
 Decreased color vision
 Acuity tests

All symptoms of what?

a)
Macular degeneration
b)
Glaucoma
c)
Cataracts
d)
Retinal detachment
81.

The image above is an example of what vision disorder

a)
Double vision
b)

Glaucoma

c)

Cataracts

d)

Macular Degeneration

82.

The Amsler grid was developed as a diagnostic tool for ____________

a)
glaucoma
b)
retinal detachment
c)
cataracts
d)
macular degeneration
83.

Treatment for Wet AMD include:

a)

Laser Surgery

b)

Intravitreal injections

c)

Photodynamic therapy

d)

Vitamin and mineral supplements

84.

Which of the following are treatments for Dry AMD?

a)

Not many treatments are available

b)

Vitamin/mineral supplements

c)

Intravitreal injections

d)

Laser Surgery

85.

A nurse is reviewing a client’s eye assessment findings. The client reports difficulty
recognizing faces and reading, but states that side vision is still clear. The nurse
suspects age-related macular degeneration (AMD). Which statement best explains this condition?
A. “AMD causes loss of peripheral vision due to increased intraocular pressure.”
B. “AMD affects the macula, leading to loss of central vision.”
C. “AMD is caused by damage to the optic nerve and affects night vision first.”
D. “AMD results from clouding of the lens and causes blurred vision.”

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

86.

Clinical Manifestations : Pain, redness, photophobia, tearing common
Treatment: Abrasions often heal with no treatment
If foreign body on conjunctiva remove with irrigation or with moist sterile cotton applicator
Eye patch may be used in children
Possible Antibiotics


a)

Blunt Trauma

b)

Penetrating and Perforating Injuries (glass or metal)

c)

Burns to the eyes

d)

Corneal Abrasion/Foreign Body (dirt, bug, dust)

87.

Types of Burns: Heat, radiation, explosion, chemical
Clinical Manifestations: Pain, edematous, red conjunctiva, swollen eyelids, hazy or cloudy conjunctiva, possible presence of ulcerations
Treatment: For chemical burns irrigate eyes with normal saline
Dilate pupils to reduce pain and prevent adhesions
Topical anesthetics, Eye Patch, Antibiotics, Corticosteroids

a)

Penetrating & Perforating Injuries
(glass or metal)

b)

Corneal Abrasion Or Foreign Body (dirt,
bug, dust)

c)

Blunt Trauma

d)

Burns to the Eyes

88.

Clinical Manifestations : Pain, bleeding, extrusion of eye contents, partial or complete vision loss
Treatment: If penetrating object is embedded in or sticking out of eye, do not remove it, immobilize the object and protect the eye until the ophthalmologist arrives, patch the other eye to minimize movement
Manage Pain
Irrigate
Antibiotics after removal and potential eye patch
Surgery may be necessary

a)

Penetrating & Perforating Injuries
(glass or metal)

b)

Blunt Trauma

c)

Detached Retina

d)

Burns to the Eyes

89.

Clinical Manifestations : Pain and redness, ecchymosis, subjunctival hemorrhage, hyphema, possible diplopia & enopthalmos
Treatment: Place client in semi-Fowler position, Protect the injured eye with an eye shield; patch the unaffected eye with an eye shield to minimize movement
Administer carbonic anhydrase inhibitor s prescribed

a)

Blunt Trauma

b)

Penetrating & Perforating Injuries
(glass or metal)

c)

Burns to the Eyes

d)

Corneal Abrasion Or Foreign Body (dirt,
bug, dust)

90.

Your patient has experienced blunt trauma to the eye and is ordered to have periorbital ecchymosis completed. What does this process entail?

a)

pply ice to the eye area for 5-15 minutes every hour
for the first 1-2 days after injury even if only 1 eye is affected both eyes may
discolor. Then move to warm compresses the 2nd day after injury.

b)
Periorbital ecchymosis medication administration.
c)

Apply a heat compress over the eye to promote healing.

d)
Periorbital ecchymosis surgical intervention.
91.

Clinical Manifestations : Medical emergency, Floaters, flashes of light, blurred vision, progressive
deterioration of vision, sensation of a curtain or veil being drawn across
the field of vision, if the macula is involved loss of central vision
Risk Factors: Age, Eye injuries, Eye Surgery, myopia, other eye conditions, smoking, heavy lifting
Treatment: Prompt treatment is needed to preserve vision- medical emergency
Proper positioning is important – retinal detachment should be inferior
Cryotherapy, laser photocoagulation, laser therapy or scleral buckle may be
needed to close the retinal break
Reassure client that most retinal detachments successfully treated

a)
Retinal detachment is a minor issue that resolves on its own.
b)

Penetrating and Perforating Injuries (glass or metal)

c)

Blunt Trauma

d)

Detached Retina

92.

The nurse in the emergency department cares for the client with a sliver of glass in the eye. Which nursing intervention should the nurse perform?
A. Flush the eye with normal saline for 15 minutes
B. Attempt to remove the glass if it can be seen
C. Apply cool compress to the eye
D. Place a protective shield over the eye

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

93.

An adolescent is brought to the emergency room after being hit on the head while playing ball. After examination, a diagnosis of detached retina of the left eye is made. Which sign or symptom does the nurse expect to observe?
A. The client states he sees a curtain coming across his visual field
B. The client complains of severe pain in the affected eye
C. The client had decreased peripheral vision
D. The nurse observes orbital edema

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D