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Guided Notes: Anti-Infective Agents

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the therapeutic use of IV Acyclovir?

a)

Treats severe viral infections in clients who are immunocompromised.

b)

Used to treat bacterial infections in healthy adults.

c)

Administered for pain relief in chronic conditions.

d)

Prescribed for managing hypertension in elderly patients.

2.

Which adverse drug reaction is associated with IV Acyclovir?

a)

Ototoxicity

b)

Renal toxicity

c)

Hepatotoxicity

d)

Cardiotoxicity

3.

What should be monitored during Acyclovir IV infusion to maintain urine output?

a)

Hydrate client during and for 2 hr. following IV infusion to maintain urine output.

b)

Monitor blood pressure every 15 minutes during infusion.

c)

Administer diuretics to increase urine output.

d)

Restrict fluid intake during and after infusion.

4.

Which condition is a contraindication for Acyclovir use?

a)

Allergy to acyclovir or valacyclovir.

b)

Diabetes mellitus.

c)

Hypertension.

d)

Asthma.

5.

Which medication increases blood levels when used with Acyclovir?

a)

Zidovudine

b)

Probenecid

c)

Amphotericin B

d)

NSAIDs

6.

What is the therapeutic use of Gentamicin?

a)

Treats severe infections caused by Gram-negative aerobic bacilli. Gentamicin treats severe infections caused by some Gram-positive cocci (in combination with another antibiotic). Topical form treats skin and eye infections.

b)

Used primarily for the treatment of viral infections such as influenza and hepatitis.

c)

Prescribed for the management of chronic pain and inflammation in arthritis.

d)

Mainly indicated for the treatment of fungal infections like candidiasis and aspergillosis.

7.

Which adverse drug reaction is associated with Gentamicin?

a)

Ototoxicity

b)

Hepatotoxicity

c)

Cardiotoxicity

d)

Neurotoxicity

8.

What should be monitored to detect nephrotoxicity in clients receiving Gentamicin?

a)

Monitor BUN, creatinine, and urine labs.

b)

Monitor blood glucose and insulin levels.

c)

Monitor liver enzymes and bilirubin.

d)

Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit.

9.

Which medications should not be mixed with Gentamicin in the same IV solution?

a)

Penicillin, cephalosporins, heparin.

b)

Aspirin, acetaminophen, ibuprofen.

c)

Metformin, insulin, glipizide.

d)

Omeprazole, ranitidine, famotidine.

10.

What is the therapeutic use of Imipenem (a Carbapenem)?

a)

Treats serious infections caused by multiple types of organisms.

b)

Used primarily for viral infections such as influenza.

c)

Prescribed for mild headaches and muscle pain.

d)

Indicated for the treatment of diabetes mellitus.

11.

Which of the following is a possible adverse drug reaction (ADR) of Imipenem?

a)

GI manifestations (nausea, vomiting)

b)

Thrombophlebitis at IV site

c)

Superinfection

d)

All of the above

12.

What should be monitored during IV infusion of Imipenem?

a)

Monitor for nausea during infusion and treat with an antiemetic. Assess for and report antibiotic allergy prior to administration. Monitor labs including AST, BUN, LDH, bilirubin, and creatinine.

b)

Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia and administer glucose if needed.

c)

Check for visual disturbances and report any changes immediately.

d)

Monitor for hair loss and recommend vitamin supplements.

13.

IM and IV forms of Imipenem are interchangeable.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Which antibiotics may decrease the effects of Imipenem?

a)

Monobactam, penicillin, and cephalosporin antibiotics may decrease effects.

b)

Macrolide, tetracycline, and aminoglycoside antibiotics may decrease effects.

c)

Sulfonamide, fluoroquinolone, and glycopeptide antibiotics may decrease effects.

d)

Carbapenem, lincosamide, and oxazolidinone antibiotics may decrease effects.

15.

What is the therapeutic use of Cephalexin (a Cephalosporin)?

a)

Treats infections caused by Gram-positive cocci. Subsequent generations are more active against Gram-negative bacteria and more resistant to beta-lactamase bacteria.

b)

Used primarily for the treatment of viral infections such as influenza.

c)

Effective in treating fungal infections like candidiasis.

d)

Mainly used as an anti-inflammatory agent for joint pain.

16.

Which of the following is a rare adverse drug reaction (ADR) of Cephalexin?

a)

GI manifestations (diarrhea, nausea)

b)

Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea (CDAD)

c)

Thrombophlebitis

d)

Disulfiram-like reaction

17.

What should be assessed before administering Cephalexin?

a)

Assess for cephalosporin or penicillin allergy before administration.

b)

Assess for history of hypertension before administration.

c)

Assess for recent travel history before administration.

d)

Assess for visual acuity before administration.

18.

What instructions should be given to a client taking Cephalexin regarding food and alcohol?

a)

Take with food to decrease GI manifestations. Avoid alcohol and be aware of potential disulfiram-like reaction.

b)

Take on an empty stomach and avoid dairy products.

c)

Take with grapefruit juice and avoid caffeine.

d)

Take only at bedtime and avoid vitamin C supplements.

19.

Cephalosporins are contraindicated with any alcohol use.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

What is the therapeutic use of Ciprofloxacin (a Fluoroquinolone)?

a)

Treats a wide range of bacterial infections, including severe urinary tract disorders. Prevents anthrax (following inhalation of spores).

b)

Used primarily for viral infections such as influenza.

c)

Treats fungal infections like candidiasis.

d)

Used to manage hypertension and cardiovascular diseases.

21.

Which of the following is a severe adverse drug reaction (ADR) of Ciprofloxacin?

a)

Photosensitivity

b)

Achilles tendon rupture

c)

Seizures

d)

All of the above

22.

What should be monitored during Ciprofloxacin treatment?

a)

Monitor for and report tendon pain during treatment; discontinue medication if pain occurs.

b)

Monitor for and report skin dryness during treatment; discontinue medication if dryness occurs.

c)

Monitor for and report increased appetite during treatment; discontinue medication if appetite increases.

d)

Monitor for and report hair loss during treatment; discontinue medication if hair loss occurs.

23.

What instructions should be given to a client taking Ciprofloxacin regarding sun exposure and supplements?

a)

Report tendon pain to provider. Avoid sun/sunlamp exposure. Take antacids, iron, calcium (including dairy products), and sucralfate 2 hr after or 6 hr before oral Ciprofloxacin.

b)

Take Ciprofloxacin with dairy products to enhance absorption. Sun exposure is safe during therapy.

c)

No need to report tendon pain. Take all supplements together with Ciprofloxacin for best effect.

d)

Avoid all supplements and sun exposure while taking Ciprofloxacin, but tendon pain is not a concern.

24.

What is the therapeutic use of Lipoglycopeptides (Telavancin)?

a)

Treats viral infections

b)

Antibacterial effective against resistant Gram-positive bacteria, including MRSA

c)

Treats fungal infections

d)

Treats parasitic infections

25.

Which adverse drug reaction (ADR) is associated with Lipoglycopeptides (Telavancin)?

a)

Nephrotoxicity

b)

Hepatotoxicity

c)

Cardiotoxicity

d)

Neurotoxicity

26.

Fill in the blank: Lipoglycopeptides (Telavancin) can cause _______ if infused too rapidly.

a)

Infusion reaction

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Ototoxicity

d)

Photosensitivity

27.

What should be monitored before and during treatment with Lipoglycopeptides (Telavancin)?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Kidney function tests

c)

Blood glucose

d)

Liver enzymes

28.

How is Lipoglycopeptides (Telavancin) administered?

a)

Orally

b)

Intramuscularly

c)

Intravenously only, infused once daily over 60 minutes

d)

Subcutaneously

29.

Which condition is a contraindication for Lipoglycopeptides (Telavancin)?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Long QT syndrome

c)

Asthma

d)

Hypertension

30.

Lipoglycopeptides (Telavancin) should be avoided with which type of medications?

a)

ACE inhibitors

b)

Anticoagulants

c)

NSAIDs

d)

All of the above

31.

What is the first-line treatment for Legionnaires’ disease?

a)

Penicillin

b)

Erythromycin

c)

Ciprofloxacin

d)

Vancomycin

32.

Which cardiac finding is associated with Macrolides (Erythromycin)?

a)

Severe ventricular dysrhythmias

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Heart block

d)

Pericarditis

33.

Fill in the blank: Erythromycin can cause _______ which is usually reversible when treatment ends.

a)

Ototoxicity

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Hepatotoxicity

d)

Cardiotoxicity

34.

What should be monitored for clients taking Erythromycin?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Liver function

c)

Blood glucose

d)

Renal function

35.

How should Erythromycin base and stearate forms be administered for best absorption?

a)

With food

b)

On an empty stomach (1 hr before or 2 hr after a meal) with 8 oz. of water

c)

With milk

d)

At bedtime

36.

Which history is a contraindication for Erythromycin?

a)

Prolonged QT syndrome

b)

Asthma

c)

Diabetes

d)

Hypertension

37.

Erythromycin increases blood levels of which medications?

a)

Digoxin

b)

Warfarin

c)

Theophylline

d)

All of the above

38.

What is the IV form of Metronidazole used to treat?

a)

Anaerobic bacterial infections

b)

Viral infections

c)

Fungal infections

d)

Parasitic infections

39.

Which adverse drug reaction is associated with Metronidazole?

a)

Metallic taste

b)

Rash

c)

Cough

d)

Insomnia

40.

Fill in the blank: Clients taking Metronidazole should avoid _______.

a)

alcohol

b)

caffeine

c)

dairy products

d)

chocolate

41.

Which medication causes a disulfiram-type reaction when taken with alcohol?

a)

Aztreonam

b)

Linezolid

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Amoxicillin

42.

What is Aztreonam primarily used to treat?

a)

Gram-positive infections

b)

Gram-negative aerobic infections

c)

Fungal infections

d)

Viral infections

43.

Which adverse reaction is associated with Aztreonam?

a)

Thrombophlebitis/inflammation at the IV site

b)

Metallic taste

c)

Headache

d)

Rash

44.

Fill in the blank: The inhalation method of Aztreonam is not safe for children less than ______ years old.

a)

7

b)

5

c)

10

d)

3

45.

Linezolid is effective against which resistant bacteria?

a)

MRSA and VRE

b)

E. coli and Salmonella

c)

Streptococcus and Pneumococcus

d)

Pseudomonas and Klebsiella

46.

Which adverse drug reaction is common with Linezolid?

a)

Headache

b)

Rash

c)

Metallic taste

d)

Cough

47.

Fill in the blank: Clients taking Linezolid should avoid foods high in _______.

a)

tyramine

b)

glucose

c)

potassium

d)

calcium

48.

Which medication should not be taken with MAO inhibitors or SSRIs due to risk of serotonin syndrome?

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Aztreonam

c)

Linezolid

d)

Amoxicillin

49.

What is the therapeutic use of penicillins?

a)

Treats broad-spectrum infections caused by Gram-positive cocci and bacilli

b)

Treats gonorrhea caused by non-penicillinase-producing bacteria

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

50.

Which of the following is a common adverse drug reaction (ADR) of penicillins?

a)

GI manifestations

b)

Superinfection with Candida albicans

c)

Allergy (rash, hives, wheezing, difficulty breathing)

d)

All of the above

51.

Before administering penicillins, what should the nurse ask the client?

a)

If they are allergic to penicillins

b)

If they have eaten recently

c)

If they have a history of diabetes

d)

If they are pregnant

52.

Fill in the blank: Penicillins should be given at the ________ to decrease GI manifestations and increase absorption.

a)

beginning of meals

b)

end of meals

c)

bedtime

d)

midday

53.

Extended-release penicillin form should be crushed or chewed.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Which medication increases penicillin blood levels?

a)

Phenytoin

b)

Probenecid

c)

Alcohol

d)

Warfarin

55.

What is a key interaction of penicillins?

a)

Increased effectiveness of oral contraceptives

b)

Reduced effectiveness of oral contraceptives

c)

No effect on oral contraceptives

d)

Increased risk of bleeding

56.

What is the therapeutic use of Sulfonamides (Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole)?

a)

Treats urinary tract infections

b)

Treats Pneumocystis pneumonia

c)

Treats Shigella enteritis

d)

All of the above

57.

Which of the following is a severe adverse reaction of Sulfonamides?

a)

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

b)

Hepatotoxicity

c)

Photosensitivity

d)

Teratogenicity

58.

Fill in the blank: Clients under ________ months should not receive Sulfonamides.

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

12

59.

Alcohol may cause a disulfiram-type reaction with Sulfonamides.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

What is the first-choice therapeutic use of Tetracyclines?

a)

Chlamydia

b)

Mycoplasmal infections

c)

Rickettsial infections

d)

All of the above

61.

Which adverse drug reaction is associated with Tetracyclines in young children?

a)

Permanent discoloration of teeth

b)

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

c)

Hepatotoxicity

d)

GI manifestations

62.

Fill in the blank: Tetracyclines should be given orally on an ________ stomach (1 hr before or 2 hr after meals).

a)

empty

b)

full

c)

heavy

d)

light

63.

Tetracyclines should be given with non-dairy foods if GI manifestations occur.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Which population should avoid Tetracyclines?

a)

Pregnant women

b)

Children younger than 8 years

c)

Clients with serious renal or liver failure

d)

All of the above

65.

What is the therapeutic use of Vancomycin?

a)

Treats viral infections

b)

Severe infections, especially MRSA infections and Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea (CDAD)

c)

Treats fungal infections

d)

Treats tuberculosis

66.

Which adverse drug reaction is associated with Vancomycin?

a)

Liver toxicity

b)

Renal failure secondary to nephrotoxicity, hypotension, tachycardia, and flushing of the face and trunk

c)

Red-orange color of body fluids

d)

Peripheral neuropathy

67.

Fill in the blank: Vancomycin should be administered over ____ hour by IV infusion.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

0.5

68.

Which of the following is a key interaction for Vancomycin?

a)

Incompatible with multiple other IV medications

b)

Increases effectiveness of oral contraceptives

c)

Causes phenytoin toxicity

d)

Increases absorption with dairy products

69.

What is the therapeutic use of Isoniazid (INH)?

a)

Treats severe bacterial infections

b)

Treatment of active and latent tuberculosis (TB)

c)

Treats viral hepatitis

d)

Treats fungal infections

70.

Which adverse drug reaction is associated with Isoniazid (INH)?

a)

Renal failure

b)

Liver damage (hepatitis, liver failure) and peripheral neuropathy

c)

Red-orange color of body fluids

d)

GI manifestations

71.

Fill in the blank: During Isoniazid therapy, administer ________ as prescribed for neuropathy.

a)

pyridoxine

b)

ascorbic acid

c)

folic acid

d)

cyanocobalamin

72.

Which drug increases the risk for toxicity and adverse reactions when taken with Isoniazid?

a)

Phenytoin

b)

Rifampin

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Amoxicillin

73.

What is the therapeutic use of Rifampin?

a)

Adjunct therapy to treat tuberculosis (TB) and effective against N. meningitidis, Legionella, and S. aureus

b)

Treats viral infections

c)

Treats fungal infections

d)

Treats hypertension

74.

Which adverse drug reaction is associated with Rifampin?

a)

Liver toxicity (hepatitis) and red-orange color of body fluids

b)

Renal failure

c)

Peripheral neuropathy

d)

Hypotension

75.

What is the therapeutic use of Azoles (Ketoconazole/Itraconazole)?

a)

Severe systemic fungal infections (less toxic alternative to amphotericin B). Cutaneous fungal infections.

b)

Treatment of bacterial infections such as tuberculosis.

c)

Management of viral infections like influenza.

d)

Used as an anti-inflammatory agent in autoimmune diseases.

76.

Which adverse reaction is associated with systemic use of Azoles?

a)

Liver toxicity, GI manifestations, drowsiness and dizziness.

b)

Renal failure, hypertension, and rash.

c)

Hypoglycemia, weight gain, and insomnia.

d)

Cardiac arrhythmias, cough, and fever.

77.

Which adverse reaction is associated with topical use of Azoles?

a)

Burning, itching, redness, localized hypersensitivity.

b)

Photosensitivity, alopecia, hyperpigmentation.

c)

Dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation.

d)

Weight gain, insomnia, increased appetite.

78.

What should be monitored when administering Azoles?

a)

Monitor and report changes in liver function tests. Monitor for and report CNS effects.

b)

Monitor and report changes in blood glucose levels. Monitor for and report skin rashes.

c)

Monitor and report changes in blood pressure. Monitor for and report visual disturbances.

d)

Monitor and report changes in renal function tests. Monitor for and report gastrointestinal symptoms.

79.

Oral ketoconazole requires an acid medium for absorption. What should it be given with?

a)

Carbonated soda.

b)

Milk.

c)

Orange juice.

d)

Water.

80.

Which of the following should NOT be taken with oral ketoconazole?

a)

Antacids

b)

Carbonated soda

c)

Food

d)

Water

81.

Which medications decrease absorption of ketoconazole?

a)

Antacids, proton-pump inhibitors, and H2-antagonists.

b)

Beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and statins.

c)

NSAIDs, corticosteroids, and antihistamines.

d)

Diuretics, calcium channel blockers, and antibiotics.

82.

Ketoconazole should be taken at least how many hours before antacids?

a)

2 hours

b)

1 hour

c)

4 hours

d)

30 minutes

83.

What is a key interaction of ketoconazole with clients taking warfarin?

a)

Topical application may increase bleeding tendencies.

b)

It reduces the effectiveness of warfarin.

c)

It causes severe skin irritation when combined with warfarin.

d)

It prevents absorption of warfarin.

84.

What is the therapeutic use of Polyene Antibiotics (Amphotericin B)?

a)

Severe systemic fungal infections that are likely to be fatal if not treated. Topical/Oral suspension: Candida infections of the skin and mucous membranes.

b)

Treatment of bacterial infections such as pneumonia and tuberculosis.

c)

Management of viral infections like influenza and hepatitis.

d)

Used primarily for parasitic infections such as malaria and giardiasis.

85.

Which adverse reaction occurs 1-2 hr after infusion of Amphotericin B?

a)

Infusion reaction (chills, fever, tachycardia, hypotension, headache, nausea).

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Hepatotoxicity

d)

Ototoxicity

86.

Which adverse reaction of Amphotericin B causes hypokalemia and red blood cell suppression?

a)

Renal toxicity.

b)

Hepatotoxicity.

c)

Neurotoxicity.

d)

Cardiotoxicity.

87.

What should be administered before beginning infusion of Amphotericin B?

a)

Diphenhydramine and acetaminophen

b)

Ibuprofen and aspirin

c)

Vitamin C and D

d)

Antibiotics

88.

What should be monitored during Amphotericin B infusion?

a)

Vital signs, infusion reaction findings, BUN, creatinine, blood potassium levels.

b)

Blood glucose, liver enzymes, cholesterol levels, blood pressure.

c)

Respiratory rate, hemoglobin, platelet count, uric acid levels.

d)

Heart rate, calcium levels, thyroid function, blood alcohol levels.

89.

What is a key interaction of Amphotericin B with nephrotoxic medications?

a)

Nephrotoxicity is increased.

b)

Nephrotoxicity is decreased.

c)

Amphotericin B becomes inactive.

d)

Renal protection is provided.

90.

What is the therapeutic use of Urinary Tract Antiseptics (Nitrofurantoin)?

a)

Treatment and prevention of UTIs.

b)

Management of hypertension.

c)

Relief of joint pain.

d)

Treatment of skin infections.

91.

What are the respiratory manifestations of Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs)?

a)

Acute: chills/fever, cough; Subacute: cough, shortness of breath, may be permanent

b)

Acute: rash, joint pain; Subacute: headache, dizziness

c)

Acute: abdominal pain, vomiting; Subacute: diarrhea, constipation

d)

Acute: blurred vision, ear pain; Subacute: hearing loss, tinnitus

92.

Which of the following is a permanent adverse drug reaction commonly seen in clients with impaired renal function?

a)

GI manifestations

b)

Permanent peripheral neuropathy

c)

Blood cell dysfunction

d)

Tooth staining

93.

What should be monitored and reported as part of interventions for adverse drug reactions?

a)

Monitor and report respiratory findings (medication will be discontinued). Monitor for and report manifestations of neuropathy. Monitor laboratory values of blood components.

b)

Only monitor blood pressure and ignore other symptoms.

c)

Report only gastrointestinal symptoms and disregard respiratory findings.

d)

Monitor and report only skin reactions, ignoring laboratory values.

94.

What instructions should be given to clients regarding food and reporting symptoms when taking this medication?

a)

Take with food or milk. Report acute or subacute respiratory manifestations (dyspnea, fever, cough). Report numbness, tingling, and weakness of the extremities (neuropathy).

b)

Take on an empty stomach. Ignore any respiratory symptoms. Do not report numbness or tingling.

c)

Take only with water. Report only gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea or vomiting.

d)

Take with fruit juice. Report headaches and dizziness, but not respiratory or neurological symptoms.

95.

Which of the following is a contraindication for this medication?

a)

Impaired kidney function

b)

Pregnancy at more than 38 weeks gestation

c)

Infants less than 1 month

d)

All of the above

96.

What is the effect of concurrent use with antacids on absorption of this medication?

a)

Concurrent use with antacids will decrease absorption.

b)

Concurrent use with antacids will increase absorption.

c)

Concurrent use with antacids will have no effect on absorption.

d)

Concurrent use with antacids will enhance the medication's potency.

97.

Probenecid increases the chance of toxicity and should be avoided with medications that have the potential for pulmonary toxicity.

a)

True

b)

False