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HEMA 1 MODULE 7 AND 8 QUIZ

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The process of formation and development of blood cells is termed:

a)

Hematopoiesis

b)

Hematemesis

c)

Hematocytometry

d)

Hematorrhea

2.

During the second trimester of fetal development, the primary site of blood cell production is the:

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Spleen

c)

Lymph nodes

d)

Liver

3.

Which one of the following organs is responsible for the maturation of T lymphocytes and regulation of their expression of CD4 and CD8?

a)

Spleen

b)

Liver

c)

Thymus

d)

Bone marrow

4.

The best source of active bone marrow from a 20-year-old would be:

a)

Iliac crest

b)

Femur

c)

Distal radius

d)

Tibia

5.

Physiologic programmed cell death is termed:

a)

Angiogenesis

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Aneurysm

d)

Apohematics

6.

Which organ is the site of sequestration of platelets?

a)

Spleen

b)

Liver

c)

Thymus

d)

Bone marrow

7.

Which one of the following morphologic changes occurs during normal blood cell maturation:

a)

Increase in cell diameter

b)

Development of cytoplasm basophilia

c)

Condensation of nuclear chromatin

d)

Appearance of nucleoli

8.

What growth factor is produced in the kidneys and is used to treat anemia associated with kidney disease?

a)

EPO

b)

TPO

c)

G-CSF

d)

KIT ligand

9.

Which one of the following cytokines is required very early in the differentiation of a hematopoietic stem cell

a)

IL-2

b)

IL-8

c)

EPO

d)

FLT3 ligand

10.

When a patient has severe anemia and the bone marrow is unable to effectively produce red blood cells to meet the increased demand, one of the body’s responses is:

a)

Extramedullary hematopoiesis in the liver and spleen

b)

Decreased production of erythropoietin by the kidney

c)

Increased apoptosis of erythrocyte progenitor cells

d)

Increase the proportion of yellow marrow in the long

bones

11.

Hematopoietic stem cells produce all lineages of blood

cells in sufficient quantities over the lifetime of an individual because they

a)

Are unipotent

b)

Have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division

c)

Are present in large numbers in the bone marrow niches

d)

Have a low mitotic potential in response to growth factors

12.

Which of the following is an erythrocyte progenitor?

a)

Pronormocyte

b)

Reticulocyte

c)

Colony Forming Unit-Erythrocyte

d)

Orthochromic normoblast

13.

Which of the following is the most mature normoblast?

a)

Orthochromic normoblast

b)

Basophilic normoblast

c)

Pronormoblast

d)

Polychromatic normoblast

14.

What erythroid precursor can be described as follows: the cell is of medium size compared with other normoblasts, with an N:C ratio of nearly 1:1. The nuclear chromatin is condensed and chunky throughout the nucleus. No nucleoli are seen. The cytoplasm is a muddy, blue-pink color.

a)

Reticulocyte

b)

Pronormoblast

c)

Orthochromic normoblast

d)

Polychromatic normoblast

15.

Which of the following is not related to the effects of erythropoietin?

a)

The number of divisions of a normoblast

b)

The formation of pores in sinusoidal endothelial cells for marrow egress

c)

The time between mitoses of normoblasts

d)

The production of antiapoptotic molecules by erythroid progenitors

16.

Hypoxia stimulates RBC production by:

a)

Inducing more pluripotent stem cells into the erythroid lineage

b)

Stimulating EPO production by the kidney

c)

Increasing the number of RBC mitoses

d)

Stimulating the production of fibronectin by macrophages of the bone marrow

17.

In the bone marrow, RBC precursors are located:

a)

In the center of the hematopoietic cords

b)

Adjacent to megakaryocytes along the adventitial cell lining

c)

Surrounding fat cells in apoptotic islands

d)

Surrounding macrophages in erythroid islands

18.

What single feature of normal RBCs is most responsible for limiting their life span?

a)

Loss of mitochondria

b)

Increased flexibility of the cell membrane

c)

Reduction of hemoglobin iron

d)

Loss of the nucleus

19.

Intravascular or fragmentation hemolysis is the result of trauma to RBCs while in the circulation.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Extravascular hemolysis occurs when

a)

RBCs are mechanically ruptured

b)

RBCs extravasate from the blood vessels into the tissues

c)

Splenic macrophages ingest senescent cells

d)

Erythrocytes are trapped in blood clots outside the blood vessels

21.

A pronormoblast in its usual location belongs to the RBC mass of the body, but not to the erythron.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

. A cell has an N:C ratio of 4:1. Which of the following statements would describe it?

a)

The bulk of the cell is composed of cytoplasm.

b)

The bulk of the cell is composed of nucleus

c)

The proportions of cytoplasm and nucleus are roughly

equal.

d)

None of the choices

23.

Which RBC process does not require energy?

a)

Oxygen transport

b)

Cytoskeletal protein deformability

c)

Preventing the peroxidation of proteins and lipids

d)

Maintaining cytoplasm cationic electrochemical gradients

24.

What pathway anaerobically generates energy in the form of ATP?

a)

Hexose monophosphate pathway

b)

Rapoport-Luebering pathway

c)

Embden-Meyerhof pathway

d)

2,3-BPG pathway

25.

Which is true concerning 2,3-DPG?

a)

The least abundant of RBC organophosphates

b)

Enhances O2 release from hemoglobin

c)

Source of RBC glucose

d)

Source of RBC ATP

26.

To survive, the RBC must detoxify peroxides. What

hexose-monophosphate shunt product(s) accomplishes detoxification?

a)

ATP

b)

2,3-DPG

c)

Pyruvic and lactic acid

d)

NADPH and reduced glutathione

27.

Which of the following helps maintain RBC shape?

a)

Membrane phospholipids

b)

Cytoskeletal proteins

c)

GPI anchor

d)

Glycocalyx

28.

The glycolipids of the RBC membrane:

a)

Provide flexibility

b)

Carry RBC antigens

c)

Constitute ion channels.

d)

Attach the cytoskeleton to the lipid layer

29.

RBC membranes block passage of most large molecules such as proteins, but allow passage of small molecules such as the cations Na+, K+, and Ca2+. What is the term for this membrane property?

a)

Semipermeable

b)

Deformable

c)

Intangible

d)

Flexible

30.

RBC membrane phospholipids are arranged:

a)

In a hexagonal lattice

b)

In chains beneath a protein exoskeleton.

c)

In two layers whose composition is asymmetric

d)

So that hydrophobic portions are facing the plasma.

31.

RBC membrane cholesterol is replenished from the:

a)

Plasma

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

EMB pathway

32.

The hemoglobin iron ion may become oxidized to the +3 valence state by several pathological mechanisms. What portion of the Embden-Meyerhof pathway reduces iron to the physiologic +2 valence state?

a)

Methemoglobin reductase pathway

b)

Hexose monophosphate pathway

c)

Rapoport-Luebering pathway

d)

The 2,3-BPG shunt

33.

Which of the following is an example of a transmembrane or integral membrane protein?

a)

Glycophorin A

b)

Ankyrin

c)

Spectrin

d)

Actin

34.

Abnormalities in the horizontal and vertical linkages

of the transmembrane and cytoskeletal RBC membrane proteins may be seen as:

a)

Shape changes

b)

Methemoglobin increase

c)

Reduced hemoglobin content

d)

Enzyme pathway deficiencies

35.

A hemoglobin molecule is composed of:

a)

One heme molecule and four globin chains

b)

Ferrous iron, protoporphyrin IX, and a globin chain

c)

Protoporphyrin IX and four globin chains

d)

Four heme molecules and four globin chains

36.

Normal adult Hb A contains which polypeptide chains?

a)

alpha and beta

b)

alpha and delta

c)

alpha and gamma

d)

alpha and epsilon

37.

The predominant hemoglobin found in a healthy newborn is:

a)

Gower-1

b)

Gower-2

c)

Hb A

d)

Hb F

38.

What is the normal distribution of hemoglobins in healthy adults?

a)

80% to 90% Hb A1, 5% to 10% Hb A2, 1% to 5% Hb F

b)

80% to 90% Hb A2, 5% to 10% Hb A1, 1% to 5% Hb F

c)

>95% Hb A1, <3.5% Hb A2, 1% to 2% Hb F

d)

>90% Hb A1, 5% Hb F, <5% Hb A2

39.

Which of the following is a description of the structure of oxidized hemoglobin?

a)

Hemoglobin carrying oxygen on heme; synonymous with oxygenated hemoglobin

b)

Hemoglobin with iron in the ferric state (methemoglobin) and not able to carry oxygen

c)

Hemoglobin with iron in the ferric state so that carbon dioxide replaces oxygen in the heme structure

d)

Hemoglobin carrying carbon monoxide; hence “oxidized”

refers to the single oxygen

40.

Iron is transported in plasma via:

a)

Hemosiderin

b)

Ferritin

c)

Transferrin

d)

Hemoglobin

41.

What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?

a)

Hemosiderin

b)

Ferritin

c)

Transferrin

d)

Hemoglobin

42.

The total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) of the serum is an indirect measure of which iron-related protein?

a)

Hemosiderin

b)

Ferritin

c)

Transferrin

d)

Hemoglobin

43.

What membrane-associated protein in enterocytes transports iron from the intestinal lumen into the enterocyte?

a)

Transferrin

b)

Ferroportin

c)

DMT1

d)

Ferrochelatase

44.

Iron is transported out of macrophages, hepatocytes, and enterocytes by what membrane protein?

a)

Transferrin

b)

Ferroportin

c)

DMT1

d)

Ferrochelatase

45.

The transfer of iron from the enterocyte into the plasma is REGULATED by

a)

Transferrin

b)

Ferroportin

c)

Hephaestin

d)

Hepcidin

46.

The normal sequence of blood cell development is

a)

yolk sac—red bone marrow—liver and spleen

b)

yolk sac—thymus—liver and spleen—red bone marrow

c)

yolk sac—liver and spleen—red bone marrow

d)

liver and spleen—yolk sac—red bone marrow

47.

The maturational sequence(s) of the erythrocyte is

(are)

a)

rubriblast—prorubricyte—rubricyte—metarubricyte reticulocyte—mature erythrocyte

b)

prorubricyte—rubricyte—metarubricyte—reticulocyte—mature erythrocyte

c)

pronormoblast—basophilic normoblast-polychromatophilic normoblast—orthochromic normoblast—reticulocyte—mature erythrocyte

d)

All of the above

48.

As a blood cell matures, the overall cell diameter in most cases

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains the same

d)

None of the given choices

49.

As a blood cell matures, the ratio of nucleus to cytoplasm (N:C) in most ca

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains the same

d)

None of the given choices

50.

The chromatin pattern, in most cells, as the cell

matures

a)

becomes more clumped

b)

becomes less clumped

c)

remains the same

d)

Any of the choices

51.

The presence of nucleoli is associated with

a)

immature cells

b)

all young cells, except myeloblasts

c)

only erythroblasts

d)

disintegrating cells

52.

Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of erythropoietin?

a)

Glycoprotein

b)

Secreted by the liver

c)

Secreted by the kidneys

d)

All of the given choices

53.

Which of the following is a characteristic of erythropoietin?

a)

Produced primarily in the liver of the unborn

b)

Gene for erythropoietin is found on chromosome 11

c)

Most erythropoietin is secreted by the liver in adults

d)

Cannot cross the placental barrier

54.

Stimulation of erythropoietin is caused by

a)

tissue hypoxia

b)

hypervolemia

c)

inflammation

d)

infection

55.

What is the immature erythrocyte found in the bone

marrow with the following characteristics: 12 to 17 mm in diameter, N:C of 4:1, nucleoli not usually apparent, and basophilic cytoplasm?

a)

Rubriblast (pronormoblast)

b)

Reticulocyte

c)

Metarubricyte (orthochromatic normoblast)

d)

Prorubricyte (basophilic normoblast)

56.

The nucleated erythrocyte with a reddish pink cytoplasm and condensed chromatin pattern is a

a)

rubricyte (polychromatic normoblast)

b)

basophilic normoblast (prorubricyte)

c)

metarubricyte (orthochromatic normoblast)

d)

None of the choices

57.

With a normal diet, an erythrocyte remains in the reticulocyte stage in the circulating blood for

a)

1 day

b)

3 days

c)

35 days

d)

120 days

58.

In a Wright-stained peripheral blood film, the reticulocyte will have a blue appearance. This is referred to as

a)

megaloblastic maturation

b)

bluemia

c)

polychromatophilia

d)

erythroblastosis

59.

In the reticulocyte stage of erythrocytic development

a)

nuclear chromatin becomes more condensed

b)

RNA is catabolized and ribosomes disintegrate

c)

full hemoglobinization of the cell occurs

d)

RNA is catabolized and ribosomes disintegrate and full hemoglobinization of the cell occurs

60.

On a Wright-stained peripheral blood smear, stress or

shift reticulocytes are

a)

smaller than normal reticulocytes

b)

about the same size as normal reticulocytes

c)

larger than normal reticulocytes

d)

noticeable because of a decreased blue tint

61.

Normal adult hemoglobin has

a)

two alpha and two delta chains

b)

three alpha and one beta chains

c)

two alpha and two beta chains

d)

two alpha and two beta chains

62.

The number of heme groups in a hemoglobin molecule is

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

63.

Increased amounts of 2,3-DPG _____ the oxygen affinity of the hemoglobin molecules

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

does not alter

d)

None of the choices

64.

If normal adult (A1) and fetal hemoglobin F are compared, fetal hemoglobin has _____ affinity for oxygen

a)

less

b)

the same

c)

a greater

d)

None of the choices

65.

Oxyhemoglobin is a _____ than deoxyhemoglobin.

a)

weaker acid

b)

stronger acid

66.

Heme is synthesized predominantly in the

a)

liver

b)

red bone marrow

c)

mature erythrocytes

d)

both in the liver and red bone marrow

67.

If globin synthesis is insufficient in a person, iron accumulates in the cell’s cytoplasm as

_____ aggregates.

a)

transferrin

b)

ferritin

c)

albumin

d)

iron

68.

Increased erythropoietin production in secondary polycythemia can be caused by

a)

chronic lung disease

b)

smoking

c)

renal neoplasms

d)

all of the choices

69.

Relative polycythemia exists when

a)

increased erythropoietin is produced

b)

the total blood volume is expanded

c)

the plasma volume is increased

d)

the plasma volume is decreased

70.

Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of megaloblastic maturation?

a)

Cells of some leukocytic cell lines are smaller than normal

b)

Nuclear maturation lags behind cytoplasmic maturation

c)

Cytoplasmic maturation lags behind nuclear maturation

d)

Erythrocytes are smaller than normal

71.

Which of the following hemoglobin types is the major type present in a normal adult?

a)

A1

b)

S

c)

A2

d)

Bart

72.

Match the hemoglobin types.

Hgb A2

a)

Two alpha and two delta chains

b)

Zeta chains and either epsilon or gamma chains

c)

Two alpha and two beta chains

d)

Two alpha and two gamma chains

73.

Fetal hemoglobin (hemoglobin F) persists until

a)

a few days after birth

b)

a few weeks after birth

c)

several months after birth

d)

adulthood

74.

Cellulose acetate at pH 8.6 separates the hemoglobin

fractions

a)

Hgb S

b)

Hgb H

c)

Hgb A

d)

both Hgb S and Hgb A

75.

If an alkaline (pH 8.6) electrophoresis is performed,

hemoglobin E has the same mobility as hemoglobin

a)

S

b)

F

c)

A

d)

C

76.

The limited metabolic ability of erythrocytes is owing

to

a)

the absence of RNA

b)

the absence of ribosomes

c)

no mitochondria for oxidative metabolism

d)

the absence of DNA

77.

The Embden-Meyerhof glycolytic pathway uses _____ % of the erythrocyte’s total glucose

a)

10

b)

20

c)

50

d)

90

78.

The end product of the Embden-Meyerhof pathway of

glucose metabolism in the erythrocyte is

a)

pyruvate

b)

lactate

c)

glucose-6-phosphate

d)

the trioses

79.

The net gain in ATPs in the Embden-Meyerhof glycolytic pathway is

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

80.

The most common erythrocytic enzyme deficiency

involving the Embden-Meyerhof glycolytic pathway is

a deficiency of

a)

ATPase

b)

pyruvate kinase

c)

glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

d)

lactic dehydrogenase

81.

If a defect in the oxidative pathway (hexose monophosphate shunt) occurs, what will result?

a)

Insufficient amounts of reduced glutathione

b)

Denaturation of globin

c)

Precipitation of Heinz bodies

d)

All of the choices

82.

The function of the methemoglobin reductase pathway is to

a)

prevent oxidation of heme iron

b)

produce methemoglobinemia

c)

provide cellular energy

d)

control the rate of glycolysis

83.

The Luebering-Rapoport pathway

a)

permits the accumulation of 2,3-DPG

b)

promotes glycolysis

c)

produces cellular energy

d)

produces acidosis

84.

As the erythrocyte ages

a)

the membrane becomes less flexible with loss of cell membrane

b)

cellular hemoglobin increases

c)

enzyme activity, particularly glycolysis, decreases

d)

all of the choices

85.

Which of the following statements are true of the intravascular destruction of erythrocytes?

a)

It accounts for less than 10% of normal erythrocyte breakdown

b)

Hemoglobin is released directly into blood.

c)

Alpha and beta dimers are bound to haptoglobin.

d)

All of the choices

86.

The upper limit of the reference range of hemoglobin in an adult male is

a)

10.5 to 12.0 g/dL

b)

12.5 to 14.0 g/dL

c)

13.5 to 15.0 g/dL

d)

14 to 18.0 g/dL

87.

This hemoglobin found on a normal adult is the fastest to migrate at the anode during alkaline agar electrophoresis.

a)

A2

b)

F

c)

A1

d)

Gower

88.

This hemoglobin variant is the fastest to migrate at the anode during alkaline agar electrophoresis.

a)

S

b)

F

c)

A1

d)

H

89.

Shift to the left on the oxygen dissociation curve results in the following except?

a)

Increase Hb affinity to O2

b)

Increase delivery of oxygen to tissues

c)

Decrease Carbon dioxide

d)

Decrease 2,3 DPG

90.

Shift to the right on the oxygen dissociation curve results on all of the following except?

a)

Decrease oxygen affinity

b)

Increase release of oxygen in the tissues

c)

Decrease Carbon Dioxide

d)

Increase 2, 3 DPG

91.

Bart's Hemoglobin is due to the presence of?

a)

4 beta chains

b)

4 gamma chains

c)

4 alpha chains

d)

4 delta chains

92.

Hemoglobin H variant is due to the presence of?

a)

4 beta chains

b)

4 gamma chains

c)

4 alpha chains

d)

4 delta chains

93.

Hemoglobin C is due to?

a)

The VALINE that replaces GLUTAMIC ACID at 6th position

b)

The LYSINE that replaces GLUTAMIC ACID at 6th position

c)

The LYSINE that replaces GLUTAMIC ACID at 26th position

d)

Any of the choices

e)

None of the choices

94.

Hemoglobin E is due to?

a)

The VALINE that replaces GLUTAMIC ACID at 6th position

b)

The LYSINE that replaces GLUTAMIC ACID at 6th position

c)

The LYSINE that replaces GLUTAMIC ACID at 26th position

d)

Any of the choices

e)

None of the choices

95.

This variant of hemoglobin is irreversible and this can be caused by oxidation of hemoglobin caused by drugs and exposure to sulfur chemicals.

a)

Methemoglobin

b)

Sulfhemoglobin

c)

Carboxyhemoglobin

d)

Monoxyhemoglobin

96.

This subfraction of hemoglobin A reflects the concentration of glycosylated hemoglobin accurately reflects the patient’s blood glucose level over the preceding weeks

a)

A1a

b)

A1b

c)

A1c

d)

A1d

97.

It is a disease heme metabolism in which a primary abnormality in porphyrin biosynthesis leads to excessive accumulation and excretion of porphyrins or their precursors by the biliary and/or renal route.

a)

Lead poisoning

b)

Sideroblastic Anemia

c)

Hereditary Hematochromatosis

d)

Porphyria

98.

Gene involved in the alpha and zeta chains.

a)

Chromosome 16

b)

Chromosome 11

c)

Chromosome 6

d)

Chromosome 10

99.

This is the major pathway for RBC destruction.

a)

Extravascular Pathway

b)

Intravascular Pathway

100.

The erythrocyte intracellular-to-extracellular ratios for Na and K are ______, respectively

a)

1:12 and 25:1

b)

12:1 and 1:25

c)

1:25 and 1:12

d)

25:1 and 12:1