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Worksheets

Nutrition

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 2hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Provide the major source of energy for the body.

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Minerals

d)

Nutrients

2.

Component of every living cell, provides structure and framework for the body, repairs and builds tissues.

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nutrient - dense

d)

Miinerals

3.

(a)   is restricted in individuals with severe liver disease and renal impairment.

4.

What is digested to make amino acids available for protein synthesis ?

a)

Protein

b)

Minerals

c)

Lipids

d)

Fat soluble vitamins

5.

Which items may be given to a client on a full liquid diet? Select all that apply

a)

Tomato soup

b)

Milk

c)

Pudding

d)

Jell-O

e)

Scrambled eggs

6.

What percent of calories should come from carbohydrates?

a)

45-65 %

b)

10-30 %

c)

25-50 %

d)

70-100%

7.

Kwashiorkor is a deficiency disease of what nutrient?

a)

Protein

b)

Minerals

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Vitamin B-12

8.

This is needed for metabolism of energy.

a)

Minerals

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Protein

d)

Vitamins

9.

Vitamins are essential in the diet because they cannot be made by the body or are synthesized in inadequate amounts. True or False?

a)

True 

b)

False

10.

Water-soluble vitamins (not stored in the body)

Select all that apply

a)

Thiamine (B1)

b)

Niacin (B3)

c)

Folate

d)

B12

e)

Vitamin C

11.

Fat-soluble vitamins (stored in the body) Select all that apply

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Vitamin K

e)

Vitamin B12

12.

This vitamin role is in vision, reproduction, growth and immune function

a)

Vitamin E

b)

Vitamin A

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Vitamin D

13.

This vitamin maintains serum calcium concentrations, role in bone

health and immune function.

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin B

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin K

14.

This vitamin is made by the body with exposure to sunlight.

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Vitamin A

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Niacin (B3)

15.

This vitamin is a antioxidant and protects cell membranes.

a)

Vitamin E

b)

Vitamin A

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Vitamin k

16.

This vitamin is given at birth to infants unable to synthesize due to sterile gut.

a)

Vitamin E

b)

B12

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Vitamin A

17.

Deficiency of this vitamin can cause hemorrhaging.

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Vitamin A

c)

Vitamin K

d)

B12

18.

This vitamin deficiency usually only seen in alcoholics – can be fatal.

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Thiamin (B1)

d)

Niacin (B3)

19.

A large dose of this vitamin is given to treat hyperlipidemia.

a)

(B3)

b)

(B1)

c)

(B12)

d)

Vitamin C

20.

What does Pellagra mean?

a)

Iron deficiency

b)

Niacin deficiency

c)

Thiamin deficiency

d)

Vitamin K deficiency

21.

Conditions that increase the risk of vitamin B1 deficiency include the following: 

Select all that apply

a)

Alcoholism

b)

Malnutrition

c)

Malabsorption

d)

Bariatric weight-loss surgery

e)

Anorexia in women

22.

What reduces the risk of neural tube defects if taken before conception and during the 1st trimester of pregnancy.

a)

Foliate

b)

Magnesium

c)

Iron

d)

B-12

23.

What deficiency results in anemia – alcoholics at greatest risk.

a)

Vitamin B1

b)

Foliate

c)

Magnesium

d)

B12

24.

What vitamin activates foliate?

a)

B12

b)

B3

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin C

25.

This vitamin promotes iron absorption.

a)

Vitamin B12

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Vitamin B3

26.

This is a state of dietary deficiency of vitamin C.

a)

Alcoholism

b)

Scurvy

c)

Malnutrition

d)

Vegan

27.

What causes osteomalacia in adults ?

a)

Vitamin B3

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin K

d)

B12

28.

This deficiency causes poor calcium absorption.

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Vitamin A

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Vitamin K

29.

What is given to patients who have nutritional deficits ?

a)

IV infusion

b)

Iron

c)

H20

d)

Niacin

30.

What are good sources of B12? Select all that apply

a)

Meat

b)

Eggs

c)

Milk

d)

Spinach

e)

Fish

31.

What two minerals are found in processed, canned, convenience, restaurant and fast foods? 

a)

Chloride

b)

Sodium

c)

Potassium

d)

Electrolytes

32.

_____ is found in fruits and vegetables, milk, dried peas and beans, fish and beef?

a)

Potassium K+

b)

Vitamin A

c)

Vitamin B3

d)

Vitamin B12

33.

This mineral plays a major role in bone, teeth formation and maintenance

a)

Calcium

b)

Potassium

c)

Chloride

d)

Iron

34.

Calcium is found in which foods? Select all that apply

a)

Milk 

b)

Raisin Bran

c)

Orange juice

d)

Sardines

e)

Beans

35.

This increases calcium absorption.

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Iron

c)

Grapefruit

d)

Potassium

36.

This mineral has a role in oxygen transport via hemoglobin.

a)

Iodine

b)

Iron

c)

Potassium

d)

Sodium

37.

What food is iron not found in?

a)

Beef liver

b)

Red meats

c)

Oranges

d)

Chicken

e)

Milk

38.

Vitamin C increases iron absorption. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

39.

What is the component of thyroid hormones that regulate growth and development.

a)

Iodine

b)

Iron

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Vitamin D

40.

Deficiency _____ may lead to goiter, hypothyroidism or growth and development defects.

a)

Iodine

b)

Iron

c)

B12

d)

Potassium

41.

What is the primary extracellular electrolyte?

(a)  

42.

What is the primary intracellular electrolyte?

(a)  

43.

____ is an important extracellular that helps keep the amount of fluid inside and outside of the cells in balance. It also helps maintain proper blood volume, blood pressure, and pH of your body fluids.

a)

Chloride

b)

Sodium

c)

Potassium

d)

Iron

44.

This occurs during growth, pregnancy or recovery from injury.

a)

Positive nitrogen balance

b)

Hormone balance

c)

Negative balance

d)

Neutral balance

45.

This occurs during starvation or the catabolic phase after injury.

a)

Positive balance

b)

Food balance

c)

Negative nitrogen balance

d)

Hormone balance

46.

The best marker for malnutrition is:

a)

Serum Prealbumin <15 mg/dl

b)

Serum albumin <15 mg/dl

c)

Serum Albumin <3.4 mg/dl

d)

Serum Prealbumin <3.4 mg/dl.

47.

Prealbumin levels of < 5 mg/dL indicate severe nutritional deficiency. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

48.

What is a normal potassium level ?

a)

3.5-5.0 mEq/L

b)

10-20 mEq/L

c)

126-145 mEq/L

d)

3-3.5 mEq/L

49.

What is a normal magnesium level?

a)

1.8-2.6 mg/dl

b)

3.4-5 mg/dl

c)

1.4-3.8 mg/dl

d)

1.0-2.8 mg/dl

50.

What is the normal sodium level?

a)

140-155 mEq/L

b)

136-145 mEq/L

c)

130-140 mEq/L

d)

120-180 mEq/L

51.

____ & ____ are waste products produced during protein metabolism.



(a)  

52.

What is the normal BUN level ?

a)

8-20 mg/dL

b)

25-30 mg/dL

c)

0-10 mg/dL

d)

11-21 mg/dL

53.

Creatinine normal level is 0.4-1.5 mg/dL. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

54.

What vitamin is essential for the production of healthy red blood cells?

a)

Vitamin B9

b)

Vitamin B3

c)

Vitamin B3

d)

Vitamin D

55.

What is the normal range for serum folate?

a)

35-45 ng/mL

b)

 2.7-17.0 ng/mL

c)

2.0-17.0 ng/mL

d)

3.5-15 ng/mL

56.

What information does the nurse need for  a nutritional assessment? Select all that apply.

a)

Dietary history

b)

Medical History

c)

Physical exam

d)

Lab tests

e)

Food diary

57.

This evaluates progress of growth, detects under-nutrition, and measures changes in body composition.

a)

Anthropometric Measurements

b)

BMI

c)

Ideal body weight

d)

Waist Circumference

58.

If a patient has a BMI of 15 what are they considered?

a)

Underweight

b)

Normal

c)

Overweight

d)

Obese

e)

Extremely obesed

59.

If a patient has a BMI of 20.5 what are they considered?

a)

Overweight

b)

Normal

c)

Underweight

d)

Obese

e)

Extremely obese

60.

If a patient has a BMI of 28.3 what are they considered?

a)

Normal

b)

Overweight

c)

Obese

d)

Extremely obese

e)

Underweight

61.

If a patient has a BMI of 33.3 what are they considered?

a)

Normal

b)

Overweight

c)

Obese

d)

Extremely obese

e)

Underweight

62.

If a patient has a BMI of 76 what are they considered?

a)

Overweight

b)

Underweight

c)

Obese

d)

Normal

e)

Extremely obese

63.

A condition that occurs when the body does not get enough nutrients.

a)

Malnutrition

b)

Negative nitrogen balance

c)

Extracellular

d)

Scurvy

64.

This Interferes with wound healing, increases risk of infection, increases incidence of complications, leads to longer hospital stays and prolonged confinement to bed.

a)

Scurvy

b)

Malnutrition

c)

BMI

d)

Iron deficiency

65.

A patient came in with chief complaints of digestive difficulties,

fatigue, irritability, and lethargy. What condition might this person be suffering from?

a)

Malabsorption Malnutrition

b)

Malnutrition

c)

Scurvy

d)

Kwashiorkor

66.

The state arising from abnormality in absorption of nutrients across the GI tract.

a)

Malabsorption Malnutrition

b)

Malnutrition

c)

Kwashiorkor

d)

Marasmus

67.

A form of protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) caused by insufficient protein consumption with adequate calorie intake.

a)

Kwashiorkor

b)

Marasmus

c)

Obesity

d)

Malnutrition

68.

This is a Rapid onset that develops in weeks.

Occurs most commonly in areas of famine, limited food supply, and low levels of education

a)

Kwashiorkor

b)

Marasmus

c)

Malabsorption Malnutrition

d)

Malnutrition

69.

This is another form of PEM caused by severe, prolonged starvation, insufficient protein and calorie consumption.

Slow onset – develops over months or years.

a)

Dysphagia

b)

Marasmus

c)

Malnutrition

d)

Kwashiorkor

70.

Signs and symptoms of this condition include HUNGER, irritability, extensive tissue and muscle wasting, variable edema, dry skin, loose skin folds and loss of adipose tissue.



(a)  

71.

This diet has proven to lower blood pressure, reduce cholesterol & improve insulin sensitivity

a)

DASH Diet

b)

Standard Hospital Diets

c)

Pureed diet

d)

Clear liquid diet

72.

Bacon and sausage is considered a heart healthy diet. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

73.

This diet is indicated post-op, during acute illness and to reduce fecal matter for diagnostic procedures.

a)

Soft diet

b)

Clear liquid diet

c)

Pureed diet

d)

Full liquid diet

74.

If a patient is on a clear liquid diet what are they allowed to have? Select all that apply.

a)

Broth

b)

Gelatin

c)

Fruit juice with pulp

d)

Tea 

e)

Ice cream

75.

This diet is indicated for patients with chewing/swallowing problems and as a transition diet.

a)

Pureed diet

b)

Full liquid diet

c)

Clear liquid diet

d)

Mechanical soft diet

76.

After a surgical procedure, the patient is advanced to a full liquid diet. The nurse is able to recommend which one of the following foods for this patient?

a)

Custard

b)

Pureed meats

c)

Soft fresh fruit

d)

Canned soup

77.

This is indicated for patients who must receive full liquid diet for an extended period or have had oral surgery.

Same foods as full liquid diet plus blended, thinned and strained meat, potatoes and vegetables



(a)  

78.

This diet is low in fiber, texture and seasoning; cooked fruits and vegetables, lean tender meats, fish, potatoes and pasta.

a)

Soft diet

b)

Mechanical diet

c)

ADAT

d)

Renal diet

79.

A regular diet modified in texture only, indicated for edentulous patients and those with chewing/swallowing problems.

a)

ADAT

b)

Mechanical soft diet

c)

Soft diet

d)

Renal diet

80.

A patient with an NPO order (Nothing by mouth) should not be given solid food but started on a clear liquid and advanced from there as tolerated. What is this an example of?

a)

Advance Diet as Tolerated (ADAT)

b)

Mechanical diet

c)

Therapeutic diet

d)

Renal diet

81.

If a patient is on a renal diet what can they have? Select all that apply.

a)

Apples

b)

White rice

c)

Pita

d)

Avocados

e)

Beans

82.

Extra protein helps to heal wounds and form new tissue in the body. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

83.

What is the benefit of a high fiber diet? Select all that apply.

a)

Normalizing bowel movements

b)

Lowers blood cholesterol levels

c)

Helps control blood sugar levels.

d)

Helps to maintain a healthy weight.

84.

If there are eight servings in this container, and the patient ate half of it, how many calories have they taken in?

a)

920 calories

b)

230 calories

c)

115 calories

d)

1840 calories

85.

Serum albumin and pre-albumin used to detect ______ _____.

a)

Protein deficiency

b)

Iron deficiency

c)

Calcium deficiency

d)

Niacin deficiency

86.

For feedings what position do you sit the patient in?

a)

Semi-Fowler's

b)

Trendelenburg

c)

Prone

d)

Supine

87.

The patient should be placed in the semi-Fowler's position after intermittent feedings at all times. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

88.

How long should you keep a patient in semi-Fowler's when giving a continuous feeding ?

a)

At all times

b)

30-60 mins

c)

1 full hour

d)

10-15 mins

89.

To maintain patency of the feeding tube, how much water or normal saline should be administered?

a)

30-50 ml

b)

60 ml

c)

10 ml

d)

5 ml

90.

What happens during refeeding syndrome?

a)

Chronic whole-body depletion of phosphorus occurs

b)

An insulin surge causes a greatly increased uptake and use of phosphate in the cells.

c)

Deficiency  in intracellular as well as extracellular phosphorus.

d)

Iron defiency

91.

This method provides nutrients to the body intravenously, indicated when intake is inadequate and ability to ingest and absorb food is impaired.

a)

Parenteral Nutrition

b)

 Peripheral parenteral nutrition

c)

IV

d)

Tube feeding

92.

Morbid fear of obesity

a)

Anorexia nervosa

b)

Bulimia

c)

Malabsorption malnutrition

d)

Marasmus

93.

The totality of what individuals habitually eat and drink, and the parts of the pattern act synergistically to affect health. As a result, the dietary pattern may better predict overall health status and disease risk than individual foods or nutrients.

a)

Obesity

b)

Bulimia

c)

Dietary pattern

d)

Nutrients